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Phlebotomy Review

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What machine uses force to push the blood clot to the bottom of the tube, leaving the clear serum on the top?

a)

Autoclave

b)

Calibrator

c)

Centrifuge

d)

Incubator

2.

What does plasma contain that differs from serum?

a)

Fibrinogen

b)

A buffy coat

c)

RBCs

d)

A clot

e)

WBCs

3.

What is the correct needle position to be inserted for venipuncture?

a)

90 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

15 degrees

4.

What is the first step in a successful venipuncture?

a)

Select the site

b)

Put the patient at ease

c)

Apply the tourniquet appropriately

d)

Apply gloves

e)

Label the tubes with patient name

5.

What is another term for syncope?

a)

Fasting

b)

Relaxation

c)

Fainting

d)

Reclining

6.

Certain levels of blood components are decreased in capillaries. Which of the following is not decreased?

a)

Potassium

b)

Total protein

c)

Calcium

d)

Glucose

e)

None of the above

7.

Which of the following additives does not bind with calcium when mixed with the blood specimen?

a)

Sodium Fluoride

b)

Potassium Oxalate

c)

Sodium Citrate

d)

EDTA

8.

What is a buffy coat?

a)

Heavier erythrocytes

b)

Plasma

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

A mixture of leukocytes and thrombocytes

e)

A mixture of heavier erythrocytes and hemoglobin

9.

Where are red blood cells (RBCs) produced?

a)

Liver

b)

Lymph nodes

c)

Spleen

d)

Bone marrow

10.

What is the most common size needle used for regular vacuum tube systems?

a)

16 G

b)

18 G

c)

20 G

d)

21 G

e)

22 G

11.

What is the most common patient concern when having blood drawn?

a)

Nerve damage

b)

Hematomas

c)

Infection

d)

Pain

12.

What is the purpose of an anticoagulant in a vacuum tube?

a)

To dilute blood before testing

b)

To ensure sterility of the tube

c)

To separate the blood cells into layers

d)

To prevent the blood from clotting

13.

When collecting a blood sample with a vacuum tube system, why is the last tube withdrawn from the holder before removing the needle from the patient?

a)

To avoid hematoma at the venipuncture site

b)

To avoid dripping blood out the end of the needle

c)

To prevent the clotting of blood

d)

To eliminate pain for the patient

14.

Leaving the tourniquet on a patient's arm for an extended length of time before drawing blood may cause which of the following?

a)

Hemoconcentration

b)

Specimen hemolysis

c)

Stress

d)

Bruising

e)

Pain

15.

When drawing multiple specimens in vacuum tubes, it is important to fill which of the following color-stoppered tubes first?

a)

Light blue

b)

Green

c)

Lavender

d)

Red

16.

What organization determines proper lab procedures?

a)

OSHA

b)

L&I

c)

CLIA

d)

CLSI

e)

CMS

17.

What is the single most important way to prevent the spread of infection from patient to patient?

a)

Gowning and gloving

b)

Hand washing

c)

Always wearing masks

d)

Avoid breathing on clients

18.

Which is the anticoagulant of choice when drawing coagulation studies such as PT?

a)

No anticoagulant (red top tube)

b)

Sodium citrate (light blue top tube)

c)

EDTA (lavender top tube)

d)

Heparin (green top tube)

e)

SST (red mottled top tube)

19.

When the medical assistant cannot perform a venipuncture successfully after two attempts, what is the best course?

a)

Try at least two more times

b)

Notify the provider

c)

Ask another health care professional to try

d)

Request the test for the next day

20.

What might happen if the blood is drawn too quickly from a small vein?

a)

The vein might collapse

b)

A bruise might form

c)

The blood cells might disintegrate

d)

The veins could roll

e)

The patient will experience more discomfort

21.

Complete blood count

a)

A larger than normal cell

b)

Platelets

c)

WBC's, one of the formed elements of blood

d)

Hematologic test consisting of Hct, Hgb, RBC and WBC counts, differential WBC count and erythrocyte indices

22.

Erythrocytes

a)

Having less color than normal

b)

Granulocytic WBC with dark purple cytoplasmic granules

c)

RBC's, one of the formed elements of blood

d)

Molecule of RBC that transports oxygen

23.

Eosinophils

a)

Larger than normal cell

b)

WBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

c)

A granulocytic WBC with red-stained granules in the cytoplasm; is increased with allergies

d)

A WBC without cytoplasmic granules; has a large, convoluted, nonsegmented nucleus

24.

Microcytic

a)

Platelets

b)

A smaller than normal cell

c)

RBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

d)

A larger than normal cell

25.

Leukocytes

a)

Having less color than normal

b)

A hormone produced by the kidneys that helps with RBC production

c)

WBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

d)

Test to measure the percentage of RBCs within a specimen of anticoagulated whole blood

26.

Hematocrit

a)

Test to measure the percentage of RBCs within a specimen of anticoagulated whole blood

b)

A hormone produced by the kidneys that helps with RBC production

c)

Having less color than normal

d)

WBC with a dense, nonsegmented nucleus that lacks granules in the cytoplasm

27.

Hemoglobin

a)

Platelets

b)

Molecule of the RBC that transports oxygen

c)

RBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

d)

A larger than normal cell

28.

Basophils

a)

Granulocytic WBC with dark purple cytoplasmic granules

b)

WBC with a dense, nonsegmented nucleus that lacks granules in the cytoplasm

c)

A hormone produced by the kidneys that helps with RBC production

d)

A smaller than normal cell

29.

Thrombocytes

a)

WBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

b)

Platelets

c)

Having less color than normal

d)

RBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

30.

Lymphocyte

a)

WBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

b)

A WBC without cytoplasmic granules; has a large, convoluted, nonsegmented nucleus

c)

Granulocytic WBC with dark purple cytoplasmic granules

d)

WBC with a dense, nonsegmented nucleus that lacks granules in the cytoplasm

31.

Monocytes

a)

WBC with a dense, nonsegmented nucleus that lacks granules in the cytoplasm

b)

Having less color than normal

c)

A WBC without cytoplasmic granules; has a large, convoluted, nonsegmented nucleus

d)

A granulocytic WBC with red-stained granules in the cytoplasm; is increased with allergies

32.

Macrocytic

a)

Having less color than normal

b)

A larger than normal cell

c)

Platelets

d)

A smaller than normal cell

33.

Hypochromic

a)

WBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

b)

A smaller than normal cell

c)

Having less color than normal

d)

Platelets

34.

Erythropoietin

a)

Test to measure the percentage of RBCs within a specimen of anticoagulated whole blood

b)

A hormone produced by the kidneys that helps with RBC production

c)

Molecule of the RBC that transports oxygen

d)

RBCs, one of the formed elements of blood

35.

What is phlebotomy?

a)

A trained professional in blood drawing

b)

The legal standards for a person who performs blood-drawing skills

c)

The process of drawing blood

d)

All of the above are correct

36.

What is a phlebotomist?

a)

A trained professional in blood drawing

b)

The legal standards for a person who performs blood-drawing skills

c)

The process of drawing blood

d)

All of the above

37.

Which of the following is not part of a phlebotomist's point of care job-related duties?

a)

Taking blood pressure

b)

Instructing patients on urine specimen collection

c)

Performing a tracheostomy

d)

Performing basic laboratory tests

38.

All of the following are considered hazards, except:

a)

Bending your knees when lifting heavy objects

b)

Airborne viruses and bacteria

c)

Handling broken glass when wearing gloves

d)

All of the above are hazards

39.

All of the following are true about laboratory safety, except:

a)

You may store food in the laboratory refrigerator

b)

Protect your feet from spills

c)

Always wear required personal protective equipment

d)

All of the above are correct

40.

As written in the Patient's Bill of Rights, the patient has the right to:

a)

Refuse treatment

b)

Not participate in experimental procedures

c)

Know the name of the phlebotomist

d)

All of the above are correct

41.

Certification is evidence that:

a)

The phlebotomist is working in the field

b)

The phlebotomist has demonstrated proficiency in the area of blood drawing

c)

The phlebotomist is licensed in the field

d)

The phlebotomist is accredited in the field

42.

Which of the following is not an OSHA-required personal protection equipment?

a)

Steel-toe shoes

b)

Goggles

c)

Chin-length face shield

d)

Full-length lab coat

43.

The Clinical Lab Improvement Act of 1988 follows guidelines and standards set by the:

a)

CLIA '88

b)

NCC

c)

JCAHO

d)

CDC

44.

Samples collected from a patient in a nursing home are sent to:

a)

POL

b)

CDC

c)

Reference laboratory

d)

An urgent care center

45.

Quality assurance for laboratory personnel includes all of the following, except:

a)

Specimen collection procedures

b)

Specimen transport processes

c)

Specimen-processing policies

d)

The laboratory supervisor's home telephone number

46.

Personal protection equipment must be provided by the:

a)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

b)

OSHA

c)

Employee

d)

Employer

47.

Which of the following personal protection equipment must a phlebotomist use when performing a skin puncture or venipuncture?

a)

Goggles

b)

Gloves

c)

Masks

d)

Caps and booties

48.

Policies adopted by some hospitals that incorporate the patient's constitutional rights to privacy, confidentiality, and informed consent are referred to as:

a)

Statutes

b)

Protest of assignment forms

c)

Patient's Bill of Rights

d)

Quality assurance

49.

This recent OSHA regulation requires that all health care personnel at risk for exposure to ____ receive vaccination.

a)

Hepatitis A virus

b)

Hepatitis B virus

c)

Hepatitis C virus

d)

Hepatitis delta virus

50.

Which of the following would be a reason for rejection of a specimen by the lab?

a)

Patient's name, date of birth, and the date and time are written on the label and requisition slip

b)

Specimen containing an additive has been inverted

c)

An ESR has been collected in a red top tube

d)

All of the above are reasons for rejections

51.

The quality of the test result depends on:

a)

The quality of the specimen

b)

The source of the specimen

c)

The time lapsed between collection of the specimen and analyzing the specimen

d)

Whether the sample is going to be analyzed for glucose or phosphate

52.

The purpose of quality control is to:

a)

Check machinery with automated procedures

b)

Ensure that proper laboratory procedures are being followed

c)

Ensure that adequate patient care is being provided

d)

All of the above are correct

53.

A specimen may be rejected by the lab if:

a)

The tube was not initialed

b)

The blood is hemolyzed

c)

The tube was not transported properly

d)

All of the above are correct

54.

Transport bags have a separate compartment (pouch) for requisitions in order to:

a)

Safeguard the requisition

b)

Keep the specimen from getting lost

c)

Prevent contamination if the specimen leaks

d)

Ensure the requisition goes to central receiving and the specimen to the processing lab

55.

____ is the most important step in phlebotomy other than testing procedures.

a)

Proper patient identification

b)

Proper hand washing

c)

Proper specimen handling

d)

Collecting sufficient blood

56.

When identifying a patient, the phlebotomist must:

a)

Ask the patient to give his or her name

b)

Check the patient's ID band

c)

Ask the family members to identify the patient

d)

All of the above are correct

57.

When an admitted patient is not wearing an ID band, the phlebotomist must:

a)

Ask the patient for a picture ID

b)

Not draw blood from this patient

c)

Simply question the patient and confirm the date of birth

d)

Contact the nursing station and request an ID band be placed on the patient

58.

What is the proper procedure for a phlebotomist to follow if a physician or clergy is in the patient's room at the time of the draw?

a)

Ask the physician or clergy to step outside

b)

Draw the blood with the physician or clergy present

c)

Return at another time if the specimen is not STAT

d)

Ask the physician or clergy to step outside or return at another time if the specimen is not STAT

59.

What should the phlebotomist do if he or she cannot communicate with the patient?

a)

Communicate with the hands

b)

Leave the room, let the doctor draw

c)

Draw the blood without consent

d)

All of the above are correct

60.

Tubes containing additives should be inverted:

a)

3-4 times

b)

4-5 times

c)

5-10 times

d)

Not to be inverted

61.

The additive within the lavender top tube is:

a)

No additive

b)

Heparin

c)

SPS or ACD

d)

EDTA

62.

The green top tube contains:

a)

No additive

b)

Heparin

c)

SPS or ACD

d)

EDTA

63.

The yellow top tube contains:

a)

No additive

b)

Heparin

c)

SPS or ACD

d)

EDTA

64.

The red top tube contains:

a)

No additive

b)

Heparin

c)

SPS or ACD

d)

EDTA

65.

Which of the following tubes contain(s) sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate?

a)

Red top tube

b)

Lavender top tube

c)

Gray top tube

d)

All tubes with splash guards

66.

Which of the following tubes would hold a glucose specimen for 24 hours?

a)

Red top tube

b)

Lavender top tube

c)

Grey top tube

d)

All tubes with splash guards

67.

In which tube would a phlebotomist collect an erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

a)

Red top tube

b)

Lavender top tube

c)

Grey top tube

d)

All tubes with splash guards

68.

Cardiac enzymes are drawn in:

a)

Red top tube

b)

Lavender top tube

c)

Grey top tube

d)

All tubes with splash guards

69.

Which of the following tubes yield(s) a serum specimen?

a)

Red top tube

b)

Lavender top tube

c)

Gray top tube

d)

All of the above yield a serum specimen

70.

Coagulation studies include all of the following except:

a)

Prothrombin time

b)

Complete blood count

c)

Partial thromboplastin time

d)

Platelet function

71.

A blood donation given by a patient for use during his or her surgical procedure is called:

a)

An autologous donation

b)

A cryoprecipitated donation

c)

A Willebrand's collection

d)

None of the above

72.

If a light blue stoppered tube is the only tube to be collected, what must the phlebotomist do prior to the tube collection?

a)

Draw a lavender top tube

b)

Perform a bleeding time test

c)

Draw and discard a red top tube

d)

Send the patient to hematology