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WorksheetsTest one 100 Q&A NBoard
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 54mins
1. During swallowing, the hyoid bone moves downward. During swallowing, the larynx elevates.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
2. Which nervous system produces the fight-or-flight reaction?
a. Parasympathetic
b. Sympathetic
c. Peripheral
d. Central
3. A patient is experiencing symptoms related to Bell’s palsy. Which cranial nerve is suffering from a motor deficit?
a. Facial
b. Trigeminal
c. Trochlear
d. Hypoglossal
4. What is mobilized in and out of the blood during bone remodeling?
a. Canaliculi
b. Osteoclasts
c. Calcium
d. Osteoblasts
5. Which of the following cranial nerves pass through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid bone?
a. Trigeminal mandibular
b. Nasopalatine
c. Trigeminal maxillary
d. Abducent
6. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the ______.
a. foramen spinosum
b. superior orbital fissure
c. foramen ovale
d. foramen rotundum
7. Which cranial nerve is the longest and extends to the trunk of the body?
a. Hypoglossal
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Trigeminal
10. The trigeminal ganglion of the fifth (V) trigeminal nerve has three divisions. Which of the following is NOT a division of the trigeminal ganglion?
a. Opthalmic
b. Mandibular
c. Optic
d. Maxillary
11. Which three of the following are lymphatic organs?
a. Tonsils
b. Pituitary gland
c. Spleen
d. Thymus
e. Kidney
13. What parallels the venous blood vessels and returns filtered fluids to the bloodstream?
a. The endocrine system
b. The lymphatic system
c. The arterial blood vessel system
d. The circulatory system
14. What type of cell-to-cell attachments are found in enamel-forming ameloblasts?
a. Hemidesmosome
b. Tight junctions
c. Desmosomes
d. Gap junctions
15. What is the homogenous, translucent gel enclosed in a cell by the cell membrane?
a. Lipid droplets
b. Cytoplasm
c. Lysosome
d. Nucleus
16. Which type of epithelia lines the oral cavity?
a. Stratisfied squamous
b. Simple squamous
c. Stratified columnar
d. Simple columnar
19. Which TWO are folds of tissue in the inferior to ventral surfaces of the tongue?
a. Labial frenum
b. Sublingual caruncle
c. Sublingual fold
d. Lingual frenum
20. Which cranial bone is the single bone located in the most posterior portion of the skull?
a. Mandible
b. Lambdiodal suture
c. Parietal
d. Occipital
21. Which muscle of mastication is superficially located and one of the strongest muscles?
a. Medial pterygoid
b. Masseter
c. Temporalis
d. Lateral pterygoid
22. Which tooth has a mesial root concavity that is not as prominent?
a. Mandibular second molar
b. Mandibular first molar
c. Maxillary first molar
d. Maxillary first premolar
23. Which tooth has a furcation that is in the apical third to 1/2 of the tooth?
a. Mandibular first premolar
b. Mandibular second premolar
c. Maxillary first premolar
d. Maxillary second premolar
24. Which two of the following are functions of the stomach?
a. Storage of ingested food until it is emptied into the small intestine
b. Stimulated by PANS
c. Secretion of HC1 and enzymes that initiate digestion
d. Inhibited by SANS
25. Which two of the following are branches that diverge from the maxillary artery?
a. Incisive artery
b. Posterior auricular
c. Ascending palatine artery
d. Inferior alveolar
26. A patient’s mandibular first permanent molar’s mesiobuccal groove is in a mesial relationship to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar. What classification of occlusion is this?
a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV
27. Which of the following teeth has a long lingual root that usually extends beyond the lingual surface of the crown?
a. Mandibular first molar
b. Maxillary first molar
c. Mandibular second molar
d. Maxillary second molar
28. Which tooth may have a lingual groove extending from the crown to the root?
a. Maxillary central incisors
b. Mandibular central incisors
c. Mandibular lateral incisors
d. Maxillary lateral incisors
29. Which two of the following food sources is an example of a disaccharide sugar structure?
a. Apple
b. Honey
c. Banana
d. Carrots
30. What is the recommended fiber intake each day for an adult?
a. 0-10 grams
b. 10-20 grams
c. 20-30 grams
d. 20-50 grams
31. A healthy blood glucose level range is __________ mg/100mL blood.
a. 50-100
b. 70-120
c. 90-150
d. 100-175
32. Which complex carbohydrate is made up of the plant form of glucose?
a. Cellulose
b. Glycogen
c. Starch
d. Pectin
33. Decalcification and demineralization of tooth enamel begins at what pH?
a. 3.3
b. 5.5
c. 6.6
d. 7.7
34. What sweetener is found in plants and can interfere with the metabolism of s. Mutans?
a. Glucose
b. Sorbitol
c. Xylitol
d. Mannitol
35. What is the recommended daily allowance for digestible carbohydrates?
a. 50-100 g/day
b. 130 g/day
c. 100-150 g/day
d. 175 g/day
36. Carbohydrates are an energy source for the growth and repair of periodontal tissues. A firm texture of complex carbohydrates may increase circulation in gingival tissue.
a. Both statements are true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. Both statements are false
37. Yogurt is not recommended for lactose intolerant patients. Lactose intolerance may be due to a congenital absence of lactase.
a. Both statements are true
b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
c. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
d. Both statements are false
38. Which leukocyte is associated with acute inflammation?
a. Neutrophils
b. Basophils
c. Eosinophils
d. Mast cells
39. If an antibody is produced by an individual and passed on to another, such as a mother to her child, what type of immunity is this?
a. Naturally active
b. Naturally passive
c. Artificially active
d. Artificially passive
41. Which Hepatitis virus is transmitted through a fecal-oral route?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
42. Which three of the following symptoms are signs found in a child that may have hypothyroidism?
a. Enlarged tongue
b. Delayed tooth eruption
c. Enlarged lips
d. Periodontal disease
43. Which disease of the bone marrow exhibits abnormally low levels of white blood cells (WBCs)?
a. Neutropenia
b. Leukopenia
c. Leukemia
d. Multiple myeloma
44. What is a common side effect of radiation and or chemotherapy that causes painful inflammation and ulceration of mucous membranes?
a. Candida infections
b. Osteoradionecrosis
c. Sore throat
d. Mucositis
45. What microorganism is resistant to high temperatures and disinfectants?
a. Glycocalyx
b. Gram-positive bacteria
c. Endospore
d. Capsules
46. Which of the following microbes cannot perform or may be destroyed in the presence of oxygen?
a. Microaerophiles
b. Aerobes
c. Facultative anaerobes
d. Anaerobes
47. Infection transmission that involves touching a contaminated object is considered:
a. Direct contact
b. Nondirect contact
c. Vehicle
d. Passive
48. An infection that affects an immunocompromised person is considered:
a. Chronic
b. Acute
c. Passive
d. Opportunistic
49. What are the smallest and simplest infectious agents?
a. Endospores
b. Viruses
c. Gram-negative bacteria
d. Fungi
50. Which two conditions are examples of vector-borne infections?
a. Rabies
b. Lyme disease
c. West Nile virus
d. Giardia
51. What is a natural chemotherapeutic compound that is produced by a bacterium and will inhibit or kill bacteria?
a. Antibiotic
b. Allergy
c. Immunity
d. Vaccination
52. A highly infectious condition that leaves pustules and itchy yellow scabs around the mouth and face is called _______.
a. Abscess
b. Impetigo
c. Human Papillomavirus
d. Acne
53. What two symptoms are associated with liver disorders?
a. Increased saliva production
b. Xerostomia
c. Jaundice
d. Sunken eyes
54. Which two Hepatitis viral strains are spread through sexual contact?
a. Hep A
b. Hep B
c. Hep C
d. Hep E
55. Which of the following is NOT a sign of leukemia?
a. Abnormal bruising
b. Spontaneous sulcular bleeding
c. Pallor of the gingiva
d. Red gingival tissues
56. What bone disease is most common in children and involves abnormal proliferation of fibrous connective tissues?
a. Fibrous dysplasia
b. Osteoporosis
c. Paget’s disease
d. Neoplasia
57. The most common form of oral cancer is:
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Malignant melanoma
d. Pleomorphic adenoma
58. Which cardiovascular disease is associated with periodontal disease, placing an emphasis on improving oral health in an attempt to reduce the risk of disease?
a. Cerebrovascular disease
b. Hypertension
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Coronary artery atherosclerosis
59. Local anesthetics containing vasoconstrictors should not be administered to asthma patients. It also should not be used for patients that suffer from emphysema.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
60. What type of seizure exhibits symptoms of jerking motions and no loss of consciousness?
a. Status epilepticus
b. Petit mal
c. Grand mal
d. None of the above
61. What disease exhibits itself in a classic “butterfly” pattern rash over the patient’s face?
a. Phemphigus vulgaris
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Scleroderma
d. Lupus
62. Wedge-shaped lesions along the cervical margin of the teeth are referred to as _________.
a. Erosion
b. Abrasion
c. Abfraction
d. Attrition
63. A condition of the oral tissues due to hormonal changes during pregnancy is called ___________.
a. Pyogenic granuloma
b. Sialolith
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
64. A discoloration of the oral mucosa that may have a radiopaque appearance.
a. Traumatic neuroma
b. Amalgam tattoo
c. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
d. Melanoma
65. Which cyst exhibits bluish swelling around a newly erupting crown, most common with the eruption of primary teeth?
a. Odontogenic keratocyst
b. Dentigerous cyst
c. Nonodontogenic cysts
d. Eruption cyst
66. Supernumerary teeth usually exhibit microdontia. They are most commonly found in the maxilla.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
67. Which of the following is an exophytic area of enamel on the root surface?
a. Dens in dente
b. Enamel pearl
c. Enamel hypoplasia
d. Gemination
68. Dental fluorosis causing damage to tooth development occurs approximately at what ages?
a. 0-12 months
b. 12 months - 12 years
c. 6 months - 5 years
d. 5 years - 12 years
69. Which two anomalies may involve the buccal mucosa?
a. Linea alba
b. Leukoedema
c. Lingual variscosities
d. Ranula
70. An asymptomatic cluster of yellow lobules of sebaceous glands is known as what?
a. Median rhomboid glossitis
b. Ranula
c. Fordyce granules
d. Lingual thyroid nodule
71. Which two anomalies involve the desquamation of filiform lingual papillae?
a. Geographic tongue
b. Fissured tongue
c. Black hairy tongue
d. Benign migratory glossitis
72. What is the term used to describe a sharp bend or curve in the root of a formed tooth?
a. Concrescence
b. Dilaceration
c. Fusion
d. Gemination
73. What two medications are contraindicated for children due to the risk of developing Reye’s syndrome?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Aspirin
c. Ipubrophen
d. Bayer
74. Which pharmacological abbreviation is for medicine to be taken “twice daily”?
a. ud
b. tid
c. bid
d. prn
75. The SANS enables the body to maintain bodily function during normal activities. The PANS enables the body to function during emergencies.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
76. Which two of the following are typical effects or reactions while using Adrenergic medications?
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Bronchodilation
c. CNS depression
d. Lowered blood pressure
77. What is the pharmaceutical dose that produces 50% of the maximum response in 50% of subjects?
a. Lethal dose
b. Log dose
c. Effective dose
d. Duration
78. Which of the following is NOT an anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDs)?
a. Diazepam
b. Ibuprophen
c. Naproxen
d. Diflunisal
79. Which of the following is TRUE about local anesthetic agents?
a. They should be non-potent.
b. They should be irreversible.
c. They should have a rapid onset.
d. They have a short shelf life.
80. Which of the following are advantages of nitrous-oxide use in the dental office?
a. Nonflammable
b. May be used on children
c. Rapid onset and recovery
d. All of the above
81. What sedative medications provide a wide therapeutic index and are safer than barbiturates?
a. Analgesics
b. NSAIDs
c. Salicylates
d. Benzodiazepines
82. Which drug used in the dental office should be avoided during treatment of a pregnant patient?
a. NSAIDs
b. Epinephrine
c. Amoxicillin
d. All of the above
83. Which medication is known to cause gingival hyperplasia?
a. Dilantin
b. Diflucan
c. Dyazide
d. Neurontin
84. What is the primary site for drug metabolism?
a. Pancreas
b. Liver
c. Small intestine
d. Cardiovascular system
85. What cardiovascular agents cause vasodilation of the blood vessels?
a. Antiarrhythmic drugs
b. Antihypertensive drugs
c. Calcium channel blockers
d. Anticoagulants
86. Nystatin is used to treat:
a. Oral candidiasis
b. Periodontal infections
c. Herpes simplex
d. Dental abscesses
87. The small elevated tissue opposite of the maxillary second molar:
a. Parotid duct
b. Parotid gland
c. Parotid papilla
d. Mucobuccal fold
88. The facial portion of the alveolus of the canine:
a. Periodontal ligaments
b. Alveolus
c. Alveolar process
d. Canine eminence
89. Abnormal variations on the lingual aspect of the mandibular arch:
a. Tori
b. Exostoses
c. Tuberosity
d. Retromolar pad
90. Which branch of the trigeminal nerve provides nerve supply to the maxillary posterior lingual periodontium?
a. Middle superior alveolar nerve
b. Greater palatine nerve
c. Nasopalatine nerve
d. Inferior alveolar nerve
91. When normal shedding of epithelium of the filiform lingual papilla does not occur, It produces thick layers of dead cells and keratin builds on the tongue surface:
a. Geographic tongue
b. Halitosis
c. Black hairy tongue
d. Melanin pigmentation
92. The retention of saliva in a minor salivary gland results in a:
a. Mucocele
b. Ranula
c. Nicotinic stomatitis
d. Xerostomia
93. What is the name of the papillae that are lined along the anterior side of the sulcus terminals on the body of the tongue?
a. Fungiform
b. Circumvallate
c. Foliate
d. Filiform
94. Which gland is located at the junction of the larynx and the trachea and can be palpated?
a. Parathyroid
b. Sublingual salivary
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Thyroid
95. What is a function of the small intestine?
a. Absorb nutrients and minerals from food
b. Absorb water from indigestible food
c. Breakdown and digest food
d. Reabsorb fluids and process waste products
96. What is the drug-nutrient interaction of amoxicillin?
a. Metabolism is inhibited with grapefruit juice.
b. It cannot be taken with food as its effectiveness decreases.
c. It may alter intestinal flora, resulting in malabsorption of nutrients.
d. It cannot be taken with antacids because its effectiveness decreases.
97. Tuberculosis is transmitted by what means?
a. Direct contact with blood
b. Direct contact with saliva
c. Direct contact with blood or saliva
d. Airborne droplets
98. What are two examples of fecal-oral transmission?
a. Contaminated water supply
b. Mosquitos
c. Ticks
d. Inadequate hand washing
99. All of the following are monosaccharides except:
a. Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Galactose
d. Maltose
100. A blood pressure reading of 148/90 is considered:
a. Normal
b. Prehypertension
c. Hypertension - stage 1
d. Hypertension - stage 2
101. On which tooth does the Cusp of Carabelli normally appear?
a. Maxillary first molar
b. Maxillary second molar
c. Mandibular first molar
d. Mandibular second molar
102. An extra chromosome associated with Down syndrome:
a. Trisomy 23
b. Trisomy 21
c. Trisomy 18
d. Trisomy 13
103. When B-cell lymphocytes divide and form plasma cells, they produce:
a. Immunoglobulins
b. Immunogens
c. Monocyte
d. Macrophage
104. What teeth are nonsuccedaneous?
a. All primary canine teeth
b. All permanent premolar teeth
c. All permanent molar teeth
d. All permeant anterior teeth
105. Which teeth have a trifurcation?
a. Maxillary molars
b. Mandibular molars
c. Maxillary premolar
d. Mandibular premolars
106. Which teeth have the greatest depth of curvature of the CEJ on the mesial surface?
a. Mandibular Lateral incisors
b. Maxillary canine
c. Mandibular centrals
d. Maxillary centrals
