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Test one 100 Q&A NBoard

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. During swallowing, the hyoid bone moves downward. During swallowing, the larynx elevates.

a)

a. Both statements are true

b)

b. Both statements are false

c)

c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false

d)

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

2.

2. Which nervous system produces the fight-or-flight reaction?

a)

a. Parasympathetic

b)

b. Sympathetic

c)

c. Peripheral

d)

d. Central

3.

3. A patient is experiencing symptoms related to Bell’s palsy. Which cranial nerve is suffering from a motor deficit?

a)

a. Facial

b)

b. Trigeminal

c)

c. Trochlear

d)

d. Hypoglossal

4.

4. What is mobilized in and out of the blood during bone remodeling?

a)

a. Canaliculi

b)

b. Osteoclasts

c)

c. Calcium

d)

d. Osteoblasts

5.

5. Which of the following cranial nerves pass through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid bone?

a)

a. Trigeminal mandibular

b)

b. Nasopalatine

c)

c. Trigeminal maxillary

d)

d. Abducent

6.

6. The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve passes through the ______.

a)

a. foramen spinosum

b)

b. superior orbital fissure

c)

c. foramen ovale

d)

d. foramen rotundum

7.

7. Which cranial nerve is the longest and extends to the trunk of the body?

a)

a. Hypoglossal

b)

b. Vagus

c)

c. Facial

d)

d. Trigeminal

8.

10. The trigeminal ganglion of the fifth (V) trigeminal nerve has three divisions. Which of the following is NOT a division of the trigeminal ganglion?

a)

a. Opthalmic

b)

b. Mandibular

c)

c. Optic

d)

d. Maxillary

9.

11. Which three of the following are lymphatic organs?

a)

a. Tonsils

b)

b. Pituitary gland

c)

c. Spleen

d)

d. Thymus

e)

e. Kidney

10.

13. What parallels the venous blood vessels and returns filtered fluids to the bloodstream?

a)

a. The endocrine system

b)

b. The lymphatic system

c)

c. The arterial blood vessel system

d)

d. The circulatory system

11.

14. What type of cell-to-cell attachments are found in enamel-forming ameloblasts?

a)

a. Hemidesmosome

b)

b. Tight junctions

c)

c. Desmosomes

d)

d. Gap junctions

12.

15. What is the homogenous, translucent gel enclosed in a cell by the cell membrane?

a)

a. Lipid droplets

b)

b. Cytoplasm

c)

c. Lysosome

d)

d. Nucleus

13.

16. Which type of epithelia lines the oral cavity?

a)

a. Stratisfied squamous

b)

b. Simple squamous

c)

c. Stratified columnar

d)

d. Simple columnar

14.

19. Which TWO are folds of tissue in the inferior to ventral surfaces of the tongue?

a)

a. Labial frenum

b)

b. Sublingual caruncle

c)

c. Sublingual fold

d)

d. Lingual frenum

15.

20. Which cranial bone is the single bone located in the most posterior portion of the skull?

a)

a. Mandible

b)

b. Lambdiodal suture

c)

c. Parietal

d)

d. Occipital

16.

21. Which muscle of mastication is superficially located and one of the strongest muscles?

a)

a. Medial pterygoid

b)

b. Masseter

c)

c. Temporalis

d)

d. Lateral pterygoid

17.

22. Which tooth has a mesial root concavity that is not as prominent?

a)

a. Mandibular second molar

b)

b. Mandibular first molar

c)

c. Maxillary first molar

d)

d. Maxillary first premolar

18.

23. Which tooth has a furcation that is in the apical third to 1/2 of the tooth?

a)

a. Mandibular first premolar

b)

b. Mandibular second premolar

c)

c. Maxillary first premolar

d)

d. Maxillary second premolar

19.

24. Which two of the following are functions of the stomach?

a)

a. Storage of ingested food until it is emptied into the small intestine

b)

b. Stimulated by PANS

c)

c. Secretion of HC1 and enzymes that initiate digestion

d)

d. Inhibited by SANS

20.

25. Which two of the following are branches that diverge from the maxillary artery?

a)

a. Incisive artery

b)

b. Posterior auricular

c)

c. Ascending palatine artery

d)

d. Inferior alveolar

21.

26. A patient’s mandibular first permanent molar’s mesiobuccal groove is in a mesial relationship to the mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first permanent molar. What classification of occlusion is this?

a)

a. Class I

b)

b. Class II

c)

c. Class III

d)

d. Class IV

22.

27. Which of the following teeth has a long lingual root that usually extends beyond the lingual surface of the crown?

a)

a. Mandibular first molar

b)

b. Maxillary first molar

c)

c. Mandibular second molar

d)

d. Maxillary second molar

23.

28. Which tooth may have a lingual groove extending from the crown to the root?

a)

a. Maxillary central incisors

b)

b. Mandibular central incisors

c)

c. Mandibular lateral incisors

d)

d. Maxillary lateral incisors

24.

29. Which two of the following food sources is an example of a disaccharide sugar structure?

a)

a. Apple

b)

b. Honey

c)

c. Banana

d)

d. Carrots

25.

30. What is the recommended fiber intake each day for an adult?

a)

a. 0-10 grams

b)

b. 10-20 grams

c)

c. 20-30 grams

d)

d. 20-50 grams

26.

31. A healthy blood glucose level range is __________ mg/100mL blood.

a)

a. 50-100

b)

b. 70-120

c)

c. 90-150

d)

d. 100-175

27.

32. Which complex carbohydrate is made up of the plant form of glucose?

a)

a. Cellulose

b)

b. Glycogen

c)

c. Starch

d)

d. Pectin

28.

33. Decalcification and demineralization of tooth enamel begins at what pH?

a)

a. 3.3

b)

b. 5.5

c)

c. 6.6

d)

d. 7.7

29.

34. What sweetener is found in plants and can interfere with the metabolism of s. Mutans?

a)

a. Glucose

b)

b. Sorbitol

c)

c. Xylitol

d)

d. Mannitol

30.

35. What is the recommended daily allowance for digestible carbohydrates?

a)

a. 50-100 g/day

b)

b. 130 g/day

c)

c. 100-150 g/day

d)

d. 175 g/day

31.

36. Carbohydrates are an energy source for the growth and repair of periodontal tissues. A firm texture of complex carbohydrates may increase circulation in gingival tissue.

a)

a. Both statements are true

b)

b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false

c)

d. Both statements are false

32.

37. Yogurt is not recommended for lactose intolerant patients. Lactose intolerance may be due to a congenital absence of lactase.

a)

a. Both statements are true

b)

b. The first statement is true, the second statement is false

c)

c. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

d)

d. Both statements are false

33.

38. Which leukocyte is associated with acute inflammation?

a)

a. Neutrophils

b)

b. Basophils

c)

c. Eosinophils

d)

d. Mast cells

34.

39. If an antibody is produced by an individual and passed on to another, such as a mother to her child, what type of immunity is this?

a)

a. Naturally active

b)

b. Naturally passive

c)

c. Artificially active

d)

d. Artificially passive

35.

41. Which Hepatitis virus is transmitted through a fecal-oral route?

a)

a. A

b)

b. B

c)

c. C

d)

d. D

36.

42. Which three of the following symptoms are signs found in a child that may have hypothyroidism?

a)

a. Enlarged tongue

b)

b. Delayed tooth eruption

c)

c. Enlarged lips

d)

d. Periodontal disease

37.

43. Which disease of the bone marrow exhibits abnormally low levels of white blood cells (WBCs)?

a)

a. Neutropenia

b)

b. Leukopenia

c)

c. Leukemia

d)

d. Multiple myeloma

38.

44. What is a common side effect of radiation and or chemotherapy that causes painful inflammation and ulceration of mucous membranes?

a)

a. Candida infections

b)

b. Osteoradionecrosis

c)

c. Sore throat

d)

d. Mucositis

39.

45. What microorganism is resistant to high temperatures and disinfectants?

a)

a. Glycocalyx

b)

b. Gram-positive bacteria

c)

c. Endospore

d)

d. Capsules

40.

46. Which of the following microbes cannot perform or may be destroyed in the presence of oxygen?

a)

a. Microaerophiles

b)

b. Aerobes

c)

c. Facultative anaerobes

d)

d. Anaerobes

41.

47. Infection transmission that involves touching a contaminated object is considered:

a)

a. Direct contact

b)

b. Nondirect contact

c)

c. Vehicle

d)

d. Passive

42.

48. An infection that affects an immunocompromised person is considered:

a)

a. Chronic

b)

b. Acute

c)

c. Passive

d)

d. Opportunistic

43.

49. What are the smallest and simplest infectious agents?

a)

a. Endospores

b)

b. Viruses

c)

c. Gram-negative bacteria

d)

d. Fungi

44.

50. Which two conditions are examples of vector-borne infections?

a)

a. Rabies

b)

b. Lyme disease

c)

c. West Nile virus

d)

d. Giardia

45.

51. What is a natural chemotherapeutic compound that is produced by a bacterium and will inhibit or kill bacteria?

a)

a. Antibiotic

b)

b. Allergy

c)

c. Immunity

d)

d. Vaccination

46.

52. A highly infectious condition that leaves pustules and itchy yellow scabs around the mouth and face is called _______.

a)

a. Abscess

b)

b. Impetigo

c)

c. Human Papillomavirus

d)

d. Acne

47.

53. What two symptoms are associated with liver disorders?

a)

a. Increased saliva production

b)

b. Xerostomia

c)

c. Jaundice

d)

d. Sunken eyes

48.

54. Which two Hepatitis viral strains are spread through sexual contact?

a)

a. Hep A

b)

b. Hep B

c)

c. Hep C

d)

d. Hep E

49.

55. Which of the following is NOT a sign of leukemia?

a)

a. Abnormal bruising

b)

b. Spontaneous sulcular bleeding

c)

c. Pallor of the gingiva

d)

d. Red gingival tissues

50.

56. What bone disease is most common in children and involves abnormal proliferation of fibrous connective tissues?

a)

a. Fibrous dysplasia

b)

b. Osteoporosis

c)

c. Paget’s disease

d)

d. Neoplasia

51.

57. The most common form of oral cancer is:

a)

a. Basal cell carcinoma

b)

b. Squamous cell carcinoma

c)

c. Malignant melanoma

d)

d. Pleomorphic adenoma

52.

58. Which cardiovascular disease is associated with periodontal disease, placing an emphasis on improving oral health in an attempt to reduce the risk of disease?

a)

a. Cerebrovascular disease

b)

b. Hypertension

c)

c. Congestive heart failure

d)

d. Coronary artery atherosclerosis

53.

59. Local anesthetics containing vasoconstrictors should not be administered to asthma patients. It also should not be used for patients that suffer from emphysema.

a)

a. Both statements are true

b)

b. Both statements are false

c)

c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false

d)

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

54.

60. What type of seizure exhibits symptoms of jerking motions and no loss of consciousness?

a)

a. Status epilepticus

b)

b. Petit mal

c)

c. Grand mal

d)

d. None of the above

55.

61. What disease exhibits itself in a classic “butterfly” pattern rash over the patient’s face?

a)

a. Phemphigus vulgaris

b)

b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

c)

c. Scleroderma

d)

d. Lupus

56.

62. Wedge-shaped lesions along the cervical margin of the teeth are referred to as _________.

a)

a. Erosion

b)

b. Abrasion

c)

c. Abfraction

d)

d. Attrition

57.

63. A condition of the oral tissues due to hormonal changes during pregnancy is called ___________.

a)

a. Pyogenic granuloma

b)

b. Sialolith

c)

c. Gingival hyperplasia

d)

d. Inflammatory papillary hyperplasia

58.

64. A discoloration of the oral mucosa that may have a radiopaque appearance.

a)

a. Traumatic neuroma

b)

b. Amalgam tattoo

c)

c. Necrotizing sialometaplasia

d)

d. Melanoma

59.

65. Which cyst exhibits bluish swelling around a newly erupting crown, most common with the eruption of primary teeth?

a)

a. Odontogenic keratocyst

b)

b. Dentigerous cyst

c)

c. Nonodontogenic cysts

d)

d. Eruption cyst

60.

66. Supernumerary teeth usually exhibit microdontia. They are most commonly found in the maxilla.

a)

a. Both statements are true

b)

b. Both statements are false

c)

c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false

d)

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

61.

67. Which of the following is an exophytic area of enamel on the root surface?

a)

a. Dens in dente

b)

b. Enamel pearl

c)

c. Enamel hypoplasia

d)

d. Gemination

62.

68. Dental fluorosis causing damage to tooth development occurs approximately at what ages?

a)

a. 0-12 months

b)

b. 12 months - 12 years

c)

c. 6 months - 5 years

d)

d. 5 years - 12 years

63.

69. Which two anomalies may involve the buccal mucosa?

a)

a. Linea alba

b)

b. Leukoedema

c)

c. Lingual variscosities

d)

d. Ranula

64.

70. An asymptomatic cluster of yellow lobules of sebaceous glands is known as what?

a)

a. Median rhomboid glossitis

b)

b. Ranula

c)

c. Fordyce granules

d)

d. Lingual thyroid nodule

65.

71. Which two anomalies involve the desquamation of filiform lingual papillae?

a)

a. Geographic tongue

b)

b. Fissured tongue

c)

c. Black hairy tongue

d)

d. Benign migratory glossitis

66.

72. What is the term used to describe a sharp bend or curve in the root of a formed tooth?

a)

a. Concrescence

b)

b. Dilaceration

c)

c. Fusion

d)

d. Gemination

67.

73. What two medications are contraindicated for children due to the risk of developing Reye’s syndrome?

a)

a. Acetaminophen

b)

b. Aspirin

c)

c. Ipubrophen

d)

d. Bayer

68.

74. Which pharmacological abbreviation is for medicine to be taken “twice daily”?

a)

a. ud

b)

b. tid

c)

c. bid

d)

d. prn

69.

75. The SANS enables the body to maintain bodily function during normal activities. The PANS enables the body to function during emergencies.

a)

a. Both statements are true

b)

b. Both statements are false

c)

c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false

d)

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true

70.

76. Which two of the following are typical effects or reactions while using Adrenergic medications?

a)

a. Vasoconstriction

b)

b. Bronchodilation

c)

c. CNS depression

d)

d. Lowered blood pressure

71.

77. What is the pharmaceutical dose that produces 50% of the maximum response in 50% of subjects?

a)

a. Lethal dose

b)

b. Log dose

c)

c. Effective dose

d)

d. Duration

72.

78. Which of the following is NOT an anti-inflammatory drug (NSAIDs)?

a)

a. Diazepam

b)

b. Ibuprophen

c)

c. Naproxen

d)

d. Diflunisal

73.

79. Which of the following is TRUE about local anesthetic agents?

a)

a. They should be non-potent.

b)

b. They should be irreversible.

c)

c. They should have a rapid onset.

d)

d. They have a short shelf life.

74.

80. Which of the following are advantages of nitrous-oxide use in the dental office?

a)

a. Nonflammable

b)

b. May be used on children

c)

c. Rapid onset and recovery

d)

d. All of the above

75.

81. What sedative medications provide a wide therapeutic index and are safer than barbiturates?

a)

a. Analgesics

b)

b. NSAIDs

c)

c. Salicylates

d)

d. Benzodiazepines

76.

82. Which drug used in the dental office should be avoided during treatment of a pregnant patient?

a)

a. NSAIDs

b)

b. Epinephrine

c)

c. Amoxicillin

d)

d. All of the above

77.

83. Which medication is known to cause gingival hyperplasia?

a)

a. Dilantin

b)

b. Diflucan

c)

c. Dyazide

d)

d. Neurontin

78.

84. What is the primary site for drug metabolism?

a)

a. Pancreas

b)

b. Liver

c)

c. Small intestine

d)

d. Cardiovascular system

79.

85. What cardiovascular agents cause vasodilation of the blood vessels?

a)

a. Antiarrhythmic drugs

b)

b. Antihypertensive drugs

c)

c. Calcium channel blockers

d)

d. Anticoagulants

80.

86. Nystatin is used to treat:

a)

a. Oral candidiasis

b)

b. Periodontal infections

c)

c. Herpes simplex

d)

d. Dental abscesses

81.

87. The small elevated tissue opposite of the maxillary second molar:

a)

a. Parotid duct

b)

b. Parotid gland

c)

c. Parotid papilla

d)

d. Mucobuccal fold

82.

88. The facial portion of the alveolus of the canine:

a)

a. Periodontal ligaments

b)

b. Alveolus

c)

c. Alveolar process

d)

d. Canine eminence

83.

89. Abnormal variations on the lingual aspect of the mandibular arch:

a)

a. Tori

b)

b. Exostoses

c)

c. Tuberosity

d)

d. Retromolar pad

84.

90. Which branch of the trigeminal nerve provides nerve supply to the maxillary posterior lingual periodontium?

a)

a. Middle superior alveolar nerve

b)

b. Greater palatine nerve

c)

c. Nasopalatine nerve

d)

d. Inferior alveolar nerve

85.

91. When normal shedding of epithelium of the filiform lingual papilla does not occur, It produces thick layers of dead cells and keratin builds on the tongue surface:

a)

a. Geographic tongue

b)

b. Halitosis

c)

c. Black hairy tongue

d)

d. Melanin pigmentation

86.

92. The retention of saliva in a minor salivary gland results in a:

a)

a. Mucocele

b)

b. Ranula

c)

c. Nicotinic stomatitis

d)

d. Xerostomia

87.

93. What is the name of the papillae that are lined along the anterior side of the sulcus terminals on the body of the tongue?

a)

a. Fungiform

b)

b. Circumvallate

c)

c. Foliate

d)

d. Filiform

88.

94. Which gland is located at the junction of the larynx and the trachea and can be palpated?

a)

a. Parathyroid

b)

b. Sublingual salivary

c)

c. Sternocleidomastoid

d)

d. Thyroid

89.

95. What is a function of the small intestine?

a)

a. Absorb nutrients and minerals from food

b)

b. Absorb water from indigestible food

c)

c. Breakdown and digest food

d)

d. Reabsorb fluids and process waste products

90.

96. What is the drug-nutrient interaction of amoxicillin?

a)

a. Metabolism is inhibited with grapefruit juice.

b)

b. It cannot be taken with food as its effectiveness decreases.

c)

c. It may alter intestinal flora, resulting in malabsorption of nutrients.

d)

d. It cannot be taken with antacids because its effectiveness decreases.

91.

97. Tuberculosis is transmitted by what means?

a)

a. Direct contact with blood

b)

b. Direct contact with saliva

c)

c. Direct contact with blood or saliva

d)

d. Airborne droplets

92.

98. What are two examples of fecal-oral transmission?

a)

a. Contaminated water supply

b)

b. Mosquitos

c)

c. Ticks

d)

d. Inadequate hand washing

93.

99. All of the following are monosaccharides except:

a)

a. Glucose

b)

b. Fructose

c)

c. Galactose

d)

d. Maltose

94.

100. A blood pressure reading of 148/90 is considered:

a)

a. Normal

b)

b. Prehypertension

c)

c. Hypertension - stage 1

d)

d. Hypertension - stage 2

95.

101. On which tooth does the Cusp of Carabelli normally appear?

a)

a. Maxillary first molar

b)

b. Maxillary second molar

c)

c. Mandibular first molar

d)

d. Mandibular second molar

96.

102. An extra chromosome associated with Down syndrome:

a)

a. Trisomy 23

b)

b. Trisomy 21

c)

c. Trisomy 18

d)

d. Trisomy 13

97.

103. When B-cell lymphocytes divide and form plasma cells, they produce:

a)

a. Immunoglobulins

b)

b. Immunogens

c)

c. Monocyte

d)

d. Macrophage

98.

104. What teeth are nonsuccedaneous?

a)

a. All primary canine teeth

b)

b. All permanent premolar teeth

c)

c. All permanent molar teeth

d)

d. All permeant anterior teeth

99.

105. Which teeth have a trifurcation?

a)

a. Maxillary molars

b)

b. Mandibular molars

c)

c. Maxillary premolar

d)

d. Mandibular premolars

100.

106. Which teeth have the greatest depth of curvature of the CEJ on the mesial surface?

a)

a. Mandibular Lateral incisors

b)

b. Maxillary canine

c)

c. Mandibular centrals

d)

d. Maxillary centrals