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US Physics 16-21

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A signal with a 120 decibel dynamic range is compressed by 40 decibels. What is the dynamic range of the compressed signal?

a)

40 decibels

b)

120 decibels

c)

3 decibels

d)

80 decibels

2.

Using pulse inversion harmonics, an image is created with 4 MHz sound. What is the resonant frequency of the transducer?

a)

4 MHz

b)

8 MHz

c)

2 MHz

d)

Can not be determined

3.

Why do contrast agents reflect sound?

a)

Different propagation speed

b)

Impedance of the agent is low

c)

Different speed of sound than soft tissue

d)

Impedance of the agent is different than that of soft tissue

4.

When an individual inhales, the diaphragm​ __________ and venous return to the heart​​ ​____________ .

a)

descends; increases

b)

descends;

decreases

c)

ascends;

increases

d)

ascends; decreases

5.

Which of the following flow patterns is associated with cardiac contraction?

a)

Pulsatile

b)

Phasic

c)

Spontaneous

d)

Continuous

6.

The arterial blood pressure of a standing individual is 100 mmHg at the level of the heart. What is the measured blood pressure at the subject's ankle?

a)

100 mmHg

b)

220 mmHg

c)

0 mmHg

d)

90 mmHg

7.

The Doppler Effect is observed as a change in ___________ and has units of ___________.

a)

amplitude; watts

b)

power; watts

c)

frequency; per second

d)

wavelength; millimeters

8.

What is the resulting change in Pressure and Kinetic energy through a stenosis?

a)

Pressure Inc

Kinetic Dec

b)

Pressure Inc

Kinetic Inc

c)

Pressure Dec

Kinetic Inc

d)

Pressure Dec

Kinetic Inc

9.

What is the range of Doppler shifts commonly measured in clinical exams?

a)

-10 kHz to 1 MHz

b)

-0.5 MHz to 0.5 MHz

c)

-0.02 MHz to 0.02 MHz

d)

None of the Above

10.

What information does the Doppler shift furnish concerning the blood cells that produce it?

a)

velocity

b)

speed

c)

frequency

d)

density

11.

Blood moving at a velocity of 2 m/s creates a Doppler frequency of 3000 Hz. What will the Doppler shift be if the velocity increases to 4 m/s?

a)

3000 Hz

b)

2 Hz

c)

1500 Hz

d)

6000 Hz

12.

Two identical exams are performed using 2.5 MHz and 5 MHz transducers. Which exam will measure the highest Doppler shift?

a)

2.5 MHz exam

b)

5 MHz exam

c)

neither

d)

cannot be determined

13.

Two identical exams are performed using 2.5 MHz and 5 MHz transducers. Which exam will measure the highest velocities?

a)

2.5 MHz exam

b)

5 MHz exam

c)

neither

d)

cannot be determined

14.

What is true of the Doppler shift when the sound beam is normally incident to the velocity of the RBCs?

a)

it is at maximum

b)

it is at half of maximum

c)

it is absent

d)

it is at minimum

15.

Which of the following is not true regarding use of continuous wave (CW) Doppler?

a)

A minimum of 2 PZT crystals are in the transducer.

b)

Problems with aliasing significantly limit its clinical utility.

c)

Frequencies measured at the transducer are produced from many different locations along the beam

d)

The duty cycle is 100%.

16.

The appearance of negative velocities in a pulsed Doppler display always indicates that red blood cells are moving away from the transducer.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The higher the pulse repetition frequency of a Doppler exam, the more likely aliasing will occur.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which choice relates to the presence of gray shades in a Doppler spectrum?

a)

velocity

b)

frequency shift

c)

amplitude of the echo

d)

laminar flow

19.

During a pulsed Doppler exam, aliasing is observed. All of the following may eliminate aliasing except:

a)

selection of another imaging view that provides a greater pulse repetition period

b)

selection of another transducer with a lower frequency

c)

selection of another imaging view with a shallower sample volume

d)

use of a continuous wave system

20.

Color flow Doppler imaging incorporates pulsed Doppler principles and provides range resolution.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Color flow Doppler exams tend to have higher temporal resolution than traditional 2D, real-time imaging.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Absence of color on a color Doppler image always indicates a region of no blood flow.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Velocity mode and variance mode color Doppler will produce identical images when blood flow patterns are laminar.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

What is the current method of processing color Doppler signals?

a)

Fast Fourier Transform

b)

Bernoulli's Principle

c)

Fast Fourier Correlation

d)

Autocorrelation

25.

Starting from the same point, the sound source is moving towards the west at 12 mph and the receiver is moving toward the west at 10mph. The Doppler shift is _____.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Absent

d)

Unable to be determined

26.

An 8 MHz transducer with a pulse repetition frequency of 5000 Hz is imaging to a depth of 7cm. What is the Nyquist frequency?

a)

4 MHz

b)

3.5 Hz

c)

2.2 kHz

d)

2.5 dB

27.

Which situation will commonly produce reverberation artifact?

a)

two masses that lie perpendicular to the sound beam's main axis

b)

two weak reflectors that lie close to each other along the axis of the beam

c)

two strong reflectors that lie along the main axis of the beam

d)

a single highly reflective mass

28.

Which of the following is not a potential cause of artifact in diagnostic imaging?

a)

operator error

b)

equipment malfunction

c)

patient motion

d)

ultrasound physics

e)

none of the above

29.

What is the most likely cause of ring down artifact?

a)

refraction

b)

reflection

c)

reabsorption

d)

inversion

30.

How is shadowing artifact expressed?

a)

positioning structures too deep on this image

b)

locating structures in improper lateral position

c)

placing reflections in multiple locations

d)

reflectors being absent on the image

31.

Which of these produces shadowing?

a)

reverberation

b)

multipath

c)

reflection

d)

attenuation

32.

Unexpected low attenuation results in which of the artifacts listed below?

a)

refraction

b)

attenuation

c)

enhancement

d)

shadowing

33.

If an ultrasound pulse travels through a large mass in the body at a speed of 1.2 mm/microsec, what happens to the position of all echoes produced from reflectors shallower than the mass?

a)

they are placed in too shallow a location on the image

b)

they are placed in too deep a location on the image

c)

they are likely to be placed at the correct depth

34.

Which artifact results in improper side-by-side positioning of reflectors?

a)

multipath

b)

comet tail

c)

refraction

d)

reverberation

35.

How does slice thickness artifact commonly express itself?

a)

fill in of cystic structures

b)

improper brightness of reflectors

c)

absence of reflectors

d)

strong linear echoes

36.

With depth resolution, _______.

a)

too many reflectors appear on the image

b)

reflectors are placed too deep on the image

c)

reflectors appear too shallow on the image

d)

too few reflectors appear on the image

37.

Axial resolution artifacts are due to which of the following?

a)

multiple reflectors

b)

spatial pulse length

c)

beam width

d)

attenuation

38.

What assumption is violated when a refracted sound wave is processed?

a)

waves travel directly to and from a reflector

b)

sound travels at an average speed of 1.54mm/microsec

c)

sound travels in a straight line

d)

the acoustic imaging plane is very thin

39.

What is the cause of acoustic speckle?

a)

refraction

b)

interference of tiny acoustic wavelets

c)

attenuation

d)

resonance of particles in the near field

40.

With which of the following pulses would lateral resolution be worst?

a)

10 MHz, 4mm beam diameter, 4 cycles per pulse

b)

4 MHz, 4mm beam diameter, 2 cycles per pulse

c)

7.5 MHz, 8mm beam diameter, 2 cycles per pulse

d)

6 MHz, 2mm beam diameter, 2 cycles per pulse