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6C unit Biotech, Restric Enz, Gel Electro

Total questions: 34

Worksheet time: 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. If the recognition sequence of the restriction enzyme HindIII is AAGCTT, then how many covalent bonds will be broken by the enzyme in the following DNA molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

2.

Restriction Enzymes are isolated from :

a)

a).Protozoa

b)

b). Bacteria

c)

c).Virus

d)

d).Fungi

3.

Restriction Enzymes were primarily used as :

a)

a).Defence by Protozoa against antibiotics

b)

b).Tool by Virus to cleave Bacterial genome

c)

c)Defence by Bacteria against bacteriophages viruses

d)

d).All of the above

4.
In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must 
a)
code for the same gene product.
b)
be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
c)
originate from the same type of cell.
d)
have identical sequences.
5.
What is this
a)
plasmid
b)
recombinant bacterium
c)
recombinant DNA
d)
sticky ends
6.

An enzyme that cut DNA molecules at a specific “recognition site” is called

a)

Restriction enzyme

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Taq polymerase

7.

What is a restriction enzyme?

a)

An enzyme that cuts DNA

b)

An enzyme that add to the DNA strand

c)

An enzyme that builds proteins

d)

An enzyme that breaks down lipids

8.

The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as.....

a)

sticky end.

b)

base sequence.

c)

single strands.

d)

restriction fragments.

9.

What is a palindrome?

a)

A sticky end resulting from a restriction enzyme

b)

A blunt end resulting from a restriction enzyme

c)

A sequence that reads the same forwards and backwards

d)

A sequence that is complementary to the other

10.

Which restriction enzymes from above make blunt cuts? (2)

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcoRI

11.

Which restriction enzymes from above make sticky cuts? (3)

a)

Il

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcoRI

12.

How many fragments resulted from the cut above?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

13.
What enzyme forms covalent bonds between restriction fragments?
a)
DNA primase
b)
DNA helicase
c)
DNA ligase
d)
DNA polymerase
14.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
15.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
16.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
17.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
18.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
19.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
20.
What applications can gel electrophoresis be used for?
a)
Parental Testing
b)
Criminal Investigations
c)
Sequence Endangered Species DNA
d)
All of the above
21.

What kind of cuts were made in the scenario above?

a)

Blunt

b)

Sticky

c)

No cuts were made

d)

Palindrome

22.

Which DNA tech separates fragments by size/charge?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

c)

Sequencing

d)

Transformation

23.

Why does the DNA move towards positive end?

a)

Deoxyribose is negatively charged 

b)

Deoxyribose is positively charged

c)

Phosphate is negatively charged 

d)

Phosphate is positively charged

24.

What cuts the DNA prior to running gel electrophoresis?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Restriction enzyme

25.

Minimum restriction sites for ECO on plasmid to get this?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

26.

Which DNA tech is responsible for multiple copies of a gene?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

c)

Sequencing

d)

Transformation

27.

Which DNA tech involves adding plasmid to prokaryote?

a)

Gel electrophoresis

b)

PCR

c)

Sequencing

d)

Transformation

28.

What does PCR stand for?

a)

Place for cellular respiration

b)

Primase cytosine reactants

c)

Polymerase chain reaction

d)

Preferred chemical reaction

29.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that codes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that codes for a protein
d)
Your genome
30.
What does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
31.
What does the repressor protein do?
a)
Allows RNA polymerase to read the gene
b)
Prevents RNA polymerase from reading the gene
c)
Reads the gene
d)
Translates the gene
32.

Which of the following is the best explanation for the fragment pattern for individual X ?

a)

She has only one member of this chromosome pair.

b)

She has only one living parent.

c)

She is homozygous for this particular DNA fragment.

d)

She is the mother’s child but has a different father than the other children.

33.
The process of changing the genetic material of a living organism 
a)
Genetic Modification
b)
Taxonomy
c)
Adapting
d)
Bioremediation
34.

This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

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