108. A patient that has a mild systemic disease and may or may not have special considerations in regards to his or her dental management, would be considered what type of ASA Classification?

109. When a tooth loses tooth structure due to a chemical agent:

110. What is the vertical overlap of the maxillary and mandibular incisors considered?

111. What is the dominant bacterium in the initial plaque stage?

112. At what pH is a root demineralized?

113. Tobacco is considered what type of stain?

114. Which of the following conditions would respond to therapeutic diagnosis?

115. A dense, nonmineralized complex mass of bacteria that forms a gel like matrix:

116. Which of the following is not a major component of saliva that helps protect against dental caries?

117. Which nerve innervates the tooth pulp on the mandible?

118. Which of the following cranial nerves is not a sensory nerve?

119. Which of the following is not a major salivary gland?

121. Drugs with a high-first past effect have a smaller oral to parental dose ratio.

122. What is the study of how a drug is absorbed, distributed, metabolized and excreted by the body?

123. Liver disease or previous or current substance abuse may impair the metabolism of a drug.

124. The _______ stage of development is when the first signs of an arrangement of cells occur.

125. Which of the following is not a type of tissue found in the body?

126. All of the following are part of the gingival fiber group except:

127. This vitamin is the catalyst for synthesis of blood clotting:

128. A deficiency in Vitamin B3 (Niacin) can lead to what disease?

129. Which of the following is not considered a form of calcium?

130. What palpation method is used during an extra oral exam that uses the finger and thumbs of both hands?

131. Subluxation is when the condyle of the temporal mandibular joint glides beyond the eminence preventing the jaw from closing. Subluxation can be caused by long dental procedures.

132. Periodontal disease can be more severe in patients that smoke when they are deficient in this vitamin:

133. What happens when the globular process fails to fuse with the maxillary process during the first trimester of pregnancy?

134. Cementum contains collagen fibers. In teeth, Sharpey’s fibers are the terminal ends of the principal fibers that insert into the cementum and into the periosteum of the avelor bone.

135. What plane divides the body into left and right halves?

136. What is the smallest permanent tooth in the mouth?

137. What is the arrow pointing to?

138. During swallowing, the esophageal phase is under voluntary neuromuscular control. The pharyngeal phase is under involuntary neuromuscular control.

139. Which two organs are endocrine glands?

140. A psuedopocket is produced by edematous gingival tissue. The junction epithelium does not migrate when there is psuedopocketing.

141. A patient with a Class I occlusion would have a facial profile that is mesognathic. Mesognathic is considered to be a normal profile.

142. What information source determines the general health of the patient?

143. A patient leaves the medication portion of her health history form blank. Upon being seated the hygienist reviews the form with her and asks if she takes any medications or supplements. The patient states that she takes birth control pills but she did not list them on the medication portion because it is irrelevant to her dental treatment. The hygienist informs her that it should be included, because birth control pills _________.

144. Medical history forms should be updated:

145. A healthy adult’s pulse rate should be between ______ beats per minute

146. Which two of the following are reasons that require antibiotic premedication?

147. Which of the following is NOT an essential part of an initial extraoral examination?

148. Which of the following conditions are inspected upon examination of the parotid gland? Select all answers that apply.

149. Which lymph nodes are assessed through palpitation with the patient’s head tilted forward?

150. Which of the following appearances in gingiva indicates a disease condition?

151. What area should be palpated to determine if a blockage of sialoliths is present?

152. Which two locations in the mouth are high-risk areas for oral cancer?

153. What condition of the mouth is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

155. Which two of the following endogenous intrinsic stains exhibit white lesions?

156. Which type of restorative overhang comprises 1/3 to 1/2 of the interproximal embrasure space of a tooth?

157. Which of the following is NOT a caries risk factor?

158. Which two of the following are signs of chronic gingival inflammation?

159. During a periodontal screening and reporting (PSR), the deepest measurement in one quadrant extends only onto the first clear band of the periodontal probe, with calculus present and bleeding upon probing. What would the proper PSR score be for this quadrant?

160. Which classification of tooth mobility exists when the tooth is depressible?

161. Which plaque score indicates gross soft debris within gingival pockets and/or margins?

162. Which classification of furcation involvement indicates through and through involvement of bone loss between the roots, with an opening covered by the gingiva?

163. What is the vibration felt in the tooth during occlusion?

164. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the setting of gypsum products?

165. What is the level of marginal gingiva apical to the cementoenamel junction that can be measured with a periodontal probe?

166. Which bacteria is the main etiological cause for the initiation of coronal lesions?

167. In regards to radiation wavelengths, select the two appropriate answers regarding wave penetration.

168. When an x-ray photon intermingles with water and oxygen molecules in body tissue, the result is ____________.

169. What is the safest area to stand in relation to a primary x-ray beam about to be exposed on a patient?

170. What is the maximum permissible dose of radiation that a dental professional should receive per year?

171. What is the lethal dose of radiation that would cause death in 50% of the population within 30 days?

172. Which portion of the x-ray tubehead performs collimation?

173. Regulations and federal law restrict the size of PID and tubehead devices. Which of the following options is NOT accurate?

174. _____________ would result in a better contrast of grey shades in the final radiograph.

175. What radiology technique places the x-ray beam perpendicular to the imaginary line between the tooth and the film?

176. What angulation is important to direct between interproximal areas of the teeth so as not to cause overlapping images on the film?

177. When attempting to locate the position of a foreign substance or pathology, an x-ray film is taken and then retaken at a _______ change toward the mesial. If the object moves distally on the film, then the object is located on the _______ side of the teeth.

178. A _________ object to film distance and ________ source to film distance decreases magnification of the image.

179. Identify the radiolucency extending through the mandible.

180. Identify the radiopaque area.

181. Identify the bilateral radiolucencies

182. Identify the localized interproximal radiopacities:

183. Identify the radiopaque structure.

184. Identify the anatomical structure:

185. Identify the following radiopaque anatomical structure:

186. Which of the following statements is NOT accurate regarding the following radiograph?

188. Which of the following conditions would be a contraindication for Nitrous Oxide use in a patient?

189. What injection will anesthetize the upper central incisors and canines?

190. Which injection would anesthetize the palatal tissue of maxillary anterior teeth?

191. Local anesthetic causes cell permeability to decrease, preventing ______ from entering into the nerve cell.

192. What systemic condition will result in pale mucosa, angular cheilosis and glossitis?

193. When treating a patient with a new cardiac pacemaker, which of the following precautions should be taken?

194. Which condition would be treated with calcium channel blockers, causing possible gingiva hyperplasia?

195. Which benign cancer originates in the epithelium?

196. What should be done prior to administering a breath to the unconscious patient that is not breathing?

197. A patient experiences anaphylaxis during a dental procedure. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate care method for this patient?

198. A diabetic patient arrives having just taken their insulin, but only ate a very light lunch due to having a dental procedure scheduled. During the appointment the patient begins experiencing headache and shakiness. What should the practitioner do?

199. A patient who reclines in the chair for treatment soon begins to convulse and loses consciousness. What should the practitioner do first?

200. Which of the following bodily fluids is not considered to be a contamination source?

201. Face masks should be changed:

202. What type of solution is shown to break down latex in gloves?

203. Which type of sterilization machine is able to perform a complete sterilization cycle in less than 10 minutes?

204. When presenting a treatment plan to a patient, which of the following is NOT appropriate for the dental hygienist to do upon assessing the patient?

205. A patient is informed of their dental treatment plan. The plan is then signed by the dentist, hygienist and patient. This document becomes a part of the patient’s permanent file and is called __________________.

206. Which of the following is an essential part of a patient’s needs assessment documented by the dental hygienist?

207. Factors that determine the prognosis of a completed dental hygiene treatment plan may NOT be influenced by:

208. Notes regarding the treatment plan, if documented in the margin of a patient’s file, should be written in _______.

209. A new patient scheduled for a comprehensive exam and prophylaxis states on her medical history form that she has undergone a knee replacement in the last six months. She has not recently spoken with her primary care physician or surgeon. Which of the following would be an appropriate part of the care plan?