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ID Exam 3

Total questions: 28

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the appropriate continuation phase therapy for a patient who has cleared his or her primary TB infection (assume initial therapy with rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)?

a)

Rifampin and Ethambutol for 6 months

b)

Pyrazinamide and Rifampin for 6 months

c)

Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide for 4 months

d)

Rifampin and Isoniazid for 4 months

2.

Interpret the TB skin test results:

Baseline skin test = negative

Retest = positive

a)

Patient has a TB infection

b)

Patient has latent TB

c)

Patient does not have TB

d)

Patient needs to undergo one more skin test to determine a diagnosis

3.

Which of the following is true regarding testing for TB and Latent TB vs Active TB? Select all that apply.

a)

The treatment for latent TB is done primarily as prevention of spread to the population

b)

Active TB has a positive AFB sputum upon presentation in addition to symptoms consistent with the disease

c)

Anergy testing results are negative for control and TB indicating that the person is immunocompromised and should take an IGRA for conclusive results

d)

If a healthcare worker tests positive on TST after a recent exposure, a second test is indicated in less than 8-10 weeks

4.

TH, a 56 year old male failed his second TB skin test and the team has determined he has a latent TB infection. The team wants to pursue therapy. Which of the following are NOT correct drug and dosage pairings for the treatment of latent TB?

a)

Rifampin alone for 4 months

b)

Isoniazid alone for 4 months

c)

Isoniazid + Rifampin for 2 months

d)

Isoniazid alone for 6 months

5.

 Which of the following is the 4 month TB treatment regimen and the correctly paired contraindication for initiating this therapy?

a)

Rifapentine, Isoniazid, Moxifloxacin, Ethambutol - QT prolongation

b)

Rifapentine, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol - pregnancy

c)

Rifapentine, Isoniazid, Moxifloxacin, Pyrazinamide - 88 kg patient

d)

Rifapentine, Isoniazid, Moxifloxacin, Pyrazinamide - QT prolongation

6.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding TB treatment and prevention options?

a)

A person who took the BCG vaccine as a child and has tested positive recently on TST does not have TB

b)

Bedqauiline requires baseline and monthly renal function tests during treatment duration

c)

Pretomanid can only be used in combination with linezolid and isoniazid for TB treatment

d)

Bedaquiline and Pretomanid both can cause hepatotoxicity that must be monitored with liver enzyme tests and alcohol avoidance is recommended

7.

Which of the following are correctly matched to their mode of transmission? Select all that apply

a)

Vector borne → Yellow Fever 

b)

Water borne → Typhoid

c)

Food borne → Cholera

d)

Vector borne → Dengue

8.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the yellow fever vaccine?

a)

It is a live attenuated vaccine 

b)

It must be administered at least 30 days prior to travel

c)

It is a one dose vaccine 

d)

It must be administered by a certified center with a “uniform stamp”

9.

DC is a 78 year old female with PMH of COPD, T2DM, hypertension, and anaphylactic related penicillin allergy who presents short of breath, wheezing, and cyanotic. Important vitals noted are O2 saturations in the 60s, HR 112, RR 28. A chest x-ray is performed and she is diagnosed with left lobe pneumonia. The provider is concerned and is admitting her directly to the ICU due to the required respiratory support. You are asked to order antibiotics for this patient prior to admission, which should you order?

a)

Ampicillin/sulbactam + Moxifloxacin

b)

Ceftriaxone + Moxifloxacin

c)

Piperacillin/tazobactam + Azithromycin

d)

Cefotaxime + Ceftriaxone

10.

Which of the following would be appropriate for treatment of Influenza B for a 57 year old male with a history of COPD who just started having symptoms 24 hours ago? Select all that apply

a)

Amantadine

b)

Zanamivir

c)

Oseltamivir

d)

Baloxivir

11.

A 14 year old male presents to the clinic with a sore throat. It is red upon appearance and it is noted that he has a mild fever and swollen lymph nodes. The patient has no known drug allergies. Throat swab is currently pending, but the physician wants to know which of the following drugs and durations is appropriate to be used to treat this suspected group A strep pharyngitis? Select all that apply.

a)

Amoxicillin x 5 days

b)

Azithromycin x 10 days 

c)

TMP-SMX x 10 days 

d)

Cephalexin x 10 days 

12.

Cases of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis where symptoms do not improve after 7 days could be treated with:

a)

Amoxicillin

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

d)

Doxycycline 

13.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Malathion?

a)

It is a lipophilic compound that is readily absorbed through the skin

b)

CYP450 in humans converts malathion to a derivative that is around 70 times more toxic

c)

In insects, use causes ACh accumulation in nerve junctions which paralyzes and kills the insect

d)

Its toxic metabolites are not readily detoxified upon systemic exposure

14.

LC is a 68yo female who presented to the ED from a skilled nursing facility after her O2 Saturation was in the 70s despite 3L of Oxygen. LC recently had a long hospital admission where she was treated with broad-spectrum Antibiotics for HAP. CXR shows ground glass opacities consistent with bilateral pneumonia. MRSA nasal swab and sputum/respiratory cultures are all pending. Which of the following would you use for empiric treatment for LC? Select all that apply

a)

Cefepime

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Azithromycin + Ampicillin/Sulbactam 

15.

From the previous question, LC’s MRSA nasal swab came back positive, and the culture stain shows many gram-positive cocci on board. How do we continue antibiotics? Select all that apply

a)

Cefepime

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Ampicillin/Sulbactam

d)

Vancomycin

16.

A patient who has a positive serologic antibody test for COVID-19 has acute SARS-COV-2.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which of the following is suggested for a non-hospitalized COVID-19 patient? Select all that apply

a)

Dexamethasone + Paxlovid

b)

Dexamethasone

c)

Paxlovid

d)

Dexamethasone + Baricitinib

18.

Which of the following are oral COVID-19 drugs that require dose adjustment in severe hepatic impairment? Select all that apply

a)

Paxlovid

b)

Molnupiravir

c)

Remdesivir

d)

Baricitinib

19.

 Which of the following drugs would decrease levels of Paxlovid and decrease its efficacy? Select all that apply

a)

Amiodarone

b)

Carbamazepine

c)

Lurasidone

d)

Phenytoin

20.

Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism of action for Permethrin?

a)

Blockage of the GABA-gated chloride channels reduces neuronal inhibition, which leads to hyperexcitation of the CNS, convulsions, and death of the insect

b)

Disrupts sodium conductance of nerve cell membranes of the parasites, which paralyzes and kills the insect and their nits

c)

Competitive inhibition of pseudocholinesterase and acetylcholinesterase results in ACh accumulation in nerve junctions, resulting in paralysis of the insects and their nits

d)

Causes excessive release of GABA in the nervous system of the parasite, resulting in paralysis and death

21.

Which of the following statements accurately describes Spinosad? Select all that apply.

a)

Low systemic absorption and in vivo conversion to non-toxic metabolites limits the toxicity of this product

b)

It disrupts the neurotransmission of ACh by targeting binding sites on the nicotinic ACh receptors

c)

It is formulated with piperonyl butoxide, which blocks parasite degradation of the drug

d)

Acts as a GABA neurotransmitter agonist 

22.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the anti-tuberculosis therapy?

a)

It is preferred anti-tuberculosis agents have no cross reactivity with standard bacteria to avoid selection of resistance 

b)

Mycobacteria exist extracellularly and have a lipophilic outer layer which makes it difficult for antibiotics to penetrate them 

c)

Mycobacteria grow and multiply slowly compared to other bacteria, thus long term therapy is required 

d)

In most TB populations there is inherent resistance and multi-drug therapy should be used 

23.

Which of the following accurately describe the mechanism of action of Isoniazid?

a)

KatG metabolizes INH to isonicotinic acid via reactive intermediates. The reactive intermediates inhibit inhA, which inhibits mycolic acid synthesis 

b)

Binds to ribosomal protein S1 and blocks DNA decoding, thus halting protein synthesis 

c)

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in the mycobacteria through chelation of zinc atoms 

d)

Interrupts cell-wall synthesis by inhibiting the incorporation of mycolic acid into the mycobacterial cell wall 

24.

What do the three compounds below have in compound?

a)

I only

b)

I & II

c)

II & III

d)

I, II, & III

25.

Which of the following pairing of drug/drug class and mechanism of action is INCORRECT? Select all that apply.

a)

Benzimidazoles- binds beta-tubulin and inhibits assembly of microtubules

b)

Pyrantel - depolarizing agent that causes spastic paralysis in susceptible helminthes 

c)

Niclosamide - induces rapid contraction of muscle and paralysis leading to worm expulsion

d)

Praziquantel - kills on contact by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation 

26.

Which of the following statements regarding the metabolism of Isoniazid (INH) are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Rapid acetylators are more prone to INH-induced hepatitis and neuropathy with chronic use

b)

N-Acetyl Transferase is responsible for inactivating isoniazid

c)

Acetyl radicals can form if metabolites are not inactivated by NAT, causing hepatotoxicity

d)

It is a potent inducer of hepatic microsomal enzymes

27.

This antimalarial agent has an endoperoxide structure that results in formation of a free radical:

a)

Hydroxychloroquine 

b)

Artesunate

c)

Lumefantrine

d)

Atovaquone 

28.

All of the following are characteristics of the bezimidazoles except?

a)

Albendazole requires oxidation to active sulfoxide

b)

Bind beta tubulin and inhibit microtubule formation

c)

Highly selective for worm beta-tubulin

d)

Have killing activity through oxidative phosphorylation