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Worksheets

Question Bank for Grade 10 Biology

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following describes the growth rate as N approproaches K?

a)

growth rate increases

b)

growth rate decreases

c)

growth rate is 0

d)

growth rate has no change

2.

Which of the following must be true for the growth rate to equal zero?

a)

birth rate > death rate

b)

birth rate < death rate

c)

birth rate = death rate

d)

2x birth rate = 1/2 death rate

3.

Which of the following describes the distribution of organisms around the watering hole in the Savanna?

a)

clumped distribution

b)

uniform distribution

c)

random distribution

d)

territorial distribution

4.

Which of the following describes the result of a negative r value?

a)

The population size will double.

b)

The population size with half.

c)

The population size will increase.

d)

The population size will decrease.

5.

Which of the following describes a J shaped curve?

a)

high competition

b)

high predation

c)

access to mates

d)

unfavorable habitat

6.

Which type of survivorship describes elephants with high parental care, low death rate of young, and long life spans?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

does not apply

7.

Which of the following describes how disease regulates population?

a)

disease is a density independent factor

b)

disease is a density dependent factor

c)

disease selects for favorable individuals

d)

disease removes unfavorable individuals

8.

A population of fish is growing exponentially. The growth rate of the population is 2.0 and the current population size is 2,500 individuals. How many mice are added to the population each year?

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

2500

d)

5000

9.

You conduct a mark and recapture experiment. You initially capture 20 cats and mark them. After a month, you collect 30 cats and 10 are already marked. What is the estimation for the population?

a)

45

b)

60

c)

75

d)

90

10.

Which of the following describes the population size as the competition of resources increases?

a)

increase of both populations

b)

decrease of both populations

c)

stays the same for both populations

d)

one population increases and the other decreases

11.

Which of the following describes the behavior observed between two organisms fighting for a mating partner?

a)

intersexual selection

b)

intrasexual selection

c)

agonistic behavior

d)

aggressive behavior

12.

Which of the following describes the behavior observed between one organism choosing a mate?

a)

intersexual selection

b)

intrasexual selection

c)

agonistic behavior

d)

aggressive behavior

13.

Which of the following describes the behavior of a flock of geese following the mother in a straight line?

a)

maternal connection

b)

imprinting

c)

innate behavior

d)

conditioning

14.

Which of the following describes an example of classical conditioning?

a)

A dog determines when they scratch at the bag of food, the bag will open and some pieces fall out.

b)

A cat determines if they ring a bell their owner will feed them

c)

A rat determines that when the lights turn on a person walks into the room so they run when the lights turn on

d)

A horse determines when they don't jump high enough their rider whips them harder

15.

Which of the following types of signals would be used for two organisms mating by a ritualistic dance?

a)

chemical

b)

visual

c)

auditory

d)

tactile

16.

Which of the following describes the behavior observed when a stickleback fish sees the color red and begins to attack?

a)

aggressive behavior

b)

forging behavior

c)

altruistic behavior

d)

innate behavior

17.

Which of the following describes why ants scatter when you break their trail?

a)

ants are attached to the ant in front of them

b)

ants are following a chemical trail, so they lose the trail

c)

ants are following a path and will not scatter if you break the trail

d)

ants are attached to the substrate and will not scatter if you break the trail

18.

Which of the following describes the behavior of an ectotherm?

a)

The ectotherm is unable to regulate its body temperature so it will consume more food in cooler environments

b)

The ectotherm is unable to regulate its body temperature so it will move to bask in the sun in cooler environments

c)

The ectotherm is able to regulate its body temperature so it will consume less food in warmer environments

d)

The ectotherm is able to regulate its body temperature so it will hide in the shadows in warmer environments

19.

Which of the following describes the type of signal of the Belding squirrel that made the alarm call regarding the predator?

a)

chemical

b)

tactile

c)

visual

d)

auditory

20.

Which of the following describes the result of a bird that has been cross fostered?

a)

The fostered bird will be able to mate with its own species and will create viable offspring with the foster species

b)

The fostered bird will be unable to mate with its own species and will create viable offspring with the foster species

c)

The fostered bird will be able to mate with its own species and will not create viable offspring with the foster species

d)

The fostered bird will be unable to mate with its own species and will not create viable offspring with the foster species

21.

Which of the following describes the interaction of a flea and a dog where the flea feeds on the dog and the dog gets infections and irritation from the flea?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

22.

Which of the following describes the interaction of the protozoa in a termite's GI tract where the protozoa digests the cellulose for the termite and the termite gains essential nutrients?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

23.

Cuckoo birds lay their eggs in the nest of warblers. The warblers raise the cuckoo young and the cuckoo chicks provide an odor that deters predators. Which of the following describes the relationship in the absence of predators?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

24.

Cuckoo birds lay their eggs in the nest of warblers. The warblers raise the cuckoo young and the cuckoo chicks provide an odor that deters predators. Which of the following describes the relationship in the presence of predators?

a)

commensalism

b)

cooperation

c)

mutualism

d)

parasitism

25.

Which of the following describes what happens when two species compete for the same niche?

a)

both organisms survive and gain appropriate resources

b)

the organism that is more fit obtains less of the resources

c)

the organism that is less fit obtains more of the resources

d)

one of the organisms is excluded due to the absence of resources

26.

Which of the following describes a method NOT used by prey to avoid predation?

a)

Alarm calls

b)

Hiding

c)

Fleeing

d)

Fighting

27.

Which of the following describes why a member of a population would decrease their fitness (alarm call to predator)?

a)

altruistic behavior

b)

cooperative behavior

c)

aggressive behavior

d)

flamboyant behavior

28.

Which of the following describes commensalism?

a)

+/+

b)

+/-

c)

+/0

d)

-/0

29.

Which of the following describes an adaptation of predators to catch and consume prey?

a)

Patience

b)

Sharp Claws & Teeth

c)

Slow Movements

d)

Fight or Flight Response

30.

Which of the following describes the result if two organisms that are undergoing obligate mutualism are separated?

a)

Both organisms thrive

b)

Both organisms die without the interaction of each other

c)

The stronger organism will die without the interaction of the weaker organism

d)

The weaker organism will thrive without the interaction of the stronger organism

31.

Which of the following describes the function of the vibrant coloration found in the peacock feathers?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

cryptic coloration

c)

intersexual selection

d)

intrasexual selection

32.

Which of the following describes the process occurring in populations with an alpha male with multiple females?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

polyandry

c)

intersexual selection

d)

intrasexual selection

33.

Which of the following best describes the biological species concept?

a)

two species are able to breed to produce feeble, sterile offspring

b)

two species are unable to breed to produce feeble, sterile offspring

c)

two species are able to breed and to produce viable, fertile offspring

d)

two species are unable to breed to produce viable, fertile offspring

34.

What type of barrier inhibits the eastern and western skunks that reproduce at different times of the year (different seasons)?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

ecological isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

temporal isolation

35.

What barrier inhibits the formation of a mule (offspring of horse and donkey that is sterile)?

a)

reduced hybrid fertility

b)

reduced hybrid viability

c)

hybrid breakdown

d)

gametic isolation

36.

When two organisms meet in the hybrid zone and the hybrid species is more favorable than the parent species, which of the following happens to the barriers?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Fusion

c)

Stabilization

d)

Mutations

37.

Which of the following describes why does sympatric speciation result in more reproductive barriers than allopatric speciation?

a)

sympatric involves geographic barriers that inihibit interactions

b)

sympatric involves more interactions due to an absence of geographical barriers

c)

allopatric involves same location to increase interactions

d)

allopatric involves human interaction to generate hybrid species that is absent in nature

38.

Which of the following describes the barrier that inhibits fostering of a bird by another species from being able to mate with its own species?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

ecological isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

39.

Which of the following reproductive barriers is essential for external fertilization?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

gametic isolation

c)

habitat isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

40.

Which of the following is likely to occur in the hybrid zone when the hybrid species is as favorable as the parent species?

a)

Reinforcement

b)

Fusion

c)

Stabilization

d)

Hybridization

41.

Based on the data given in the table, which two are most closely related?

a)

Human & Gorilla

b)

Gorilla & Orangutan

c)

Human & Chimpanzee

d)

Chimpanzee & Orangutan

42.

Based on the given cladogram, which organism is the outgroup?

a)

human

b)

chimpanzee

c)

gorilla

d)

orangutan

e)

gibbon

43.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to the polar bear?

a)

black bear

b)

european brown bear

c)

western north american brown bear

d)

asian brown bear

44.

Based on the figure, how long ago was the common ancestor of the European Brown Bear and the Asian Brown Bear?

a)

4.5 hundreds of thousands of years ago

b)

3.5 hundreds of thousands of years ago

c)

2.2 hundreds of thousands of years ago

d)

1.4 hundreds of thousands of years ago

45.

Which evidence would be the most accurate when developing a cladogram?

a)

morphological

b)

molecular

c)

ecological

d)

fossil

46.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to A. forsteri?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

47.

Based on the figure, which organism would be considered the outgroup?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

e)

A. forsteri

48.

Based on the figure, which organism is most closely related to E. africanus?

a)

E. ferus

b)

D. polylepis

c)

G. gallus

d)

E. africanus

49.

Based on the figure, which three organism are closely related?

a)

cat, horse, human

b)

cat, horse, pig

c)

cow, horse, human

d)

cow, horse, pig

50.

Based on the figure, which two organisms are closely related?

a)

cat & human

b)

cat & cow

c)

human & pig

d)

human & horse

51.

Which of these is a condition that must be met for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

extremely small population size

b)

no natural selection

c)

gene flow

d)

nonrandom mating

52.

If the frequency of dominant phenotype is 0.36, what is the frequency of the dominant allele?

a)

0.2

b)

0.48

c)

0.6

d)

0.8

53.

What does p stand for?

a)

dominant allele

b)

recessive allele

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

homozygous recessive

e)

heterozygous

54.

Which of the following is the equation that you would use for Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

p + 2q = 1

b)

2p + 2q = 1

c)

2p + q = 1

d)

p + q = 1

55.

Which of the following is the equation that you use for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

b)

p2 + q2 = 1

c)

p3 + q3 = 1

d)

p3 + 3pq + q3 = 1

56.

In generation 1, the recessive allele has a frequency of 0.6 and in generation 40, the recessive phenotype has a frequency of 0.36. Is the population is Hardy-Weinberg?

a)

No, the frequency changed from one generation to another.

b)

Yes, the frequency changed from one generation to another

c)

No, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

d)

Yes, the frequency remained the same from one generation to another

57.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the dominant allele.

a)

0.76

b)

0.86

c)

0.57

d)

0.71

58.

If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for the frequency of the recessive allele.

a)

0.28

b)

0.14

c)

0.38

d)

0.42

59.

If a population is suffering from genetic drift, which of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions is not being met?

a)

no gene flow

b)

random mating

c)

extremely large population size

d)

no mutations

60.

If the frequency of recessive allele is 0.2, what is the frequency of the homozygous recessive individuals?

a)

0.04

b)

0.16

c)

0.4

d)

0.8

61.

Which of the following describes how a plasmid and gene of interest are combined to create a vector?

a)

A restriction enzyme binds to the same restriction site on both DNA strands then DNA ligase seals phosphodiester linkage

b)

A primer binds to the gene of interest to facilitate the process of inserting the gene into the plasmid

c)

A helicase unwinds the DNA to allow for the gene of interest to be inserted then DNA ligase seals phosphodiester linkages

d)

A DNA polymerase uses the gene of interest as a template to insert the gene into the plasmid

62.

Which of the following describes why Taq polymerase is required for PCR?

a)

The Taq polymerase is able to unwind the DNA double helix reducing the need of additional enzymes

b)

The Taq polymerase binds to the DNA without a required primer facilitating the process of PCR.

c)

The process of PCR requires prokaryotic polymerase as it is less complex.

d)

The process of PCR requires extreme high temperatures that would denature other polymerases.

63.

Which of the following describes the orientation of the DNA found in a run gel electrophoresis?

a)

Small fragments are found near the well since it is negatively charged

b)

Large fragments are found near the well while small fragments are found at the other end.

c)

Small fragments are found near the well while small fragments are found at the other end.

d)

Large fragments are found near the well since it is positively charged

64.

Which of the following describes why some bands are darker in a gel electrophoresis?

a)

This is a location where there is a secondary well in the gel

b)

There are a large amount of fragments the same size

c)

The DNA at that band absorbed more dye since it is more positively charged

d)

This is an error in the gel electrophoresis caused by a clogged pore in the gel

65.

If one fragment was placed in the thermocycler for a PCR experiment, how many fragments would exist after 5 cycles?

a)

10

b)

16

c)

64

d)

32

66.

Which of the following describes why primers must be added to the thermocycler during a PCR?

a)

Polymerase requires an open 3' end

b)

Polymerase requires RNA for signaling

c)

Polymerase requires an RNA template

d)

Polymerase requires an open 5' end

67.

An experimenter performed a transformation experiment. Which of the following describes the function of the

-plasmid/LB and +plasmid/LB plates?

a)

To compare between the bacteria with and without the plasmid

b)

To determine whether LB is required for the bacterial growth

c)

To ensure the bacteria is viable after experimental set-up

d)

To test whether temperature has an effect on growth

68.

Which of the following describes the minimum number of restriction sites on a plasmid if there are 3 fragments on the gel electrophoresis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

69.

Which of the following is responsible for determining the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Bacterial Transformation

70.

Which of the following allow for amplification of a DNA fragment abiotically?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Bacterial Transformation

71.

Which of the following describes an operon that is inactive and becomes activated by a molecule binding to the repressor?

a)

inducible operon

b)

repressible operon

72.

Which of the following describes an operon that is active and becomes inactivated by a molecule binding to the repressor?

a)

inducible operon

b)

repressible operon

73.

The lac operon is an example of an inducible operon. Which of the following describes the process that occurs when lactose is present?

a)

The lactose binds to the repressor which inactivates it and the repressor binds to the operator to turn translation on.

b)

The lactose binds to the repressor which activates it and the repressor releases from the operator to turn translation on.

c)

The lactose binds to the repressor which inactivates it and the repressor releases from the operator to turn translation on.

d)

The lactose binds to the repressor which activates it and the repressor binds to the operator to turn translation on.

74.

The trp operon is an example of an repressible operon. Which of the following describes the process that occurs when tryptophan is present?

a)

The tryptophan binds to the repressor which inactivates it and the repressor binds to the operator to turn translation off.

b)

The tryptophan binds to the repressor which activates it and the repressor releases from the operator to turn translation off.

c)

The tryptophan binds to the repressor which inactivates it and the repressor releases from the operator to turn translation off.

d)

The tryptophan binds to the repressor which activates it and the repressor binds to the operator to turn translation off.

75.

In the trp operon, the tryptophan binds to the repressor. Which of the following is the term used to describe this molecule?

a)

inducer

b)

corepressor

c)

enhancer

d)

CAP

76.

In the lac operon, the allolactose binds to the repressor. Which of the following is the term used to describe this molecule?

a)

inducer

b)

corepressor

c)

enhancer

d)

CAP

77.

Which of the following describes the type of pathway that an inducible operon controls?

a)

anabolic pathway

b)

catabolic pathway

78.

Which of the following describes the type of pathway that a repressible operon controls?

a)

anabolic pathway

b)

catabolic pathway

79.

Which of the following describes the function of the operator in the operon?

a)

site of repressor binding for on/off switch

b)

site of RNA polymerase binding for transcription

c)

site of promoter binding for RNA synthesis

d)

site of inducer binding for activation of pathway

80.

Which of the following describes the function of the promoter in the operon?

a)

site of repressor binding for on/off switch

b)

site of RNA polymerase binding for transcription

c)

site of operator binding for RNA synthesis

d)

site of inducer binding for activation of pathway

81.

Which of the following is the site for translation?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi bodies

d)

cytosol

82.

Which of the following is the start codon?

a)

UGA

b)

AUG

c)

GUA

d)

GAU

83.

What is the function of the P site in the large subunit?

a)

To phosphorylate the polypeptide

b)

To hold the growing polypeptide

c)

To assist with tertiary structure of the polypeptide

d)

To perform the base pairing for the polypeptide

84.

Which of the following describes the process of translation?

a)

codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation

b)

anticodon recognition, ionic bond formation, translocation

c)

codon recognition, ionic bond formation, translocation

d)

anticodon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation

85.

Which of the following is the direction that mRNA is read?

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

c)

N terminus to C terminus

d)

C terminus to N terminus

86.

Which of the following describes the orientation of two amino acids when bonded?

a)

carboxyl of first amino acid binds to carboxyl of second amino acid

b)

amino of first amino acid binds to amino of second amino acid

c)

carboxyl of first amino acid binds to amino of second amino acid

d)

amino of first amino acid binds to carboxyl of second amino acid

87.

Which of the following describes the difference between bound and free ribosomes?

a)

free ribosomes do not require ATP for dehydration reactions while bound ribosomes require ATP for dehydration reactions

b)

free ribosomes synthesize proteins for the cytosol while bound ribosomes synthesize proteins for the membrane/secretion

c)

free ribosomes are able to freely float between all parts of the cell while bound ribosomes are remain in the rough ER membrane

d)

free ribosomes move between the nucleus to the cytosol while bound ribosomes remain in the cytosol

88.

Which of the following describes the function of the tRNA?

a)

tRNA has the codon required for translation

b)

tRNA allows for the translocation step

c)

tRNA has the RNA transcript for protein synthesis

d)

tRNA brings the amino acid to the ribosome

89.

Which of the following describes the function of the mRNA?

a)

mRNA moves the ribosome to the appropriate location in the cell for synthesis

b)

mRNA has the anticodon to pair with tRNA for protein synthesis

c)

mRNA is responsible for being the transcript synthesized from the DNA

d)

mRNA will make more copies of itself to enhance the process of transcription

90.

Which of the following describes the conversion factor between nucleic acids and proteins?

a)

3 amino acids = 1 nucleotide

b)

3 amino acids = 3 nucleotides

c)

3 nucleotides = 1 amino acid

d)

3 nucleotides = 3 amino acids

91.

Which of the following is the enzyme used in the process of transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

primase

d)

helicase

92.

Which of the following describes the direction the template strand is read?

a)

5' to 3'

b)

3' to 5'

c)

N terminus to C terminus

d)

C terminus to N terminus

93.

Which of the following describes the process of alternative RNA splicing?

a)

Different mRNA molecules are made from different sections of DNA

b)

Different mRNA molecules are made from cutting out different exons from same pre-mRNA

c)

Different mRNA molecules are absorbed from the environment for recombination

d)

Different mRNA molecules are absorbed from the mitochondria for translation

94.

Which of the following is the function of the poly-A tail?

a)

To protect mRNA from hydrolytic enzymes

b)

To allow for exit from nucleus

c)

To signal for termination of translation

d)

To decrease the length of mRNA molecules

95.

Which of the following describes the difference between a prokaryote mRNA and eukaryote mRNA?

a)

Prokaryotes have longer mRNA strands due to presence of introns

b)

Eukaryotes have longer mRNA strands due to the presence of introns

c)

Prokaryotes modify the mRNA due to the presence of a nuclear envelope

d)

Eukaryotes modify the mRNA due to the absence of a nuclear envelope

96.

Where on the DNA does the enzyme responsible for transcription bind?

a)

promoter

b)

enhancer

c)

polyadenylation sequence

d)

start codon

97.

Which of the following describes the correct mRNA sequence from the template strand of 5' - CGGTTA - 3'?

a)

5' - GCCAAT - 3'

b)

5' - GCCAAU - 3'

c)

5' - UAACCG - 3'

d)

5' - TAACCG - 3'

98.

Which of the following is NOT a term to describe the template strand in the DNA?

a)

noncoding strand

b)

antisense strand

c)

minus strand

d)

transcriptional strand

99.

Where does transcription take place in a eukaryote?

a)

nucleus

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cytosol

d)

ribosome

100.

Which of the following enhance the binding of the enzyme responsible for transcription?

a)

transcription factors

b)

TATA box proteins

c)

inhibitors

d)

protons

101.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for synthesizing the new DNA strand?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA ligase

102.

What is the difference between leading and lagging strands?

a)

DNA is synthesized in a 5' to 3' direction on the lagging strand and a 3' to 5' direction on the leading strand

b)

DNA is synthesized in a 3' to 5' direction on the lagging strand and a 5' to 3' direction on the leading strand

c)

DNA is synthesized continuously on the leading strand and discontinuously on the lagging strand

d)

DNA is synthesized discontinuously on the leading strand and continuously on the lagging strand

103.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for joining the Okazaki fragments?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA ligase

104.

Which of the following explains the base pairing rules?

a)

G pairs with T with 3 hydrogen bonds and A pairs with C with 2 hydrogen bonds

b)

G pairs with T with 2 hydrogen bonds and A pairs with C with 3 hydrogen bonds

c)

A pairs with T with 2 hydrogen bonds and G pairs with C with 3 hydrogen bonds

d)

A pairs with T with 3 hydrogen bonds and G pairs with C with 2 hydrogen bonds

105.

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds between nucleotides?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Helicase

c)

Primase

d)

DNA ligase

106.

Which of the following explains why DNA polymerase requires primase for synthesis of a new strand?

a)

DNA polymerase requires an open 3' end

b)

DNA polymerase requires an open 5' end

c)

DNA polymerase requires ATP

d)

DNA polymerase requires a promoter

107.

Which of the following describes the 5' end?

a)

phosphate attached to the pentose sugar

b)

hydroxyl attached to the pentose sugar

c)

nitrogenous base attached to the pentose sugar

d)

the next nucleotide attached to the pentose sugar

108.

Which of the following describes how DNA replication differs between a prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes have circular DNA requiring one origin of replication while eukaryotes have multiple origins on linear DNA

b)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA requiring one origin of replication while eukaryotes have multiple origins on circular DNA

c)

Prokaryotes have circular DNA requiring multiple origins of replication while eukaryotes have one origin on linear DNA

d)

Prokaryotes have linear DNA requiring multiple origins of replication while eukaryotes have one origin on circular DNA

109.

Which of the following describes why there is a leading and lagging strand in DNA replication?

a)

DNA is antiparallel

b)

DNA is negatively charged

c)

DNA has a phosphate group

d)

DNA has hydrogen bonds

110.

Which of the following strands would be more stable at a higher temperature?

a)

AATTAATTAATT

b)

CCGGCCGGCCGG

c)

ATCGATCGATCGAT

d)

CGATCGATCGATCG

111.

What is the result of meiosis?

a)

2 haploid unique cells

b)

2 diploid identical cells

c)

4 haploid unique cells

d)

4 diploid identical cells

112.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

113.

When does independent assortment occur?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Telophase I

114.

During meiosis I, which of the following are paired, aligned, and separated?

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

kinetochore microtubules

d)

signaling molecules

115.

During meiosis II, which of the following are paired, aligned, and separated?

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

kinetochore microtubules

d)

signaling molecules

116.

How does mitosis and meiosis differ?

a)

mitosis has 1 round of replication and 2 rounds of division while meiosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division

b)

mitosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division while meiosis has 1 round of replication and 2 rounds of division

c)

mitosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division while meiosis has 2 rounds of replication and 2 rounds of division

d)

mitosis has 2 rounds of replication and 2 rounds of division while meiosis has 1 round of replication and 1 round of division

117.

At the end of telophase I, the resulting daughter cells are?

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

118.

Which of the following resulted from nondisjunction?

a)

Three copies of chromosome 21

b)

Three copies of all chromosomes

c)

Two copies of all chromosomes

d)

Two copies of chromosome 21

119.

When observing a karyotype, how can one determine that a case of nondisjunction occurred?

a)

There are two sets of all chromosomes

b)

There is only one of an autosomal chromosome

c)

There are two X chromosomes.

d)

There is a only one X and Y chromosome.

120.

What happens to the additional X chromosome found in female cells?

a)

The extra X chromosome produces extra protein products.

b)

The extra X chromosome is deactivated and stored as Barr body

c)

There is no extra X chromosome found in female cells.

d)

The extra X is stored in the eggs in the ovaries of females for future usage.

121.

Griffith investigated R and S strains with mice. What did he conclude about the S strain and the R strain in the trial with heat-killed S strain and living R strain?

a)

The mouse lived as the R strain provided protection from the nonliving S strain.

b)

The mouse died as the R strain did not provide protection from the nonliving S strain.

c)

The mouse lived as the R strain was not affected by a transforming agent released from the nonliving S strain.

d)

The mouse died as the R strain was affected by a transforming agent released from the nonliving S strain

122.

What was the difference between the R and S strains in the Griffith experiment?

a)

R strain was pathogenic while S strain was not pathogenic

b)

R strain was not pathogenic while S strain was pathogenic

c)

R strain had antibodies against the S strain

d)

S strain had antibodies against the R strain

123.

What technology did Rosalind Franklin use to produce the image of the DNA molecule used by Watson & Crick?

a)

X-ray crystallography

b)

Electron microscope

c)

Light microscope

d)

NMR

124.

What feature did Hershey and Chase use to differentiate between the protein and nucleic acid in their experiment?

a)

Proteins have phosphorus and Nucleic acids have sulfur

b)

Proteins have sulfur and Nucleic acids have phosphorus

c)

Proteins are single stranded and Nucleic acids are double stranded

d)

Proteins are double stranded and Nucleic acids are single stranded

125.

Based on the conservative model, what are the predicted results from two rounds of replications in the Meselson-Stahl experiment where the initial strands are 15N and the new strands are 14N?

a)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a light (14N) band and a hybrid (14N-15N) band

b)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band

c)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band.

d)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N).

126.

Based on the semiconservative model, what are the predicted results from two rounds of replications in the Meselson-Stahl experiment where the initial strands are 15N and the new strands are 14N?

a)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a light (14N) band and a hybrid (14N-15N) band

b)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band

c)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band.

d)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N).

127.

Based on the dispersive model, what are the predicted results from two rounds of replications in the Meselson-Stahl experiment where the initial strands are 15N and the new strands are 14N?

a)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a light (14N) band and a hybrid (14N-15N) band

b)

The first round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band

c)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a hybrid (14N-15N) band.

d)

The first round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N) band, the second round involves a heavy (15N) band and a light (14N).

128.

Which of the following did Watson & Crick determine from the image provided by Rosalind Franklin of DNA?

a)

approximate width of the DNA molecule

b)

length of one turn of the DNA molecule

c)

number of nucleotides in the DNA molecule

d)

nitrogenous bases order in the DNA molecule

129.

What information did Chargaff provide to Watson and Crick to aid in their understanding of base pairing?

a)

adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with cytosine.

b)

adenine pairs with guanine and thymine pairs with cytosine.

c)

adenine pairs with cytosine and guanine pairs with thymine.

d)

adenine pairs with adenine and thymine pairs with thymine.

130.

Which scientist(s) conclusively proved that DNA was the genetic material for organisms?

a)

Chargaff

b)

Watson & Crick (+ Rosalind Franklin)

c)

Griffith

d)

Hershey & Chase

e)

Meselson & Stahl

131.

The delta G of a catalyzed reaction is 30 kJ/mol. If you double the reaction, what would be delta G of the catalyzed reaction?

a)

0 kJ/mol

b)

15 kJ/mol

c)

30 kJ/mol

d)

60 kJ/mol

132.

What is the function of an enzyme?

a)

To speed up a chemical reaction

b)

To provide additional energy

c)

To inhibit a cellular process

d)

To increase absorption of a molecule

133.

Which of the following would NOT denature an enzyme?

a)

HIGH temperature

b)

LOW pH

c)

HIGH pH

d)

LOW temperature

134.

What happens to the reaction rate if an enzyme is denatured or nonfunctional?

a)

no change to the reaction rate

b)

increase in reaction rate

c)

decrease in reaction rate

d)

decrease then increase reaction rate

135.

Which of the following is NOT a way that enzymes speed up chemical reactions?

a)

strain bonds in the structure

b)

orient reacting molecules

c)

provide favorable environment

d)

increase required energy of activation

136.

An enzyme can make an endergonic reaction into an exergonic reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Which of the following is a way to overcome competitive inhibition of an enzyme?

a)

increase product concentration

b)

increase substrate concentration

c)

decrease enzyme concentration

d)

decrease environmental temperature

138.

Where does a substrate bind to an enzyme?

a)

active site

b)

allosteric site

139.

How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease reaction rates?

a)

binds to the active site

b)

binds to the allosteric site

c)

increases the free energy

d)

increases the substrate concentration

140.

The decreased production of enzyme Trp-T would have which of the following responses?

a)

decrease in Tryptophan concentration

b)

increase in I3PA concentration

c)

increase in IAA concentration

d)

decrease in I3PA & IAA concentration

141.

In a monohybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

142.

In a monohybrid cross of incomplete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

143.

In a dihybrid cross of complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio?

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

9:3:3:1

d)

12:4

144.

In a population of 100 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous dominant in a cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

145.

In a population of 200 offspring, how many would you expect to be homozygous recessive in a cross between a heterozygous and a homozygous recessive?

a)

0

b)

50

c)

100

d)

150

e)

200

146.

In a cross between a white (recessive) and red (dominant), what is the probability of a pink offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

147.

In a cross between a white, terminal (recessive) and red, axial (dominant), what is the probability of a red, axial offspring?

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

9/16

d)

16/16

148.

In a cross between an individual with A blood and an individual with B blood, what is the probability of an offspring with O blood?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

149.

In a cross between two roan cows, what is the probability of a white cow?

a)

0/4

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

4/4

150.

Identify which of the following descriptions about dominance are correct

a)

Incomplete dominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same.

b)

Incomplete dominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits.

c)

Codominance involves the heterozygous offspring resulting in an intermediate between the two dominant traits

d)

Codominance involves the homozygous dominant and heterozygous looking the same.

151.

Phase involving microtubules to separate sister chromatids to opposite poles of cell

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

152.

Phase involving sister chromatids aligning on plate in middle of cell

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

153.

Phase involving pairing of sister chromatids and condensation of chromatin into chromosomes

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

154.

Phase involving formation of nuclear envelope around separated chromosomes

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

155.

Which checkpoint involves ensuring all microtubules are attached to kinetochores?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

156.

Which checkpoint involves ensuring all DNA has been replicated and "no" errors exist?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

157.

Which checkpoint involves determining whether the cell should divide?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

158.

Which of the following occurs BEFORE the process of mitosis?

a)

Sister chromatids pair up

b)

DNA is replicated

c)

Chromatin is condensed to chromosomes

d)

Cytoplasm is divided between two cells

159.

Which of the following describes the order of processes in the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Interphase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Cytokinesis, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Interphase, Cytokinesis, Telophase

160.

Which of the following describes the result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical, haploid cells

b)

4 non-identical haploid cells

c)

2 identical, diploid cells

d)

4 non-identical, diploid cells

161.

Where does the ligand bind to initiate signal transduction?

a)

glycolipids

b)

nucleus

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

receptor

162.

Where would you find a receptor for a steroid hormone?

a)

in the cytoplasm because steroids are polar

b)

in the cytoplasm because steroid are nonpolar

c)

on the membrane because steroids are polar

d)

on the membrane because steroids are nonpolar

163.

Which of the following is a secondary messenger?

a)

cAMP

b)

ATP

c)

Protein Kinase

d)

Ligand

164.

Which of the following is the order of steps for a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Transduction -> Response

b)

Reception -> Initiation -> Transduction -> Response

c)

Reception -> Transduction -> Response

d)

Transduction -> Reception -> Response

165.

How are steroid and protein hormones different?

a)

steroid hormones are hydrophobic while protein hormones are hydrophilic

b)

steroid hormones are hydrophilic while protein hormones are hydrophobic

c)

steroid hormones are small and uncharged while protein hormones are large and charged

d)

steroid hormones are large and charged while protein hormones are small and uncharged

166.

Which of the following is a potential response for the cell?

a)

Conformational Change of Receptor

b)

Transcription Factor

c)

Phosphorylation Cascade

d)

Release of Ca2+ from Smooth ER

167.

How is paracrine and hormone signaling different?

a)

hormone signaling involves bloodstream, long-distance and paracrine involves extracellular fluid, short-distance

b)

hormone signaling involves extracellular fluid, short-distance and paracrine involves bloodstream, long-distance

c)

hormone signaling involves extracellular fluid, long-distance and paracrine involves bloodstream, short-distance

d)

hormone signaling involves bloodstream, short-distance and paracrine involves extracellular fluid, long-distance

168.

How are ligands cell-specific?

a)

Each cell has a different response to the ligand.

b)

Each cell has different receptors to bind to the ligand

c)

Each cell has different relay molecules based on the ligand.

d)

Each cell has different processes for endocytosis.

169.

Describe the phosphorylation cascade.

a)

Protein phosphatase adds a phosphate to a relay molecule which causes a change in shape to activate.

b)

Protein kinase adds a phosphate to a relay molecule which causes a change in shape to activate.

c)

ATP adds a phosphate to a relay molecule which causes a change in shape to activate.

d)

Mitochondria adds a phosphate to a relay molecule which causes a change in shape to activate.

170.

More than one ligand can bind to the same receptor.

a)

True

b)

False

171.

You are a farmer growing crops. The concentration of your potatoes are 0.35M and you are advised to water your plants with a 0.35M saline solution to provide nutrients. What happens to the plant cells?

a)

Cells are normal since this is an isotonic solution.

b)

Cells become flaccid since this is an isotonic solution.

c)

Cell become plasmolyzed since this is an isotonic solution.

172.

You are a doctor. A patient comes in dehydrated. What type of solution would be best to place into their IV?

a)

A hypotonic solution to allow the cells to rehydrate.

b)

A slightly hypertonic solution to allow the cells to rehydrate.

c)

An isotonic solution to increase fluid in the body without causing harm to the cells.

d)

An isotonic solution to decrease fluid in the body without causing harm to the cells.

173.

Which of the following describes an appropriate water movement pathway?

a)

hypotonic solution to hypertonic solution

b)

hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution

c)

hypertonic solution to isotonic solution

d)

isotonic solution to hypotonic solution

174.

What is the difference between the molecule transported in facilitated diffusion versus simple diffusion?

a)

facilitated diffusion involves nonpolar solute transport through a membrane protein

b)

simple diffusion involves nonpolar solute transport through a membrane protein

c)

facilitated diffusion involves polar solute transport through a membrane protein

d)

simple diffusion involved polar solute transport through a membrane protein

175.

Which of the following describes the difference between passive and active transport?

a)

passive transport involves moving solutes against the concentration gradient using ATP.

b)

active transport involves moving solutes against the concentration gradient using ATP.

c)

passive transport involves moving solutes with the concentration gradient using ATP.

d)

active transport involves moving solutes with the concentration gradient using ATP.

176.

Which of the following describes the difference between channel and carrier transport proteins?

a)

channel proteins bind to solute to shuttle the solute across the membrane

b)

channel proteins provide a nonpolar channel through the membrane

c)

carrier proteins bind to solute to shuttle the solute across the membrane

d)

carrier proteins provide a nonpolar channel through the membrane

177.

Describe what would happen if you placed an animal cell in 1.0 M solution.

a)

The cell would lyse

b)

The cell would be flaccid

c)

The cell would shrivel

d)

The cell would be normal

178.

Describe what would happen if you placed a plant cell in a 0.0 M solution.

a)

The cell would lyse

b)

The cell would be turgid

c)

The cell would plasmolyze

d)

The cell would be flaccid

179.

What organelle found in a plant cell provides the plant cell with turgid pressure?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Golgi Bodies

c)

Central Vacuole

d)

Lysosome

180.

What property of the plasma membrane allows for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse by simple diffusion?

a)

Phospholipids are nonpolar allowing for small, nonpolar substances to dissolve.

b)

Phospholipids are polar allowing for small, polar substances to dissolve.

c)

Phospholipids are amphipathic allowing for a nonpolar interior for nonpolar substances to diffuse.

d)

Phospholipids are amphipathic allowing for polar interior for polar substances to diffuse.

181.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. Which organelle synthesized the protein?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

182.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. After being synthesized, where does it go to be modified, packaged, and sorted?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

183.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of cells. How can you determine these are eukaryotic cells?

a)

They have ribosomes.

b)

They have membrane bound organelles.

c)

They have DNA.

d)

The have a plasma membrane.

184.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of cell X.

a)

Detoxification.

b)

Secretion of Proteins.

c)

Mobility.

d)

Storage.

185.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of cell Y.

a)

Detoxification.

b)

Secretion of Proteins.

c)

Mobility.

d)

Storage.

186.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of eukaryotic cells. Identify a function of cell z.

a)

Detoxification.

b)

Secretion of Proteins.

c)

Mobility.

d)

Storage.

187.

How does the location of the ribosome affect the type of protein product?

a)

free ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins while bound ribosomes synthesize membrane proteins

b)

free ribosomes synthesize membrane proteins while bound ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins

c)

free ribosomes synthesize proteins for the mitochondria while bound ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins.

d)

free ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins while bound ribosomes synthesize proteins for the mitochondria.

188.

Where is the mRNA used for synthesis of proteins made?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

rough ER

d)

smooth ER

189.

What organelle is responsible for storing calcium?

a)

lysosome

b)

smooth ER

c)

rough ER

d)

Golgi Bodies

190.

Tay Sachs results from a build-up of fats due to an error in which organelle that is responsible for digesting macromolecules?

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosome

d)

Golgi Bodies

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