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Biology Final Exam

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The different forms of a gene are called

a)

pollinations

b)

traits

c)

hybrids

d)

alleles

2.

If a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas, it will produce

a)

yellow peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for green peas

b)

green peas if it does not also have a dominant allele for yellow peas

c)

green peas and yellow peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas

d)

peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas

3.

When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited

a)

two alleles from each parent

b)

alleles from each parent

c)

alleles from each parent

d)

one allele from each parent

4.

If a pea plant's alleles for height are tt, what is true of its parents?

a)

both parents were tall

b)

both parents were short

c)

both parents contributed recessive allele

d)

both parents contributed a dominant allele

5.

In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in the F2 generation because

a)

the allele for shortness becomes more common in the F2 generation

b)

the alleles for tallness been to disappear in the F2 generation

c)

the allele for shortness becomes dominant in the F2 generation.

d)

the alleles for both heights segregated when the F1 plants made gametes

6.

When you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up tails?

a)

1

b)

1/4

c)

1/8

d)

1/2

7.

The principles of probability can be used to

a)

decide which organisms are the best use in genetic crosses

b)

predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses

c)

determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses

d)

determine which species should be used in genetic crosses

8.

A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F1 plant will be tall is

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

100%

d)

25%

9.

Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a)

hybrid

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous

d)

dominant

10.

In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11-1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross?

a)

about half are expected to be short

b)

about three fourths are expected to be tall

c)

all are expected to be short

d)

all are expected to be tall

11.

What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other's inheritance?

a)

principle of probabilities

b)

principle of dominance

c)

principle of independent assortment

d)

principle of segregation

12.

The Punnett square in Figure 11-2 shows that the gene for pea shape and the gene for pea color

a)

are linked

b)

have the same alleles

c)

are always homozygous

d)

assort independently

13.

How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype was RrYY?

a)

16

b)

4

c)

8

d)

2

14.

Use Figure 11-3 to answer the following question. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas (RRYy), how many different phenotypes are their offspring expected to show?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

16

d)

8

15.

Gregor Mendel's principles of genetics apply to

a)

plants only

b)

pea plants only

c)

animals only

d)

all organisms

16.

Roan cattle show codominance for the color of their hair. There are alleles for red hair and white hair. What would you expect a heterozygous roan bull to look like if the trait showed incomplete dominance instead?

a)

it would be spotted

b)

it would be white

c)

it would be pink

d)

it would be red

17.

Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called

a)

multiple alleles

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

multiple genes

d)

polygenic inheritance

18.

In rabbits, there are four different versions of the gene for coat color. What pattern of inheritance is this?

a)

multiple alleles

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic inheritance

d)

codominance

19.

Variation in human skin color is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

polygenic traits

20.

What determines the color of western white butterflies?

a)

the environment alone

b)

temperature and genes

c)

genes alone

d)

exposure to sunlight and genes

21.

If an organism's diploid number is 12, its haploid number is

a)

3

b)

24

c)

12

d)

6

22.

Gametes have

a)

homologous chromosomes

b)

two sets of chromosomes

c)

twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells

d)

once allele for each genes

23.

Gametes are produced by the process of

a)

meiosis

b)

replication

c)

crossing-over

d)

mitosis

24.

What is shown in Figure 11-4

a)

replication

b)

independent assortment

c)

anaphase I of meiosis

d)

crossing-over

25.

Chromosomes form tetrads during

a)

anaphase II of meiosis

b)

prophase I of meiosis

c)

interphase

d)

metaphase I of meiosis

26.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a)

body cells

b)

diploid cells

c)

2N daughter cells

d)

haploid cells

27.

What is formed at the end of meiosis?

a)

two genetically identical cells

b)

two genetically different cells

c)

four genetically identical cells

d)

four genetically different cells

28.

Linked genes

a)

assort independently

b)

are always recessive

c)

are on the same chromosome

d)

never separated

29.

If two genes are on the same chromosome and rarely assort independently,

a)

crossing-over always occurs between the genes

b)

crossing-over never occurs between the genes.

c)

the genes are probably located far apart from each other.

d)

the genes are probably located close to each other

30.

The farther apart two genes are located on a chromosome, the

a)

less likely they are to assort independently

b)

less likely they are to be inherited together

c)

less likely they are to be separated by crossing over

d)

more likely they are to be linked

31.

Which bacteria killed the mice in Griffith's transformation experiment?

a)

live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmful bacteria

b)

live harmful bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria

c)

live harmless bacteria, and live, harmful bacteria

d)

live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria

32.

Griffith called the process he observed transformation because

a)

the experiment had been transformed

b)

the harmless bacteria had been transformed

c)

the mousepad been transformed

d)

the harmful bacteria had been transformed

33.

What would have happened if Avery had added an enzyme that digested all the nucleic acids to the mixture of heat-killed bacteria, added the mixture to harmless bacteria, and injected the mixture into mice?

a)

The harmless bacteria would have been transformed, and the mice would have lived.

b)

The harmless bacteria would not have been transformed, and the mice would have lived

c)

The harmless bacteria would have been transformed, and the mice would have died

d)

The harmless bacteria would not have been transformed, and the mice would have died.

34.

What did Avery conclude caused transformation?

a)

DNA was the transforming factor

b)

carbohydrate was the transforming factor

c)

a lipid was the transforming factor

d)

a protein was the transforming factor

35.

What do bacteriophages infect?

a)

bacteria

b)

yo mama

c)

humans

d)

viruses

36.

Why did Hershey and Chase label the viral DNA with radioactive phosphorous and not radioactive sulfur?

a)

Proteins acids contain sulfur and little phosphorous

b)

Proteins contain phosphorus and no sulfur.

c)

DNA contains sulfur and little phosphorous

d)

DNA contains phosphorus and no sulfur

37.

What part of the bacteriophage in Figure 12-1 contains genetic material?

a)

d

b)

b

c)

c

d)

a

38.

What stores information in a cell?

a)

DNA

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

proteins

39.

What happens when a piece of DNA is missing?

a)

Genetic information is copied

b)

Genetic information is transmitted

c)

Genetic information is stored

d)

Genetic information is lost

40.

In what way is DNA like a book?

a)

DNA has information that is periodically updated

b)

DNA has information organized with a kind of index

c)

DNA has information wrapped in an identifying cover

d)

DNA has information, that can be copied and passed on

41.

Figure 12-2 shows the structure of

a)

a protein

b)

a RNA molecule

c)

an amino acid

d)

a DNA molecule

42.

Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?

a)

cytosine + phosphate group + guanine

b)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine

c)

adenine + phosphate group+ thymine

d)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase

43.

Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of

a)

cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules

b)

adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules.

c)

thymine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine molecules

d)

adenine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of thymine molecules

44.

The table in Figure 12-3 shows the results of measuring the percentages of the four bases in the DNA of several different organisms. Some of the values are missing from the table. Based on Chargaff's rule, the percentages of guanine bases in chicken DNA should be around

a)

28.8%

b)

21.5%

c)

13.4%

d)

19.9%

45.

Based on Chargaff's rule, the percentage of cytosine in the DNA of the bacterium, S. Lutea in Figure 12-3, should be around

a)

26.6%

b)

73.2%

c)

36.6%

d)

29.4%

46.

Rosalind Franklin contributed to the understanding of DNA by

a)

finding that DNA was nucleic acid made up of a long chain of individual nucleotides

b)

producing images of DNA molecules using X-rays

c)

figuring out that DNA strands form a double helix

d)

conducting experiments that showed which nucleotides are complementary.

47.

Which of the following statements correctly describes Chargaff's contribution to the study of DNA?

a)

Chargaff hypothesized that DNA was a double helix, but he did not produce the image that proved this fact.

b)

Chargaff's work proved that DNA could be made using radioactive nucleotides, but he did not show that DNA could be transferred from one organism to another.

c)

Chargaff's experiments conclusively proved that DNA was made of nucleotides, but he could not show that there four types of nitrogenous bases.

d)

Chargaff showed that adenine and thymine were found in equal percentages in DNA, but he did not know this was because of base-pairing.

48.

Which scientist(s) figured out that the shape of a DNA molecule is a double helix?

a)

Hershey and Chase

b)

Watson and Crick

c)

Griffith

d)

Franklin

49.

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what happened to the bacteria that had been infected by viruses that had radioactive DNA, and to the bacteria that had been infected with viruses that had been marked with radioactive proteins?

a)

The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had become radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive proteins were not radio active.

b)

The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins had become radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive DNA were not radioactive.

c)

The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had not become radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive proteins had also not become radioactive.

d)

The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had become radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive proteins had also became radioactive.

50.

What would happen to the percentage of G in Figure 12-4 if the percentage of A rose to 25%?

a)

G would rise to 29%

b)

G would drop to 25%

c)

G would rise to 32%

d)

G would drop to 19%

51.

Which of the following forms a base pair with thymine?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

adenine

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

52.

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,

a)

each with the original strands

b)

each with one new strand and one original strand

c)

each with two new strands

d)

one with two new strands and the other with two original strands

53.

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases

a)

GATCCA

b)

AGCTTG

c)

GAUCCA

d)

TCGAAC

54.

What enzyme works to add DNA to ends of chromosomes in rapidly dividing cells such as those found in an embryo, to prevent genes from being lost during replication?

a)

histones

b)

chromatin

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

telomerase

55.

In Figure 12-5, what nucleotide is going to be added at point 1, opposite from thymine?

a)

guanine

b)

thymine

c)

adenine

d)

cytosine

56.

In Figure 12-5, what is adding base pairs to the strand?

a)

nucleosomes

b)

histones

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

chromatin

57.

In eukaryotes, DNA

a)

floats freely in the cytoplasm

b)

is circular

c)

located in the ribosomes

d)

is located in the nucleus

58.

Which would be greater in a eukaryote than in a prokaryote?

a)

The total amount of DNA in a cell

b)

The total number of base pairs in a chromosome

c)

The percentage of guanine nucleotides

d)

The number of replication forks on a strand of DNA

59.

In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, how many copies of the chromosome are left after replication?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

60.

In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, DNA replication happens

a)

before cell division

b)

around the histones

c)

in the nucleus

d)

only to telomeres

61.

RNA contains the sugar

a)

ribose

b)

lactose

c)

deoxyribose

d)

glucose

62.

Unlike DNA, RNA contains

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

uracil

d)

phosphate groups

63.

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

a)

phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine

b)

deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine

c)

phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine

d)

ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine

64.

Which of the following is true?

a)

DNA is usually single-stranded.

b)

RNA is usually single-stranded

c)

RNA contains thymine

d)

DNA contains uracil

65.

Which type of RNA brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell?

a)

mRNA

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

66.

Which molecules are involved in protein synthesis?

a)

messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA

b)

messenger RNA, introns, and ribosomal RNA

c)

ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, and mutagens

d)

transfer RNA, introns, and mutagens

67.

From which molecules are mRNA molecules transcribed?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

DNA

d)

proteins

68.

What is produced during transcription?

a)

DNA molecules

b)

proteins

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

RNA molecules

69.

During eukaryotic transcription, an RNA molecule is formed that is

a)

complementary to part of one strand on DNA

b)

complementary to both strands of DNA.

c)

identical to an entire single strand of DNA.

d)

double-stranded and inside the nucleus.

70.

What does Figure 13-2 show?

a)

exons

b)

introns

c)

anticodons

d)

the genetic code

71.

How many nucleotides are needed to specify three amino acids?

a)

3

b)

12

c)

9

d)

6

72.

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true

a)

Each codon specifies a different amino acid

b)

Some amino acids have no link to a codon

c)

each amino acid is specified by only one codon

d)

several different codons can specify the same amino acid

73.

In Figure 13-3, which amino acid is specified by the mRNA code CCC?

a)

Lys

b)

Gly

c)

Pro

d)

Ala

74.

Which code specifies the same acid as UAU?

a)

UAA

b)

UAC

c)

UGC

d)

UCU

75.

A promoter is a

a)

binding site for RNA polymerase

b)

start signal for replication

c)

stop signal for transcription

d)

binding site for DNA polymerase

76.

What happens during translation?

a)

Messenger RNA is made from a DNA code.

b)

Transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code.

c)

The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins.

d)

Copies of DNA molecules are made.

77.

During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the

a)

codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA

b)

anticodon on the rRNA and the codon on the mRNA

c)

anticodon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA

d)

codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the rRNA.

78.

Genes contain instructions for assembling

a)

operons

b)

mutagens

c)

nucleosomes

d)

proteins

79.

Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms?

a)

DNA to RNA to protein

b)

RNA to protein to DNA

c)

RNA to DNA to protein

d)

protein to DNA to RNA

80.

What is an exception to the central dogma of molecular biology?

a)

Viruses sometimes transfer information from DNA to RNA.

b)

Viruses can translate without RNA.

c)

Viruses sometimes transfer information from proteins to DNA.

d)

Viruses sometimes transfer information from RNA to DNA

81.

In eukaryotes

a)

Transcription takes place in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm

b)

Transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus

c)

Transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm

d)

Transcription takes place in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus.

82.

A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called

a)

an inversion

b)

a mutagen

c)

a translocation

d)

a point mutation

83.

Which of the following is a chromosomal mutation?

a)

inversion

b)

substitution

c)

point mutation

d)

insertion

84.

Most mutations

a)

are fatal to an organism

b)

have no effect on an organism

c)

are harmful to an organism

d)

are helpful to an organism

85.

Which of the following statements is true about gene regulation in prokaryotes?

a)

expressed genes make more DNA

b)

promoters determine whether a gene is expressed

c)

DNA-binding proteins determine whether a gene is expressed

d)

RNA polymerase regulates gene expression

86.

In E. coli, the lac operon controls the

a)

breakdown of glucose

b)

production of lactose

c)

production of glucose

d)

breakdown of lactose

87.

Which is involved with the regulation of eukaryotic genes?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

operator

c)

TATA box

d)

operon

88.

Specialized cells regulate the expression of genes because they

a)

do not carry the complete genetic code in their nuclei.

b)

cannot control the translation of proteins.

c)

do not need the proteins that are specified by certain genes.

d)

do not want the genes to become worn out.

89.

What regulates the expression of most eukaryotic genes?

a)

miRNA

b)

dicer enzymes

c)

transcription factors

d)

silencing complexes

90.

The basic body structure of the fly in Figure 13-4 is determined by a cluster of

a)

frameshift mutation

b)

polypeptides

c)

repressor genes

d)

hox genes

91.

Darwin sailed on the HMS

a)

Beagle

b)

Enterprise

c)

Snoopy

d)

Regal

92.

This geologist proposed that many of the Earth's features were formed over long periods of time

a)

Lamarck

b)

Buffon

c)

Malthus

d)

Lyell

93.

In which of the following environments would fossils form more often?

a)

lakes

b)

deserts

c)

icebergs

d)

tree sap

94.

A genus is composed of a number of similar

a)

orders

b)

phyla

c)

kingdoms

d)

species

95.

Charles Darwin�s observation that finches of different species on the Gal�pagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finch species

a)

originated from a common ancestor

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse

c)

have grown larger since Darwin's visit

d)

all eat the same type of food

96.

Pesticide resistance occurs due to

a)

surviving organisms were already resistants and repopulate

b)

surviving organisms become immune to pesticide

c)

organisms grow shields and defend themselves

d)

not enough pesticide to kill all organisms

97.

This person influenced Darwin by proposing that humans overproduce, therefore, causing competition for survival

a)

Lyell

b)

Lamarck

c)

Malthus

d)

Buffon

98.

A farmer sprays insecticide on his crops to kill unwanted insects. Most of the insects die, and the chemicals have the effect of damaging the DNA of the insects that are not killed. Which of these has happened?

a)

Mutations have arisen that may have altered allele frequencies

b)

Sexual selection among the insects has changed the gene pool

c)

Individuals with new genes have immigrated into the gene pool

d)

Genetic equilibrium has been maintained

99.

The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Gal�pagos Islands displayed different structural adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the

a)

length of the birds necks

b)

similarities of the birds embryos

c)

birds different-shaped beaks

d)

number of eggs in each birds nest

100.

A change in the gene pool of a population due to chance is called

a)

natural selcetion

b)

genetic drift

c)

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

d)

gene flow

101.

Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment

a)

diversity

b)

adaptation

c)

evolution

d)

fitness

102.

Antibiotics are medicines that

a)

kill insects

b)

destroy viruses

c)

kill or slow the growth of bacteria

d)

strengthen the immune system

103.

Gradualism is a pattern of evolution in which

a)

a species has periods of little evolution interrupted by periods of rapid evolution

b)

a species evolves at a slow, steady pace

c)

a single species evolves into several closely related species

d)

several distantly related species develop similarities

104.

Charles Darwin�s observation that finches of different species on the Gal�pagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches

a)

have the ability to interbreed

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse

c)

descended from a common ancestor

d)

all eat the same type of food

105.

Divisions on the geologic time scale are marked by

a)

radioactive dating

b)

marked by major changes in fossilized forms of life

c)

gradual disappearance of species

d)

regular intervals of time

106.

All organisms in the kingdoms Protista, Plantae, Fungi, and Animalia are

a)

photosynthetic organisms

b)

prokaryotes

c)

multicellular organisms

d)

eukaryotes

107.

When a dairy farmer choosiest breed the cows that give the most milk in the herd, the farmers are following the principle of

a)

decent with modification

b)

artificial selection

c)

acquired characteristics

d)

natural selection

108.

What did Charles Darwin learn from reading the work of James Hutton and Charles Lyell?

a)

Gradual change operating over long periods of time can result in dramatic changes

b)

earth is relatively young

c)

the processes that formed old rock's on Earth do not operate today

d)

All geological change is caused by living organisms.

109.

The type of genetic drift that follows the colonization of a new habitat by a small group of individuals is called

a)

directional selection

b)

the founder effect

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

Hardy-Weinburg principle

110.

A factor that keeps species separate is:

a)

incompatible reproductive structures

b)

reproduction at different times

c)

different mating behaviors

d)

all of the above

111.

In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur are

a)

examples of fossils

b)

examples of natural variation

c)

vestigial structures

d)

acquired traits

112.

When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape and live to reproduce. Which best describes this situation?

a)

Species remain unchanged throughout time.

b)

Individuals that function best tend to leave the most offspring

c)

Natural selection is a random process

d)

An individual passes along acquired characteristics to the next generation

113.

The combined alleles of all the individuals that make up a population is the population�s

a)

relative frequency

b)

gene pool

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

114.

When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is

a)

survival of the fittest

b)

artificial selection

c)

natural selection

d)

artificial variation

115.

The length of time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is its

a)

half-life

b)

relative data

c)

radioactive data

d)

period

116.

Salma Hayak wants Mr. Roy to move to Mexico with her to start a family. This is an example of

a)

Nirvana

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

The Hardy-Weinbug Equilibrium

117.

What do all organisms have in common?

a)

They all use DNA to pass on information

b)

They are all genetically identical

c)

They are all prokaryotes

d)

They are all eukaryotes

118.

Cats, humans, whales, and bats all have bones structures that are similar in form and combination. This is an example of

a)

Vestigial structures

b)

Homologous structures

c)

crazy talk

d)

yo mama

119.

What process most likely could account for the diversity of finch species on the Galapagos Islands?

a)

continental drift

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

convergent evolution

d)

adaptive radiation

120.

Which of the following is not an example of a reproductive barrier?

a)

Two populations of oak trees grow on opposite banks of a river.

b)

Two species pf leopard frogs have different mating calls

c)

Two species of flowers are pollinated by different insects.

d)

Mallard ducks and pintail ducks mate at different times of the year.

121.

Homo erectus is spezial because

a)

walked upright

b)

has a website

c)

was bi-pedal

d)

larger body size and cranium

122.

What genotype is the most beneficial for individuals living in regions where malaria is common

a)

heterozygous (one sickle cell allele)

b)

homozygous dominant (no sickle cell alleles)

c)

homozygous recessive (two sickle cell alleles)

d)

no difference among the genotypes

123.

Darwin�s theory of evolution is based on the idea(s) of

a)

a tendency toward perfect, unchanging species

b)

variation and natural selection

c)

use and disuse

d)

the transmission of acquired characteristics

124.

Scientific names (the binomial system) of organisms contain

a)

Domain and Species

b)

Kindgom and Phylum

c)

Kingdom and Species

d)

Genus and Species

125.

Biological fitness is the ability of the individual to

a)

contribute to the gene pool of the next generation

b)

adapt to environmental conditions

c)

acquire new characteristics

d)

live to reproductive age

126.

During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations

a)

in England

b)

in North America

c)

in South America

d)

in Asia

127.

Based on their names, you know that the baboons Papio annubis and Papio cynocephalus do NOT belong to the same

a)

genus

b)

class

c)

species

d)

family

128.

Which of the following statements best describes the findings of Rosemary and Peter Grant�s study of the Gal�pagos finches?

a)

Beak size among finches did not affect reproductive success.

b)

Food availability affected beak size

c)

Finches with large beaks always outcompete finches with small beaks.

d)

Small finches reproduce more successfully than large finches.

129.

Which characteristic of Gal�pagos finches helped the Grants show the results of natural selection?

a)

the curve of their claws

b)

the size and shape of their beaks

c)

the color of their feathers

d)

the length and shape of their wings

130.

An example of the bottleneck effect is

a)

A populations' gene pool is diversified due to chance

b)

A populations' gene pool is reduced on purpose

c)

Mr. Roy lengthens his neck by wearing rings around it

d)

A populations' gene pool is reduced due to chance

131.

Which statement about evolution in the Gal�pagos finches is true?

a)

None of the finch species reproductively isolated

b)

Natural selection on beak size and shape is driven by available food

c)

Mate choice likely plays no role in the finches� evolution

d)

Stabilizing selection has favored an intermediate beak type for all of the finches

132.

On the Gal�pagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed

a)

species exactly like those found in mainland South America

b)

species completely unrelated to those found in mainland South America

c)

completely unrelated species on each of the islands

d)

somewhat similar species to those on the mainland, with traits that suited their particular environments

133.

According to Darwin�s theory of natural selection, certain individuals will leave more offspring on average than do other individuals. Their survival is due to the

a)

possession on inherited adaptions that are well-suited to the environment

b)

choices made by plant and animal breeders

c)

possession of adaptations developed through use

d)

lack of competition within the species

134.

In genetic drift, allele frequencies change because of

a)

chance

b)

mutations

c)

artificial selection

d)

natural selection

135.

Mass extinctions that occurred in the past

a)

wiped out land animals but had little effect on marine life

b)

were followed by diversification of some of the survivors

c)

occurred roughly every million years

d)

cut the number of species to the few left today

136.

Bacteria and archaea differ in

a)

whether they have a nucleus

b)

size

c)

the makeup of their cell walls

d)

whether they have a cell walls

137.

Which of the following may be members of the kingdom Archaea?

a)

eukaryotes

b)

methane producers

c)

bacteria

d)

E. coli

138.

Figure 20�1 shows the structure of

a)

an archaean

b)

a virus

c)

a bacterium

d)

a methane producer

139.

Which of the bacterial cells shown in Figure 20-2 is a coccus?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

A

d)

none of the above

140.

Which of the following can survive either with oxygen or without it?

a)

facultative anaerobes

b)

obligate anaerobes

c)

obligate aerobes

d)

bacteriophages

141.

Some prokaryotes are able to survive unfavorable conditions by forming

a)

capsids

b)

flagella

c)

endospores

d)

cocci

142.

What three characteristics are used to classify prokaryotes?

a)

by size, where they live, and whether they need air

b)

how they reproduce, where they get food, and whether they have DNA

c)

by shape, how they move, and how they get energy

d)

whether they have cell walls, flagella or cilia, and nuclei

143.

Where are you likely to find a photoautotroph?

a)

in your refrigerator

b)

in your digestive system

c)

near the surface of the lakes and streams

d)

the deepest parts of the ocean

144.

During an experiment, a scientist observed prokaryotes that lived near volcanic vents deep in the ocean. The scientist MOST likely observed

a)

chemoautotrophs

b)

photoautotrophs

c)

photoheterotrophs

d)

heterotrophs

145.

During what process do prokaryotes exchange genetic information?

a)

conjugation

b)

cell division

c)

binary fission

d)

endospore formation

146.

What would be a direct consequence of the disappearance of nitrogen-fixing prokaryotes?

a)

Food chains that depend on these producers for food would collapse

b)

Organisms would not be able to get the nutrients they need to make proteins

c)

Dead organisms would not break down

d)

Nutrients such as carbon would not be recycled

147.

Prokaryotes that break down dead organisms and wastes are called

a)

nodules

b)

nitrogen fixers

c)

producers

d)

decomposers

148.

The outer protein coat of a virus is called a

a)

capsid

b)

head

c)

membrane envelope

d)

bacteriophage

149.

What three materials make up many viruses?

a)

capsids, crystals, and nitrogen

b)

RNA, DNA, and bacteriophages

c)

proteins, nucleic acids, and lipids

d)

bacteriophages, capsids, and membranes

150.

Proteins in the viral capsid or on the surface membrane function to

a)

force a host cell to make copies of the virus

b)

bind the virus to the surface of a host cell

c)

destroy a host

d)

transcribe viral genes

151.

The instructions for making new copies of a virus are

a)

coded in proteins on the surface membrane

b)

found only in bacteriophages

c)

coded in either RNA of DNA

d)

part of a virus's capsid

152.

What is the basic structure of a virus?

a)

a capsid surrounded by a protein coat

b)

a bacteriophage surrounded by a membrane

c)

DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat

d)

a tiny cell surrounded by a cell wall

153.

Which of the following characteristics of living things is NOT true about viruses?

a)

evolve over time

b)

obtain and use energy

c)

able to reproduce

d)

contain genetic material

154.

A lytic infection concludes with the

a)

bursting of the host cell

b)

production of messenger RNA

c)

production of a prophage

d)

insertion of viral DNA into the host cell�s DNA

155.

Bacteriophages infect

a)

cells undergoing the lytic cycle

b)

bacteria

c)

any available host cell

d)

other viruses

156.

Unlike lytic viruses, lysogenic viruses do NOT

a)

inject their genetic material into the host cell

b)

lyse the host cell right away

c)

infect host cells

d)

enter the lytic cycle

157.

How do bacteria cause disease?

a)

by maintaining homeostasis

b)

by destroying cells and releasing toxins

c)

by reproducing very quickly

d)

by entering and bursting cells

158.

Bacteria that cause disease are called

a)

viruses

b)

antibiotics

c)

prophages

d)

pathogens

159.

Which of the following will NOT prevent many bacterial infections?

a)

washing hands and surfaces with soap and water

b)

storing food in a refrigerator

c)

heating objects to very high temperatures

d)

allowing foods to cool completely before refrigerating

160.

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a bacterium?

a)

strep throat

b)

tuberculosis

c)

Lyme disease

d)

AIDS

161.

An unknown disease or a well-known disease that suddenly becomes harder to control is called

a)

an emerging disease

b)

a viral disease

c)

a pathogen

d)

an antibiotic

162.

Which of the following is NOT a reason emerging diseases are especially dangerous to human health?

a)

Emerging diseases can only be controlled by vaccines

b)

Emerging diseases may jump to humans from other species

c)

Human populations have little to no resistance to emerging diseases

d)

Many emerging diseases are resistant to antibiotics

163.

What kind of pathogen causes clumps of misfolded proteins to form in the brain?

a)

virus

b)

superbug

c)

prion

d)

bacterium

164.

Viral diseases can be

a)

prevented with vaccines but not treated with antibiotics

b)

prevented with antibiotics but not treated with vaccines

c)

treated with antibiotics and prevented with vaccines

d)

treated with vaccines and prevented with antibiotics

165.

How do viruses cause disease?

a)

by changing normal proteins into misfolded proteins

b)

by releasing toxins

c)

by destroying cells or affecting cellular processes

d)

by inserting prophages into human DNA

166.

Viral infections can be prevented by vaccines, which are

a)

substances that cause viral proteins to misfold

b)

preparations of weekend or killed viruses

c)

chemicals that destroy viral DNA

d)

drugs that control the growth and reproduction of viruses

167.

Prions differ from viruses because

a)

prions infect only plant cells

b)

prions do not contain protein

c)

prions contain no DNA or RNA

d)

prions do not cause disease

168.

What are protists?

a)

single-celled organisms that belong to the plant, animal, and fungi kingdoms

b)

eukaryotes that are not part of the plant, animal, or fungi kingdoms

c)

single-celled eukaryotes that are part of the plant and fungi kingdoms

d)

prokaryotes that are part of Domain Archaea

169.

Most protists are

a)

algae

b)

prokaryotes

c)

fungi

d)

single-celled

170.

Scientists once classified protists based on whether they had plantlike, funguslike, or animal-like characteristics. Why is this system problematic?

a)

Some protists have characteristics of more than one groups

b)

Protists are too similar to each other to be classified in different groups

c)

Most protists do not have any of these types of characteristics

d)

Nearly all protists are actually members of the plant, fungi, or animal kingdom

171.

Which of the following organisms is a multicellular protist?

a)

kelp

b)

euglena

c)

archaea

d)

diatom

172.

Based on Figure 21�1, which of the major groups of protists is MOST closely related to plants?

a)

rhodophyta

b)

excavates

c)

choanozoa

d)

amoebozoa

173.

How are protists related to other eukaryotes?

a)

Today�s protists gave rise to plants, fungi, and animals.

b)

Today�s protists and plants, fungi, and animals have an ancient common ancestor.

c)

Today�s protists arose from ancient plants, fungi, and animals.

d)

Protists evolved from bacteria while the other eukaryotes evolved from archaea.

174.

To move, nonmotile protists depend on

a)

cytoplasmic projections

b)

cilia and flagella

c)

air or water currents and other organisms

d)

microubules

175.

The organism shown in Figure 21�2 is an example of

a)

a spore-forming protist

b)

a flagellate

c)

an amoeba

d)

a cilate

176.

During what process do two protists exchange genetic material?

a)

mitosis

b)

cell division

c)

meiosis

d)

conjugation

177.

Many protists alternate between diploid and haploid stages during their life cycle in a process known as

a)

conjugation

b)

alteration of generations

c)

asexual reproduction

d)

sexual reproduction

178.

Which of the following will NOT happen when people release large amounts of sewage into bodies of water?

a)

Protists may break down the sewage.

b)

The sewage will provide shelter for phytoplankton.

c)

An algal bloom may occur.

d)

A buildup of toxins produced by protists may poison fish.

179.

Phytoplankton are only found at the surface of ocean waters because

a)

they require sunlight to carry out photosynthesis

b)

they feed on tiny organisms living at the surface

c)

they cannot withstand the colder temperatures of deep water

d)

they are an important food source to surface-dwelling marine organisms

180.

The spore-forming Plasmodium causes

a)

algal blooms

b)

intestinal diseases

c)

African sleeping sickness

d)

malaria

181.

What would happen to termites if Trichonympha disappeared?

a)

Termites would die because they cannot digest wood without Trichonympha.

b)

Termites would survive by finding other protists to eat.

c)

Termites would not be affected by the disappearance of Trichonympha.

d)

Termite populations would increase because Trichonympha is a harmful protist.

182.

All fungi are

a)

autotrophic eukaryotes.

b)

autotrophic prokaryotes.

c)

heterotrophic prokaryotes.

d)

heterotrophic eukaryotes

183.

Which of the following is true of fungi?

a)

like protists, they are eukaryotic

b)

like animals, they lack cell walls

c)

like plants, they carry out photosynthesis

d)

like some prokaryotes, they are autotrophic

184.

A mushroom is a

a)

lichen

b)

fruiting body

c)

hypha

d)

mycelium

185.

The tangled mass that makes up the part of a fungus that is below the soil is the

a)

mycelium

b)

fruiting body

c)

chitin

d)

mushroom

186.

What structure is missing in the fungal hyphae shown on the right side of Figure 21�5?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

cross walls

c)

nuclei

d)

cell walls

187.

An important role of fungi in an ecosystem is

a)

making alcohol

b)

performing photosynthesis

c)

breaking down dead organisms

d)

killing bacteria

188.

Figure 21�6 illustrates an association of

a)

a plant and a fungus

b)

a cyanobacterium and a plant

c)

an alga or cyanobacterium and a fungus

d)

an alga and a plant

189.

In a mycorrhizal relationship, what benefit does the plant get from the fungus?

a)

aid in the absorption of water and minerals

b)

products of photosynthesis

c)

an energy source

d)

aid in seed dispersal

190.

Lichens play an important role in soil formation because they

a)

help plants get nutrients and water from soil.

b)

increase the surface area of roots.

c)

prevent rocks from eroding.

d)

are often the first organisms to enter barren environments.

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