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Final Exam Review

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Anatomy is the study of ______ while physiology is the study of ______

a)

Function, structue

b)

Structure, structure

c)

Structure, function

d)

Function, function

2.

Which are components of a homeostatic control mechanism?

a)

Receptor

b)

Control Center

c)

Effectors

d)

All are part

3.

The chest is _____ to the hips while the hips are _____ to the neck

a)

Dorsal, anterior

b)

Superior, inferior

c)

Proximal, distal

d)

Deep, superficial

4.

Reactions that release energy are ______ while those that absorb energy are ______

a)

Endergonic, exergonic

b)

Endergonic, endergonic

c)

Exergonic, endergonic

d)

Exergonic, exergonic

5.

Carbohydrates

a)

Genetic blueprint

b)

Form the cell membrane bilayer

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Cellular fuel

6.

In DNA, the nitrogen bases complementary bind with each other. Which bases are correctly matched?

a)

G:T

b)

A:T

c)

A:C

d)

G:C

7.

On a pH scale, a pH of 7 is ____, a pH of 2 is ____, and a pH of 8 is ____

a)

Acidic, basic, acidic

b)

Neutral, acidic, basic

c)

Basic, neutral, acidic

d)

Neutral, basic, acidic

8.

Which membrane transport system does not require the cell to use ATP?

a)

Primary active transport

b)

Secondary active transport

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Osmosis

e)

Pinocytosis

9.

A red blood cell will crenate (shrink) when placed in what type of solution?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

10.

During which stage of the cell's life cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

G1

b)

M

c)

G2

d)

S

11.

DNA is _____ into mRNA

a)

Transcribed

b)

Translated

12.

All epithelial tissues have 2 names. The first is based on _____ and the second is based on _____

a)

Cell shape, # of layers

b)

Cell shape, cell shape

c)

# of layers, cell shape

d)

None of these

13.

Which fiber type prevents stretching and tearing?

a)

Reticular

b)

Elastic

c)

Collagen

14.

Connective tissue proper is divided into 2 subclasses, loose & dense CT. What does this refer to?

a)

Density of fibers

b)

Type of fibers

c)

Type of cells

d)

Whether the tissue can store water

15.

The rule of nines is helpful clinically in

a)

Diagnosing skin cancer

b)

Estimating the extent of a burn

c)

Estimating how serious cancer is

d)

Preventing acne

16.

The most important role of the eccrine sweat gland is

a)

Body temperature regulation

b)

Earwax production

c)

Stress-induced sweating

d)

Milk production

17.

The product of this type of sweat gland includes protein & lipid substances that become odoriferous as a result of bacterial action:

a)

Eccrine gland

b)

Sebaceous gland

c)

Pancreatic gland

d)

Apocrine gland

18.

Appositional growth is

a)

Growth from the outside

b)

Growth from the inside

19.

In order for long bones to grow lengthwise, what is required?

a)

Epiphyseal line

b)

Epiphyseal plate

c)

Epiphyseal dish

20.

Which of the following bone cell types is primarily responsible for initiating ossification of bone?

a)

Osteocytes

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

Chondroblasts

21.

Amphiarthroses are

a)

Freely movable joints

b)

Slightly moveable

c)

Immoveable

d)

Synarthroses

22.

This type of synovial joint is used when you use a screwdriver to fix the fence.

a)

Plane

b)

Hinge

c)

Pivot

d)

Condyloid

23.

Pointing your toes downward is described as which type of movement?

a)

Pronation

b)

Supination

c)

Dorsiflexion

d)

Plantar flexion

24.

Much of the friction associated with synovial joints is reduced by the presence of (2 answers)

a)

Bursae

b)

Fibrous capsules

c)

Fatty pads

d)

Tendon sheaths

25.

Which muscle type is subject to conscious control?

a)

Smooth

b)

Cardiac

c)

Skeletal

26.

In order to receive a signal to contract, each skeletal muscle must be served by a

a)

Vein

b)

Artery

c)

Ligament

d)

Nerve

27.

Myosin heads contain binding sites for each of the following, except

a)

Actin

b)

ATP

c)

Calcium

d)

ATPase enzymes

28.

A smooth, sustained contraction resulting from very rapid stimulation of muscle, in which no evidence of relaxation is seen:

a)

Wave summation

b)

Fused tetanus

c)

Twitch

d)

Multiple motor unit summation

29.

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle _____. In an isometric contraction, the muscle _____.

a)

Does not shorten, does not shorten

b)

Does not shorten, shortens

c)

Shortens, shortens

d)

Shortens, does not shorten

30.

The nervous system has 3 overlapping functions. Which of the following represents a logical sequence of these 3 functions?

a)

Motor output, integration, sensory input

b)

Sensory input, integration, motor output

c)

Integration, sensory input, motor output

d)

Sensory input, motor output, integration

31.

"Nerves" are found in the ___ while "tracts" are found in the ___

a)

CNS, PNS

b)

Brain, legs & arms

c)

PNS, CNS

d)

Spinal cord, brain

32.

The portion of a neuron that conducts action potentials or nerve impulses is the ____

a)

Cell body

b)

Axon

c)

Dendrite

33.

White matter is myelinated

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The pons belongs to which major brain region?

a)

Diencephalon

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Brain stem

d)

Cerebellum

35.

Professional ballet dancers have a particularly efficient ____

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Basal nucleus

d)

Cerebral cortex

36.

The ____ of the brain is the location of our conscious mind

a)

Brain stem

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brodmann area

d)

Cerebral cortex

37.

Thermoreceptors

a)

Respond to touch, pressure, vibration, stretch

b)

Sensitive to temperature changes

c)

Respond to light energy

d)

Respond to chemicals

38.

Which component of the reflex arc is responsible for conducting efferent impulses from integration center to effector organ

a)

Receptor

b)

Sensory neuron

c)

Motor neuron

d)

Effector

39.

The ANS can be divided into what 2 parts

a)

Sympathetic Division

b)

Sensory Division

c)

Parasympathetic Division

d)

Somatic System

40.

The "fight or flight" system is responsible for

a)

Digestion

b)

Increase heart rate

c)

Dilated pupils

d)

Decreased heart rate