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BIO 311D Unit 1 Study

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 14hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How does a translocation differ from other large-scale chromosomal abnormalities?

a)

it involves breaking off a segment of a chromosome

b)

It involves breaking off a segment and attaching it to another chromosome

c)

It involves only the deletion of a segment from a chromosome

2.

In humans, which parent gives the sex-determining trait to the child?

a)

Mother

b)

Father

c)

Could be either parent

d)

Both parents

3.

Why are x-linked recessive traits more likely to appear in the phenotypes of males than phenotypes of females

a)

recessive alleles become dominant in male individuals because of male hormones

b)

because of female hormones, females never express recessive alleles

c)

males only have one allele for x-linked traits

d)

x chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than x chromosomes in females

4.

a woman (who does not have hemophilia) is heterozygous for the recessive x-linked gene for hemophilia. her husband is not affected. what proportion of their sons will have hemophilia?

a)

none

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

all

5.

A woman (who does not have hemophilia) is heterozygous for the recessive X-linked gene for hemophilia. Her husband is not affected by hemophilia. 

a)

none

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

e)

all

6.

If a baby girl was born color-blind, which of the following can be assumed about her parents' phenotype?

a)

both parents must be color-blind

b)

Her father must be color-blind

c)

Her mother must be color-blind

7.

Which of these must be true for a mammal to be a genetic mosaic for a particular X-linked trait?

a)

t must have more than one X chromosome

b)

It must be heterozygous for that trait

c)

Both A and B must be true

d)

Neither A nor B Is necessarily true

8.

Which of these would be an evolutionary advantage to having the X-chromosome inactivation system?

a)

It would decrease expression of only harmful X-linked traits

b)

It would decrease expression of only helpful X-linked traits

c)

It would make the amount of expression of all X-linked traits about the same in males and females

d)

It would make the mutation rate of X-linked traits about the same as that of Y-linked traits

9.

This replicated chromosome contains which

a)

two single-stranded DNA molecules

b)

one double-stranded DNA molecule

c)

two double-stranded DNA molecules

d)

many double-stranded DNA molecules

10.

Which of the following best describes the two members of a homologous pair?

a)

they have identical DNA

b)

they have genes controlling the same characters

c)

they were inherited from the same parent

d)

they move together in meiosis II

11.

If a cell with genome of 20 pairs of chromosomes undergoes normal meiosis, how many cells result, and how many chromosomes are in each of the resulting cells?

a)

two cells, each with 20

b)

two cells, each with 40

c)

four cells, each with 10

d)

four cells, each with 20

e)

four cells, each with 40

12.

If the diploid number (2n) for a species is 50, how many homologous pairs are in that species’ genome, and how many chromosomes are in a sperm cell of that species ?


a)

50,50

b)

50,25

c)

25,25

d)

25,50

13.

When n is the number of homologous pairs, the number of possible combinations of parental chromosomes in gametes is which? (choose a formula)

a)

2n

b)

n^2

c)

2^n

14.

What is a common normal process that contributes to genetic variability during mitosis?

a)

independent assortment

b)

mutation

c)

both of these

d)

none of these

15.

What is a common normal process that contributes to genetic variability during meiosis?

a)

independent assortment

b)

crossing over

c)

both of these

d)

neither of these

16.

Albinism is a recessive trait. From these two heterozygous parents (who are NOT albino), what fraction of their children are expected to be albino?

a)

all

b)

3/4

c)

1/2

d)

1/4

e)

none

17.

In the mating cross Tt x TT, what is the probability of their offspring having genotype "tt"?

a)

0

b)

0.5

c)

0.25

d)

0.75

18.

In the mating cross Tt x TT, what is the probability of their offspring having genotype "Tt"

a)

0

b)

0.25

c)

0.75

d)

0.5

19.

One of the two sisters shown here is albino, a simple recessive trait inherited from heterozygous non-albino parents. What is the probability that the sister with normal coloration is a carrier of the albinism allele?

a)

0

b)

0.25

c)

0.33

d)

0.50

e)

0.66

20.

Josh is a heterozygous carrier for the sickle-cell allele. Ann is homozygous for normal globin allele. What percent of their children would be expected to have the disease sickle-cell anemia? 

a)

0

b)

.25

c)

.50

d)

0.75

e)

1

21.

Josh is a heterozygous carrier for the sickle-cell allele. Ann is homozygous for normal globin allele.

What percent of their children would be expected to be carriers of the sickle-cell allele?

a)

0

b)

0.25

c)

0.50

d)

.75

e)

1

22.

A mouse shows the dominant black phenotype but has unknown genotype. To do a test cross, you would mate this individual with which of these?    [edit note: this assumes black has simple, complete dominance]

a)

any black mouse

b)

any brown mouse

c)

a mouse you think has the same genotype

d)

not enough info

23.

A couple both of whom are heterozygous carriers (Aa) for a recessive allele (a) for albinism plan to have two children. What is the probability that both of their children will be albino?

a)

0

b)

1/16

c)

1/8

d)

1/4

e)

1/2

24.

A trait shows simple, complete dominance.A certain individual shows the dominant trait in its phenotype. In order to determine its genotype (whether homozygous or heterozygous) you would mate that individual with which of these?

a)

an individual with the dominant phenotype

b)

an individual with the recessive phenotype

c)

any mating would determine this

25.

With incomplete dominance what is the expected ratio of phenotypes from a monohybrid cross?

a)

3:1

b)

1:1:1:1

c)

1:2:1

d)

2:1

26.

A person with MN blood type N (phenotype) would have which genotype?

a)

L(M)L(M)

b)

L(M)L(N)

c)

L(N)L(N)

d)

either b or c but not a

27.

Which of these sets of parents (blood type phenotype given) is probably not correctly matched to their child (by blood type)

a)

parents a and b child ab

b)

parents a and o child ab

c)

parents a and o child o

d)

parents a and b child o

e)

parents ab and b child ab

28.

The A allele frequency is 0.7  - this means which?

a)

the proportion of individuals showing the A trait in their phenotype

b)

the proportion of individuals with any A alleles in their genotype?

c)

the proportion of A alleles in the total gene pool

29.

The AA genotype frequency is is 0.7 – this means?

a)

the proportion of individuals showing the A trait in their phenotype

b)

the proportion of individuals with genotype AA

c)

the proportion of A alleles in the total gene pool

30.

There are two alleles for a certain gene locus, A and a. 70% of the alleles in a particular gene pool are A. What is the allele frequency of a ?

a)

.20

b)

.30

c)

.50

d)

.70

31.

In the H-W equation  p + q = 1, the term “p” can refer to which?

a)

frequency of individuals showing the dominant trait

b)

frequency of individuals showing recessive trait

c)

frequency of the dominant allele in the gene pool

32.

In the H-W equation p2 + 2pq + q2, the term “2pq” refers to the frequency of which?

a)

individuals showing the dominant trait

b)

individuals that are heterozygous

c)

individuals showing the recessive trait

33.

In a population of 1000 diploid individuals the gene pool for one trait like eye color would consist of how many alleles?

a)

500

b)

1000

c)

2000

34.

Within a population of butterflies, the color brown (B) is dominant over the color white (b), and 25% of all butterflies are white.   4. the percentage of butterflies in the population that are heterozygous is 

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

35.

Within a population of butterflies, the color brown (B) is dominant over the color white (b), and 25% of all butterflies are white. 

the percentage of homozygous dominant individuals is

a)

0

b)

25

c)

50

d)

75

e)

100

36.

Red short-horned cattle are homozygous for the red allele, white cattle are homozygous for the white allele, and roan cattle are heterozygotes. Population A consists of 36% red, 16% white, and 48% roan cattle. What are the allele frequencies?

a)

red=0.36 white=0.16

b)

red=0.6 white=0.4

c)

red=0.5 white=0.5

37.

Cheetahs formerly ranged widely across sub-Saharan Africa but now are in small isolated populations which have relatively low genetic variability (low heterozygote frequency for many gene loci). Which of the Hardy-Weinberg criteria has changed and may not be met in cheetah populations due to this?

a)

large population size

b)

no mutation

c)

no gene flow

d)

random mating occurring

e)

no selection

38.

Due to global warming, a river has dried up, allowing two different rabbit populations, which were isolated before, to mate with one another. Which of the Hardy-Weinberg criteria has changed and may not be met due to this?

a)

large population size

b)

no mutation

c)

no gene flow

d)

random mating occurring

e)

no selection

39.

inbreeding increases the percentage of which genotypes in a population?

a)

only homozygous dominant

b)

only homozygous recessive

c)

only heterozygotes

d)

both homozygotes

40.

Which of these different individuals (within the same population) has the highest relative fitness?

a)

Individual that lives the longest

b)

Individual that acquires the most food and other resources

c)

Individual that produces the most offspring

41.

When a new mutation (new allele) appears in an individual in the population, what is fate of that allele in the population?

a)

It will usually increase in frequency and become fixed

b)

Just because it is so rare, it will usually decrease in frequency and disappear

c)

Its future allele frequency depends upon whether it is favorable, deleterious or neutral in the environment.

42.

Why must a population have some genetic variability in order for evolution by natural selection to work?

a)

because selection has a greater effect in small populations

b)

because the direction of selection can change in different environments

c)

because selection can only occur immediately after a random mutation occurs

d)

so selection can have different effects on individuals with different genetic-based traits

43.

Why don’t all unfavorable alleles disappear immediately from a population?

a)

They will only disappear in chance events

b)

After a couple of generations the unfavorable alleles will become favorable alleles.

c)

They will remain in the population in heterozygotes

44.

What happens if you take penicillin (antibiotic against peptidoglycan cell walls) when you have a viral infection?

a)

It will cure your viral infection but have no effect on bacteria

b)

It will neither cure your viral infection nor have an effect on bacteria

c)

It will kill only harmful bacteria in your body

d)

It will kill both harmful and helpful bacteria in your body

45.

If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences an energetic cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would happen to these bacteria in environments that have no antibiotics?

a)

These genes would be maintained just in case the antibiotics appear

b)

These bacteria would be outcompeted and replaced by bacteria that have lost these genes

c)

These bacteria would try to make the cost worthwhile by locating and migrating to microenvironments where traces of antibiotics are present.

46.

Predict what happens to the frequency (q) of the sickle-cell globin allele in populations that move away from malaria areas (still get sickle cell anemia)

a)

q will increase

b)

q will decrease

c)

no significant change

47.

Predict what happens to the frequency (q) of the sickle-cell allele when sickle-cell anemia can be effectively treated (modern medicine) and is no longer deadly?

a)

q will decrease

b)

q will increase

c)

no significant change

48.

One hears the statement “Evolution all happens by chance.” Which of the following statements helps to correct that misconception?

a)

Mutations do not happen by chance alone

b)

Selection involves survival of the fittest

c)

Natural selection does not happen by chance

d)

Chance cannot produce perfect organisms

49.

What is an adaptation?

a)

inherited trait that increases variation in a population

b)

Inherited trait that enhances an organism’s survival and reproduction

c)

Inherited trait that does not evolve as the environment changes.

50.

Which of the following is NOT a feature of microevolution?

a)

changes in allele frequency

b)

new species are formed

c)

assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg are not met

d)

chance is sometimes involved

51.

The Biological Species Concept describes a “species” as which of these?

a)

Populations of organisms that have similar body structure

b)

Populations of organisms that can potentially interbreed with each other

c)

Populations of organisms that are geographically separate from others

52.

Distinguishing which set of species would be most difficult when specifically using only the Biological Species Concept?

a)

Species that are small

b)

Species in which males and females look alike superficially

c)

Species that only reproduce asexually

d)

Species that live in parts of the world that are inaccessible

53.

Reproductive isolating mechanisms/barriers block gene flow between species. Which of these is an evolved adaptation to prevent reproduction between individuals of closely related species?

a)

some species live in Asia and others live in North America

b)

some species live in aquatic habitats and others live on land

c)

different species have different specialized feeding organs

d)

different species have copulation organs that do not fit

54.

If the barrier is removed from two populations that were formed by allopatric speciation, what characteristic would allow one to determine IF the two populations had become separate species?

a)

Different body structures

b)

Different microhabitat specialization

c)

Inability to interbreed

d)

Competition for resources

55.

Is a geographic barrier alone an evolved reproductive isolating mechanism?  

a)

Yes, because it is currently keeping the two populations apart.

b)

Yes, because the two populations would always adapt to different environments on different sides of the barrier

c)

No, because if the geography changes and the two separate populations are together, they can still potentially interbreed.

56.

[thought question] Many new plant species have originated by a mutation process known as polyploidy but comparatively few new animal species originate by polyploidy. Which of these might explain the difference?  

a)

In comparison to plants, fewer animal species have self-fertilization

b)

In general, plants have many more chromosome pairs than animals;

c)

In general, animals have higher mutation rates than plants

d)

In general, plants have higher reproductive rates than animals