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APES Exam Review

Total questions: 206

Worksheet time: 4hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The goals of the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act include which of the following?
a)
To prevent the unsafe disposal of high-level radioactive wastes at sea
b)
To prevent the illegal disposal of hospital waste contaminated with infectious agents
c)
To prevent the unsafe disposal of hazardous wastes on land
d)
To clean up abandoned hazardous waste sites
2.
A fig tree that provides shelter and fruit that are essential to the survival of numerous other species is an example of
a)
A keystone species
b)
An exotic species
c)
An indicator species
d)
An endemic species
3.
Which of the following would decrease one’s ecological footprint?
a)
Eating more meat
b)
Walking to school rather than driving
c)
Eating more processed and packaged food
d)
Purchasing a larger home
4.

An ecological footprint considers

a)

per capita resource use of a nation.

b)

how much an individual consumes in terms of land area.

c)

average yearly consumption of resources.

d)

resources that an entire nation consumes in and average year.

e)

the ratio of resources consumed in developed nations to less developed nations.

5.

Individuals will use shared resources in their own self-interest rather than in keeping with the common good, thereby depleting the resources. This is known as

a)

Self centeredness

b)

Commonwealth sharing

c)

Tragedy of the Commons

d)

Public resource commons

6.

Which of the following biogeochemical cycles does not have an atmospheric phase?

a)

Hydrolic Cycle

b)

Nitrogen Cycle

c)

Sulfur Cycle

d)

Carbon Cycle

e)

Phosphorous Cycle

7.

Select the two characteristics that determine which type of biome an ecosystem is.

a)

Climate

b)

Temperature

c)

Elevation

d)

Precipitation

8.

In a food pyramid, which organism can be found on the bottom?

a)

Primary Consumers

b)

producers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Herbivores

9.

One species benefits and the other is not affected is an example of which symbiotic relationship?

a)

Parasitism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Predation

10.

In which biome would you expect to find an area with an average temperature of 10oC and 200 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Temperate seasonal forest

b)

Temperate rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Tropical seasonal forest

11.

Based on the theory of island biogeography, which of the following is the most likely reason that an island in the ocean that is 5 kilometers from a continent would have a higher number of species than one that is 15 kilometers from a continent?

a)

There are more species that have the ability to travel 5 kilometers than can travel 15 kilometers.

b)

Islands that are closer to continents always have a wider range of habitats than more distant islands do.

c)

There are smaller populations of each species on islands that are at greater distances from continents.

d)

Islands that are closer to continents always have more ecological niches than more distant islands do.

12.

High biodiversity is important because...

a)

it means that the ecosystem is more able to recover from disturbances.

b)

it means that the ecosystem is less able to recover from disturbances.

c)

it means that organisms are healthier and have more opportunities.

d)

it means that organisms are less healthy and have less opportunities.

13.

Which of the following best shows the process of evolution?

a)

A population of mosquitoes develops resistance to a pesticide.

b)

A lizard's color becomes brown as it sits on a log.

c)

A plant loses its leaves in a drought.

d)

A population of foxes increases as more prey becomes available.

14.
According to the population pyramid of this country, its population is most likely...
a)
growing slowly.
b)
growing rapidly.
c)
decreasing.
d)
not changing.
15.
Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?
a)
human activities 
b)
unusual weather
c)
competition
d)
natural disaster
16.

These organisms typically live in unstable, unpredictable environments & are able to reproduce rapidly (exponentially). They do not take care of their young & are subject to predation.

a)

K-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

17.

These organisms occupy stable environments, are larger in size and have longer life expectancies. They produce, during their life spans, fewer offspring, but place a greater investment in each.

a)

K-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

18.

What is the maximum number of individuals of one species that the environment can support?

a)

overload capacity

b)

top capacity

c)

population

d)

carrying capacity

19.

Which factor would be considered density independent?

a)

an intestinal parasite

b)

a fatal virus

c)

a severe drought

d)

severe overcrowding

20.
A country with an age distribution like that shown in the figure above, is most likely a country that
a)
Is expecting rapid growth
b)
Is experiencing slow or no population growth
c)
Is experiencing a high death rate
d)
Is a less-developed country
21.
Which section would see exponential population growth?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
22.

The Coriolis effect is responsible for

a)

the mixing of two Hadley cells

b)

the falling effect of warm air

c)

the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands

d)

the deflection of atmospheric currents

23.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

24.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

25.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
26.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
27.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

28.

What is the correct sequence of layers of the earth's atmosphere from earth's surface to space?

a)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

b)

mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere.

c)

troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

d)

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

29.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
30.

The practice of planting a nitrogen-using plant with a nitrogen-fixing plant is called

a)

intercropping

b)

contour farming

c)

strip cropping

d)

monoculture

31.

Over use of farmland can cause a depletion in soil nutrients and can lead to

a)

waterlogging

b)

desertification

c)

irrigation

d)

intercropping

32.

Reclamation is the process of

a)

Removing coal from a subsurface seam

b)

Extracting ore minerals from gangue minerals

c)

Returning land to its original or better condition

d)

Protecting the habitats of local wildlife

33.

Which is true about aquaculturing?

a)

The amount of aquacultured fish has decreased significantly in favor of wild-caught fish.

b)

Aquaculturing requires the same inputs as other forms of animal agriculture, including feed and antibiotics.

c)

Aquaculture operations do not affect the surrounding ecosystem in any adverse way.

d)

All of the above are true.

34.

Which of the following would be an environmental impact of high density animal farming?

a)

bad smells

b)

livestock can escape

c)

water pollution due to runoff

d)

improvement of feeding efficiency

35.

IPM is likely to use all of the following techniques EXCEPT

a)

intercropping.

b)

habitat creation for pest predators.

c)

planting herbicide-resistant crops.

d)

increased use of traditional pesticides.

36.

What causes a heat island?

a)

large forested areas

b)

deforestation

c)

climate change

d)

mass transit

37.

Which of the following best describes an environmental advantage of urbanization?

a)

Individuals living in cities have more varied employment opportunities than individuals living in rural areas.

b)

Individuals living in cities have greater access to health care than individuals living in rural areas.

c)

Individuals living in cities usually have greater access to fresh, local agricultural products than individuals living in rural areas.

d)

Individuals living in cities usually have a lower transportation carbon footprint than individuals living in rural areas.

38.

The following are advantages of which type of energy?

· Emits little to no CO2/toxins

· 2-3 million x more energy than coal

Low environmental impact

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

39.

The following are disadvantages of which type of energy?

· Mining alters landscapes and endangers humans

· High carbon emissions during combustion

a)

Petroleum

b)

Coal

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Nuclear Energy

40.

Colorless, odorless gas that is a naturally occurring decay product of uranium

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

41.

The majority of atmospheric mercury is produced by

a)

medical waste incinerators

b)

volatilization of lead-based paint

c)

coal-burning power plants

d)

runoff from thermometer factories

e)

municipal waste incinerators

42.
What three components have to be present to create photochemical smog?
a)
VOCS, PANS, Carbon Dioxide
b)
VOCS, Ozone, Nitrogen Monoxide
c)
Nitrogen Dioxide, Sunlight, and VOCS
d)
Sulfur Dioxide, Nitrogen Dioxide, and Ozone
43.

High levels of industrial smog are due to    

I. nitrogen dioxide  

II. sulfur dioxide

III. humid weather

a)

I only

b)

I and II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I and III only

44.

Smoke from forest fires is most likely to affect air quality over larger areas for many days when

a)

smog is produced due to chemical reactions in the atmosphere

b)

a persistent atmospheric inversion exists in the region

c)

it emits primary pollutants

d)

it emits secondary pollutants

45.

A type of pollution found both indoors and outdoors, which includes pollen, dander, soot, carbon, and dust.

a)

Water droplets

b)

Allergens

c)

Particulate matter

d)

Combustibles

46.

This toxic heavy metal was found in paints and gasoline in the U.S. until 1976

a)

Lead

b)

Mercury

c)

CFC

d)

VOC

47.

A secondary pollutant such as ozone would form

a)

early in the morning when most emissions happen

b)

mid day- late afternoon, due to the reaction needing sunlight and car emissions

c)

at night, the reaction takes a long time to process

48.

What is a trophic level?

a)

an organisms feeding level in a food chain/food web

b)

the predator/prey relationship

c)

symbiotic relationships

49.
Which of the following is a consequence of excess carbon building up in Earth’s atmosphere?
a)
The amount of breathable oxygen available to living things decreases
b)
Global temperatures change, affecting normal weather patterns.
c)
The amount of solar energy reaching the earth’s surface decreases.
d)
Global air pressure increases making it more difficult for plants and animals to breathe.
50.

In which horizon is most of the partially decomposed material known as HUMUS?

a)

Horizon O

b)

Horizon B

c)

Horizon C

d)

Horizon D or R

51.
The most common gas in the atmosphere (78%).
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Trace gases
52.

Where the naturally occuring good ozone layer is located

a)

troposphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

thermosphere

53.

Plate movement occurs in which part of Earth's crust?

a)

Core

b)

Mantle

c)

Upper mantle

d)

lithosphere

54.

Which of the following geographical features IS NOT associated with a convergent boundary

a)

Deep ocean trench

b)

Volcanic Arc (continental or island)

c)

Crustal uplift forming mountain ranges

d)

Mid ocean ridge

55.

Which of the following DOES not contribute to soil erosion?

a)

Plowing

b)

Overgrazing

c)

Deforestation

d)

Composting

56.

A plane leaves the north pole. It flies directly south towards the equator & will land ___.

a)

to the West (deflected right of its path)

b)

to the East (deflected left of its path)

57.

Which of the following is true regarding solar radiation?

a)

Radiation helps determine an area's climate

b)

Radiation strikes at different angles depending on latitude

c)

Radiation is concentrated over smaller surface area near the equator

d)

All of the answers listed

58.

The __________ cell is an atmospheric convection current occurring at the equator.

a)

Hadley

b)

Ferrell

c)

Polar

59.

Warm, moist air that rises around the equator leads to ___________ while cool, dry air that sinks at 30 degrees latitude leads to _________.

a)

tropical rain forests / deserts

b)

deserts / tropical rain forests

60.

The upwelling of cool, nutrient rich ocean water is caused by

a)

Southeast trade winds

b)

Westerlies in southern hemisphere

c)

Northeast trade winds

d)

Westerlies in northern hemisphere

61.

In ENSO conditions,

a)

Trade winds shift and upwelling is suppressed off western coast of South America

b)

Trade winds weaken but do not shift direction

c)

The upwelling of cool, nutrient rich water is enhanced

d)

Weather patterns remain the same

62.
What is the first step in the water treatment process?
a)
coagulation
b)
filtration
c)
flocs
d)
concentation
63.
Which of these are important sources of drinking water in the US?
a)
Rivers
b)
Lakes
c)
Reservoirs
d)
All options are correct
64.
This law sets standards on pollutants for community water supplies.
a)
Clean Water Act (CWA)
b)
Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)
c)
National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
d)
Oil Pollution Act
65.
How would cutting down trees affect water quality in a watershed?
a)
There would be no affect on water quality.
b)
Rivers and streams might become clogged with silt.
c)
Water levels would be reduced.
d)
The watershed divide would change.
66.
The movement of people from rural areas to big cities is called ________.
a)
urbanization
b)
deforestation
c)
desertification
d)
excommunication
67.
Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution
a)
Effluent from a sewage treatment plant
b)
BP refiner in Indiana discharging ammonia in a river.
c)
Runoff of pesticides from regional farms into the Illinois River.
d)
Hot water discharges from a nuclear power plant.
68.
What is the danger in eating some fish from lakes or ocean?
a)
They may be invasive species.
b)
If abundant, they may lead to a crash in other species.
c)
If they are high on the food chain they may contain high levels of mercury or POP's like PCB's
d)
They may contain too many nutrients from fertilizers.
69.
What is it called when a persistent pollutant (like mercury or PCBs) builds up in the tissues of an organism as they continue to eat something that contains the pollutant
a)
Subsidence
b)
Biomagnification
c)
Tragedy of the commons
d)
Bioaccumulation
70.
_____________ is the process of reclaiming raw materials and reusing them to create new products.
a)
Reducing
b)
Repurposing
c)
Recycling
d)
Composting
71.

Which of the following describe the relationship between D.O. and B.O.D.?

a)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. decreases

b)

When D.O. decreases, the B.O.D. increases

c)

When B.O.D. decreases, the D.O. decreases

d)

When B.O.D. increases, the D.O. decreases

72.
Which is NOT an example of biomass?
a)
wood
b)
crop leftovers (the part of the plant that isn't consumed)
c)
manure and/or trash
d)
petroleum
73.
Which type of fuel produces the most sulfur?
a)
wind
b)
coal
c)
biomass
d)
nuclear fission
74.
Which of the following energy sources has the lowest negative environmental impacts?
a)
Biomass
b)
Nuclear
c)
Natural Gas
d)
Solar
75.
Which of the following DOES NOT use a turbine?
a)
Hydroelectric
b)
Wind
c)
Solar
d)
Nuclear
76.
All of the following renewable resources are derived from the sun in some way EXCEPT
a)
biomass
b)
wind
c)
hydroelectric
d)
geothermal
77.

Which of the following characteristics is common to coal and petroleum

a)

Both were formed by the remains of ancient marine organisms

b)

Both release significant amounts of mercury when burned.

c)

Both are considered renewable resources.

d)

both are forms of ancient organic matter buried deep within the earth's crust.

e)

Both require fractional distillation

78.

Nuclear reactors produce energy through the process of

a)

Incineration

b)

Transmutation

c)

Fusion

d)

Breeding

e)

Fission

79.

Which of the following is the most likely to lead to acid rain?

a)

the release of carbon dioxide from a coal-fired power plant

b)

the release of carbon monoxide from automobiles.

c)

the release of sulfur dioxide from a coal-fired power plant

d)

The release of methane from a cattle feedlot

e)

the release of particulates from a coal-fired power plant

80.
Crude oil is also called what?
a)
biomass
b)
fossils
c)
coal
d)
petroleum
81.
Nuclear power uses ____ for fuel.
a)
steel
b)
coal
c)
uranium
d)
hydrogen
82.
Water on the top the earth can form lakes or rivers, these are termed ____.
a)
fresh water
b)
infiltration
c)
surface water
d)
groundwater
83.
Water that collects in spaces and cracks in rocks and soil underground.
a)
well
b)
aquifer
c)
groundwater
d)
irrigation
84.

The surface of a layer of saturated ground.

a)

water table

b)

groundwater

c)

watershed

d)

reservoir

85.

What would be the best definition of permeability?

a)

Percentage of the total volume of a rock or sediment that consists of open spaces

b)

The ability of a rock or sediment to let fluids pass through open spaces or pores

c)

The inability of a rock or sediment to let fluids pass through open spaces or pores

d)

The level below which the ground is saturated with water

86.

What percent of water on earth is FRESH WATER?

a)

97%

b)

3%

87.
A lack of water in an area is called ____.
a)
water scarcity
b)
water footprint
88.

The step of the nitrogen cycle that is in red is called...

a)

Denitrification

b)

Nitrification

c)

Nitrogen Fixation

d)

Ammonification

89.

The step of the nitrogen cycle that is in red is called...

a)

Denitrification

b)

Nitrification

c)

Nitrogen Fixation

d)

Ammonification

90.

The step of the nitrogen cycle that is in red is called...

a)

Denitrification

b)

Nitrification

c)

Assimilation

d)

Ammonification

91.

Nitrogen fixation...

a)

animals eat the plants and other animals that contain nitrogen and release it through their waste

b)

Bacteria in the soil and lightning in the atmosphere “fix” the nitrogen

c)

Once in the ground, bacteria in the soil also nitrify the nitrogen

d)

plants absorb nitrogen through their roots and return it back to the atmosphere

92.

What is "overfishing"?

a)

Fishing out of season

b)

Catching fish faster than they can replenish

c)

Catching fish from the top of the food chain

d)

Catching more fish than what people eat

93.

What is bycatch?

a)

Catching other sea life than what you were aiming to catch

b)

Fish caught as the ships go by

c)

Fish that escapes out of nets

d)

Fish caught at the very end of the fishing season

94.

What is an impact of fish disappearing? Select all that apply.

a)

Global warming

b)

Jobs and economies can disappear

c)

A major source of protein for humans is lost

d)

Sea levels will rise, flooding coastal areas

95.

The greenhouse effect is a natural process

a)

true

b)

false

96.

The greenhouse effect is caused by

a)

more heat arriving at the Earth from the sun

b)

the Earth releasing more heat at night

c)

gases in the air trapping heat released by the Earth

97.

The graph shows us that

a)

the earth temperature is always increasing

b)

the earth's temperature has steadily increased since 1900

c)

the earth's temperature has steadily rising since the 1960s

d)

the earth's temperature decreased during the 19th and 20th centuries

98.
Ocean acidification begins with 
a)
pollution from ships
b)
carbon dioxide released from combustion
c)
dumping of waste from cities into the ocean
99.
Carbon dioxide and seawater combine to form
a)
calcium carbonate
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
carbonic acid 
100.

How many oxygen atoms does a molecule of ozone contain?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

101.

What is the name of the international agreement committing parties to phasing out ozone depleting substances and phasing out chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

a)

Vienna Protocol

b)

Paris Agreement

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Antarctic Convention

102.

The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by:

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Nitrous oxide

c)

Methane

d)

Chlorofluorocarbon

103.

A serious risk factor associated with the operation of a nuclear power plant is the production of

a)

acid rain

b)

helium gas

c)

greenhouse gases, such as CO2

d)

radioisotopes with long half-lives

104.

What is a problem commonly associated with nuclear power facilities?

a)

A small quantity of energy is produced.

b)

Reaction products contribute to acid rain

c)

It is impossible to control nuclear fission.

d)

It is difficult to dispose of wastes.

105.

How can wind become energy?

a)

When a wind turbines changes the kinetic energy in wind to electric energy.

b)

When a windmill goes fast enough

c)

It just naturally is

d)

The sun heats it so it becomes solar energy

106.

Which is NOT caused by acid rain?

a)

damage to statues

b)

dying fish

c)

spread of disease

d)

weakened trees

107.
How is acid rain formed?
a)
Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide mix with water in the ocean.
b)
Carbon dioxide and oxygen mix with water in the air.
c)
Sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide mix with lake water.
d)
Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide mix with water in the air.
108.
What is the definition Noise Pollution?
a)
Unwanted noise
b)
Excess noise produced by humans
c)
Unwanted noise that distrubs all life 
109.

This primary pollutant creates a reddish brown gas creating photochemical smog and tropospheric ozone.

a)

sulfuric acid

b)

VOC

c)

nitrogen dioxide

d)

particulate matter

110.

Which of the following government agencies is responsible for the Clean Air Act?

a)

the USGS

b)

the USDA

c)

the EPA

d)

the USDOJ

111.
A smog forming group of molecules
Source: are released from burning fuel (fossil fuels or biomass), solvents, paints glues and other commonly used products.  They include benzene, methane, formaldehyde and others
Health effects: In addition to smog (ozone) effects, some are carcinogenic
Environmental effects: affects some plants directly in addition to smog effects
a)
PM (particulate matter)
b)
VOCs
c)
CO
d)
Pb
112.

The bottom image represents a _____________.

a)

rain shadow effect

b)

thermal inversion

c)

Coriolis Effect

d)

ozone layer

113.

What effect do temperature inversions have?

a)

traps heat and raises the temperature beneath it

b)

traps cold air and lowers the temperature beneath it

c)

traps emissions and can accumulate beneath it

d)

traps the ozone layer

114.

Can be traced back to the point of origin.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

115.

A ship carrying gasoline runs into shore and spills large amount of gasoline.

a)

Point

b)

Non-Point

116.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in each level gets lost as heat or used by the organism for survival?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
117.

The phenomenon by which toxins concentrate in the organisms at higher trophic levels within an ecosystem is known as...

a)

Biotoxicity

b)

Biomagnification

c)

Eutrophication

d)

Predation

118.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a habitat.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
119.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
120.

In 2012, there were 20 births per 1,000 people and 5 deaths per 1,000 people in Peru. Calculate the approximate doubling time of Peru's populaiton.

a)

5 years

b)

15 years

c)

47 years

d)

72 years

121.

The size of the human population began to increase exponentially after the

a)

bubonic plague

b)

development of plowing and irrigation

c)

Industrial Revolution

d)

development of the first cities.

122.
Why has the world population dramatically increased?
a)
Better medicine
b)
Better sanitation
c)
Better technology
d)
All of the above
123.
Name that population pyramid...
a)
Exponential
b)
Declining
c)
Rapid Growth
d)
Stable Growth
124.
Name that population pyramid...
a)
Industrialized Country
b)
Country with Clean Water
c)
Developing Country
d)
Logistic Growth
125.
Name that population pyramid?
a)
Stable Growth
b)
Developing Country
c)
Exponential Growth
d)
Negative Growth
126.
Name that population pyramid...
a)
Country with Good Roads and Bridges
b)
Country with Access to Medical Care
c)
Most People are Educated
d)
Poor Water and Sanitation Systems
127.
Which is the correct order of the convection cells starting from the equator?
a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
128.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
129.
This is the side of the mountain that is often drier and warmer.
a)
Leeward Side
b)
Wet Lapse Rate
c)
Windward Side
d)
Wild Side
130.

Which wind system is closest to the equator?

a)

Doldrums

b)

Westerlies

c)

Polar easterlies

d)

Trade winds

131.

Why does the Earth have seasons?

a)

Tilt of the Earth on its axis

b)

Earth's shape

c)

Earth's rotation around the Sun

d)

Earth's rotation on its own axis

132.

Which month has the highest precipitation?

a)

July

b)

August

c)

September

d)

June

133.

This phenomenon occurs when a coastal mountain range blocks the passage of precipitation to the leeward side of the mountains.

a)

thermal inversion.

b)

Coriolis effect.

c)

rain shadow effect.

d)

urban heat island effect.

e)

ENSO.

134.
The Gulf stream carries _____________ water from the east coast of The United States to the West coast of Europe.
a)
Cold
b)
Warm 
c)
Freezing
d)
Fresh
135.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
136.
Two types of water currents are
a)
local and global
b)
sea and land
c)
surface and deep
d)
warm and cold
137.
The sun's rays are least direct
a)
near the poles
b)
near the equator
c)
at high altitudes
d)
far from the ocean
138.
The two main agents of erosion are...
a)
wind and flowing water
b)
gravity and frost wedging
c)
oxygen and water
d)
carbon dioxiede and wind
139.
An example of several minerals that are formed in long, thin fibers
a)
Smog
b)
Asbestos
c)
Radon
d)
VOCs
140.
Radon gas is most harmful to which part of the body?
a)
Eyes
b)
Lungs
c)
Heart
d)
Kidneys
141.
CO can cause people to become drowsy and suffocate  when it binds to...
a)
hemoglobin.
b)
white blood cells.
c)
alveolar receptors.
d)
retinal glial cells.
142.
VOC used in the manufacturing of furniture and building materials
a)
Formaldehyde
b)
Kerosene
c)
Carbon Monoxide
d)
Radon
143.
The primary source of radon is
a)
electronics
b)
indoor fires
c)
rocks and soils
d)
household chemical fumes
144.

Which of these problems could happen if we don't look after the resources we have?

a)

Loss of animal homes

b)

Climate change

c)

Increase in pollution

d)

All of the above

145.
The variety of life in the world, a habitat, or an ecosystem
a)
biodiversity
b)
ecosystem
c)
mutations
d)
diversity
146.

Which is NOT a way to decrease your ecological footprint?

a)

Eating less meat and processed foods

b)

Walking or biking to school

c)

Carpool to work

d)

Driving a Hummer (SUV) around for fun

147.

What are considered "the commons"

a)

Common house hold items like knifes, spoons, and forks.

b)

A renewable resource owned by no one and available for use by anyone at little or no charge

c)

A field where college students can sit outside in between classes

148.

An underground layer of permeable rock or sand that collects, holds, and conducts water is a(n)...

a)

Lake

b)

Pond

c)

Aquifer

d)

River

149.

An oyster filters water, provides habitat to many organisms and serves as food to humans. This is the oyster's...

a)

habitat

b)

niche

c)

learned behavior

d)

social behavior

150.

What device reduces SO2 emissions in power plants?

a)

scrubber units

b)

electrostatic precipitators

c)

catalytic converters

d)

afterburners

151.

At what population was carrying capacity met?

a)

250

b)

1000

c)

400

d)

720

152.

Exponential population growth can be described as

a)

growth when resources are limited

b)

a j-shaped curve

c)

a s-shaped curve

d)

growth that reaches carrying capacity

153.

Logistic population growth can be described as

a)

growth when resources are limited

b)

a s-shaped curve

c)

reaching carrying capacity

d)

all of the above

154.

What limits Population Growth?

a)

birth rates increasing

b)

resources being used up

c)

natural selection taking place

d)

none of the above

155.

Which country will have the most rapid population growth?

a)

Sweeden

b)

United States

c)

Mexico

d)

None

156.

What is a condition that halts population growth?

a)

limiting factors

b)

renewable resources

c)

climate

d)

conservation

157.

What is a population ?

a)

Disturbance has removed vegetation but left soil intact.

b)

The natural birth, growth and development of ecosystem.

c)

All organisms of a species that live in the same area.

d)

A community of interacting organisms and their environment.

158.

occurs when population slows or stops following a period of exponential growth.

a)

no growth

b)

population growth

c)

logistic growth

d)

exponential growth

159.

Exponential Growth occurs when-

a)

populations have plenty of food/space

b)

home to keystone species

c)

have few evasive species in a habitat

d)

have little to no competition or predators

160.

Three factors can affect population size

a)

births, deaths,leaves or enters population

b)

deaths, birth, buildings

c)

photosynthesis, weather, deaths

d)

houses, weather, heath

161.

What type of growth is shown in the diagram?

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

c)

predator-prey cycle

d)

boom-bust curve

162.

Largest number of individuals of a population that the environment can support...

a)

carrying capacity

b)

population

c)

biome

d)

mutualism

163.

Will competition increase or decrease the population of a species of animals?

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

164.

Limiting factors are sometimes helpful because they can keep the population from getting to large.

a)

True

b)

False

165.

A mouse with a short life span, produces more offspring than can survive, and gives little or no parental care is a

a)

R-selected species

b)

K-selected species

166.

An elephant that has only 1 offspring at a time, has a long life span, and provides parental care throughout maturity is a

a)

K- selected species

b)

R-selected species

167.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is high survival throughout most of the life span, but then individuals start to die in large numbers as they approach old age.

a)

Type i survivorship

b)

Type ii survivorship

c)

Type iii survivorship

168.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is a relatively constant decline in survivorship throughout most of the life span.

a)

Type ii survivorship

b)

Type i survivorship

c)

Type iii survivorship

169.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is low survivorship early in life with few individuals reaching adulthood.

a)

Type III survivorship

b)

Type II survivorship

c)

Type I survivorship

170.

Population growth rate is figured out by

a)

Births-deaths

b)

Birth + deaths

171.

These organisms have:

Long life span

Long period of gestation-pregnancy

Long term care of babies until maturity

Have few babies

a)

K-strategist

b)

R-strategist

c)

H-strategist

172.

Organisms adapted to narrow habitats, limited food resources, or other specific environmental conditions.

a)

Specialist

b)

Generalist

173.

These organisms have:

Short life span

Short gestation-pregnancy

Very little care for babies

Produce more offspring that can survive

a)

R-strategist

b)

K-strategist

c)

H-strategist

174.

What happens if a population grows past its carrying capacity?

a)

The population keeps growing

b)

The population starts to die off

c)

The entire species will go extinct

d)

The carrying capacity just increases

175.

This may cause a population to increase

a)

increase of food supply

b)

removal of predators

c)

removal of disease

d)

all of these

176.

Something that regulates the size of a population is called...

a)

a limiting measure

b)

a limiting factor

c)

carrying capacity

d)

biodiversity

177.

What are factors that affect carrying capacity?

a)

Biotic only

b)

Biotic and abiotic

c)

Depends on the ecosystem

d)

Abiotic only

178.

A scientist was studying a population of fish in a pond over a period of 10 years. He observed that the population increased each year for 3 years, and then remained nearly constant for the rest of the study. The best explanation for this observation is that the population had

a)

stopped reproducing

b)

reached carrying capacity

c)

mutated into a different species

d)

run out of food and all died

179.

If the carrying capacity of a predator decreases, what will happen to the carrying capacity of the prey?

a)

Will Increase

b)

Will Decrease

c)

Will stay the same

180.

What is interdependent relationship?

a)

A condition that occurs when two or more organisms compete for the same resources within an ecological community

b)

All the biotic and abiotic factors and the interactions among them in a given area

c)

The maximum number of organisms an ecosystem can support

d)

A relationship in which two organisms are mutually dependent on each other for survival

181.

Tracks organisms that tend to live long lives (low death rate and high survivorship rate); toward the end of their life expectancies, however, there is a dramatic increase in the death rate.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

182.

Describes organisms with a high death rate (or low survivorship rate) immediately following birth. Examples include bacteria, fishes, and invertebrates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

183.

These organisms occupy stable environments, are larger in size and have longer life expectancies. They produce, during their life spans, fewer offspring, but place a greater investment in each.

a)

k-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

184.

These organisms typically live in unstable, unpredictable environments & are able to reproduce rapidly (exponentially). They do not take care of their young & are subject to predation.

a)

k-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

185.

Click density independent factor(s).

a)

competition for resources

b)

predator-prey relationships

c)

parasitism and disease

d)

weather, natural disaster and man made disturbances

186.

Click density dependent factor(s).

a)

competition for resources

b)

predator-prey relationships

c)

parasitism and disease

d)

weather

187.

At what hour did the bacterial population carrying capacity?

a)

1-7 hours

b)

8-14 hours

c)

14-17 hours

d)

18 hours - 24 hours

188.
Subduction zones occur on Earth where dense oceanic crust dives under more buoyant continental crust. These boundaries are characterized by a deep ocean trench next to a high continental mountain range, large numbers of earthquakes and volcanoes. All of this is further evidence for the
a)
big bang theory.
b)
theory of plate tectonics.
c)
origin of the species.
d)
theory of natural selection.
189.
There are three types of plate boundaries. Which choice is NOT a type of plate boundary?
a)
convergent
b)
thrust
c)
divergent
d)
transform
190.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

191.
What geological forces might be responsible for this range of mountains?
a)
diverging tectonic plates
b)
erosion of the land by the ocean
c)
converging tectonic plates
d)
deposition of sediments by the ocean
192.

The map in the picture shows tectonic plate boundaries. This map would be useful in predicting the location of future

a)

droughts

b)

hurricanes

c)

earthquakes

d)

tornadoes

193.

Earthquake epicenters (center of where the earthquakes started) were mapped for a 35 year period in the diagram above. The black dots indicate these epicenters. The black dots appear along what feature on Earth?

a)

hot spots

b)

plate boundaries

c)

rift zones

d)

sea floor spreading

194.
Geologists have long recognized that earthquakes are not randomly distributed on Earth but occur in concentrated areas that coincide with __________ and provide evidence for the theory of ___________ .
a)
mountain ranges; fault zones.
b)
continental borders; supercontinents.
c)
plate boundaries; plate tectonics
d)
areas of liquid magma; sea floor spreading.
195.
The image shows the Pacific Ring of Fire, a region of high tectonic activity. What evidence supports the theory that the tectonic activity of the region is due to the subduction of tectonic plates?
a)
The region is bound by many oceanic trenches.
b)
North America seems to be colliding with Asia at the north of the ring.
c)
The Asia-Pacific region is dotted by many small and large islands
d)
The landmasses look like they would fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle.
196.
The Atlantic Ocean gets about 3-5 ______ wider each year.
a)
centimeters
b)
kilometers
c)
miles
d)
meters
197.

What is the source of energy that drives plate movement?

a)

the subducton of the sea floor

b)

the different densities of the oceanic and crustal plates

c)

convection currents in the asthenosphere

d)

the friction force between the plates that move past each other

198.

Which layer of soil are these roots growing in?

a)

subsoil

b)

topsoil

199.

Which layer is the bottom of the soil profile?

a)

Partially Weathered Parent Material

b)

Separated rock

c)

Bedrock

d)

Topsoil

200.

What is the layer of soil that contains the roots of the big trees?

a)

Organic

b)

Topsoil

c)

Subsoil

d)

Bedrock

201.

Layers of soil are also known as?

a)

Soil Profiles

b)

Soil Horizons

c)

Soil sheets

d)

Soil cores

202.

In which layer of the soil profile contains the MOST humus?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

203.

In which layer of the soil profile contains a solid layer of rock?

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

204.

Soil is made of?

a)

weathered rocks and minerals

b)

dead plants and animals

c)

air and water

d)

all of the above

205.

The first layer of soil, called the A horizon is also known as?

a)

Bedrock

b)

Parent Material

c)

Topsoil

d)

Subsoil

206.

Which type of soil drains the slowest?

a)

silt

b)

clay

c)

sand

d)

loam

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