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BOT Final Exam Review

Total questions: 210

Worksheet time: 11hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A solution is formed when:

a)

a substance called the solvent is dissolved in a another substance called the solute

b)

a substance called the solute is dissolved in another substance called the solvent

c)

a substance like metal shavings are mixed in a liquid known as the solute

d)

a substance like metal shavings are mixed in a liquid known as the solvent

2.

A solution that can accept more solute is said to be:

a)

saturated

b)

unsaturated

c)

supersaturated

d)

subcooled

3.

For a solution to conduct electricity, it must _______________.

a)

have a high pH

b)

contain an impurity

c)

contain ions

d)

have a low pH

4.

Nitrogen is hazardous because it is _____________.

a)

toxic

b)

invisible

c)

an asphyxiant

d)

chemically reactive

5.

Comparing two solutions with pH's of 2 and 4; these solutions are __________ and the solution with apH of 4 __________ than the solution with a pH of 2.

a)

acidic; less acidic

b)

acidic; more acidic

c)

basic; less basic

d)

basic; more basic

6.

When diluting acids you should always add the _________ to the __________ to prevent uncontrolled chemical reactions.

a)

base; acid

b)

acid; base

c)

acid; water

d)

water: acid

7.

A base is defined as a substance that yields __________ ions when dissolved in water and has a pH_________ than 7.

a)

hydrogen; less

b)

hydrogen; greater

c)

hydroxide; less

d)

hydroxide; greater

8.

CO2 is used for __________

a)

cooling the main electrical generator

b)

corrosion prevention of drained equipment

c)

scavenging oxygen in the reactor coolant system

d)

fire protection

9.

__________ is a measure of a material's ability to conduct an electrical current.

a)

pH

b)

Conductivity

c)

Turbidity

d)

Resistivity

10.

The concentration of a solution may be defined as the amount of __________ per unit volume of__________.

a)

solution; solute

b)

solvent; solute

c)

solute; solution

d)

solute; solvent

11.

Strainers remove __________, ion exchangers remove __________, and filters remove __________from the process stream.

a)

micron size particles, grit or large particles, dissolved ions

b)

grit or large particles, micron size particles, dissolved ions

c)

dissolved ions, micron size partilces, grit or large particles

d)

grit or large particles, dissolved ions, micron size particles

12.

Unwanted ions that have been removed can be released from the demineralizer if the __________ of the liquid flowing through the demineralizer becomes too high.

a)

pressure

b)

temperature

c)

pH

d)

conductivity

13.

Which one of the following does not have to be removed from service for cleaning?

a)

"Y" Type Strainer

b)

Duplex Strainer

c)

Disposable Cartridge Filter

d)

Disposable Bag Filter

14.

When the delta P (differential pressure) becomes excessive, __________ are replaced while__________ are cleaned.

a)

filters; strainers

b)

strainers; demineralizers

c)

strainers; filters

d)

evaporators; strainers

15.

Mesh size is used when describing __________ and micron ratings are used when describing__________.

a)

filters; strainers

b)

demineralizers; strainers

c)

strainers; filters

d)

filters; demineralizers

16.

Why is radiation dose a concern when processing contaminated water through a demineralizer?

a)

Demineralizers tend to concentrate radioactive material.

b)

Demineralizers tend to reduce the shielding ability of the coolant causing an increase in radiationdose.

c)

Demineralizers tend to generate a EMF causing SRDs to give erroneous results.

d)

Demineralizers tend to create radioactive material during the ion exchange process.

17.

The number of active ion exchange sites available per unit volume of ion exchange resin is known as the__________

a)

Breakthrough

b)

Affinity

c)

Capacity

d)

Leakage

18.

__________ is the process that removes undesirable ions that were removed from the process water during a service run by the resin and replaces them with desirable ions.

a)

Exhaustion

b)

Refreshment

c)

Cation exchange

d)

Regeneration

19.

A/An __________ demineralizer is one that has the same concentration of a specific ion on the influent and effluent.

a)

full

b)

saturated

c)

supersaturated

d)

tired

20.

Organic and iron fouling in a demineralizer __________.

a)

will result in resin throw

b)

reduces the capacity of the resin by coating the beads

c)

does not affect the ability of the resin to remove ions from the water being processed

d)

improves the decontamination factor of the demineralizer

21.

The area where hydrogen gas is produced is the __________.

a)

anode

b)

cathode

c)

hematite

d)

magnetite

22.

Formation of a uniform layer of metal oxide on the surface of a metal that reduces the base metal thickness at a predictable rate is called __________.

a)

hematite formation

b)

magnetite formation

c)

general corrosion

d)

local corrosion

23.

Local corrosion is of concern because of __________.

a)

it can result in rapid buy predictable failure

b)

it can result in rapid and unpredictable failure

c)

it cannot be controlled or prevented

d)

it is very costly to prevent

24.

General corrosion is accelerated by __________.

a)

lowering the temperature of the fluid

b)

lowering the O2 concentration of the fluid

c)

raising the temperature of the fluid

d)

raising the pH of the fluid to 10.3

25.

__________ forms a very tenacious, protective layer on the surface of steel or iron.

a)

Hematite

b)

Stalactite

c)

Magnetite

d)

Hitite

26.

__________ is also know a red iron oxide.

a)

Hematite

b)

Magnetite

c)

Cathite

d)

Ammonite

27.

The use of corrosion inhibitors, like Potassium Chromate, is a form of __________ to minimize corrosion.

a)

alloying

b)

barrier protection

c)

chemistry control

d)

cathodic protection

28.

Refining a metal results in the metal being in a/an __________ state, making it susceptible to corrosion.

a)

excited, stable

b)

ground, stable

c)

ground, unstable

d)

excited, unstable

29.

Which of the following will reduce general corrosion rates?

a)

Increasing temperature

b)

reducing the pH below 7.0

c)

Reducing the flow rate

d)

Increasing the dissolved oxygen in the water

30.

What is not a basic condition required to promote corrosion?

a)

A tensile stress

b)

A potential difference

c)

An electrolytic solution

d)

A metal

31.

Which of the following lists chemicals added to the reactor coolant system of a PWR?

a)

Hydrazine, hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide, ammonia

b)

lithium hydroxide, hydrogen, hydrazine, amines

c)

lithium hydroxide, boric acid, hydrazine, hydrogen

d)

carbohydrazide, lithium hydroxide, boric acid, hydrogen

32.

Which of the following lists chemicals added to the secondary system for chemistry control?

a)

Amines, hydrogen, hydrazine, carbohydrazide

b)

Hydrogen, amines, hydrazine

c)

Boric acid, ammonia, hydrazine, carbohydrazide

d)

Amines, hydrazine, carbohydrazide

33.

Hydrazine is used in the primary and secondary systems to __________.

a)

control pH

b)

control dissolved oxygen

c)

prevent flow accelerated corrosion (FAC)

d)

control reactivity

34.

Boric acid is used to __________.

a)

control pH

b)

control dissolved oxygen

c)

control reactivity

d)

control corrosion

35.

The chemicals present in the secondary system that control pH are:

a)

lithium and amines

b)

hydrogen and amines

c)

hydrazine and hydrogen

d)

amines and ammonium hydroxide

36.

Flow accelerated corrosion is controlled in part by the addition of __________ to the condensate system.

a)

lithium hydroxide

b)

hydrazine

c)

hydrogen

d)

organic amines

37.

The secondary chemistry control program primarily aimed at __________.

a)

protection the core from damage

b)

protecting the steam generators from corrosion damage

c)

minimizing corrosion product transport in the reactor coolant

d)

preventing pipe failures from SCC, PWSCC, IGA, and IGSCC

38.

__________ and __________ are the primary sources of impurities in the secondary system water.

a)

Steam generator tube leaks; makeup water

b)

Condenser air in­leakage; makeup water

c)

Makeup water; cooling water ingress

d)

Steam generator tube leakage; cooling water ingress

39.

Which type of piping is corrosion resistant and used when the production of corrosion products is a concern, as in systems that may come in contact with the reactor?

a)

Plastic

b)

Copper Alloys

c)

Stainless Steel

d)

Low-Carbon Steel

40.

Which of the following valve types is best suited for throttling?

a)

Gate

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Safety

d)

Ball

41.

Which of the following valve types provides very fine throttling characteristics?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Kerotest

c)

Globe

d)

Needle

42.

Throttling a gate valve can result in __________.

a)

excessive internal wear

b)

a precise control of flow rate

c)

flange leakage

d)

packing leakage

43.

Relief valves exhibit __________ but not __________.

a)

accumulation; blowdown

b)

leakage; blowdown

c)

blowdown; accumulation

d)

leakage; accumulation

44.

In comparison to a globe valve, a gate valve has a __________ pressure drop when fully open and is the __________ choice for throttling.

a)

higher; better

b)

lower; better

c)

higher; poorer

d)

lower; poorer

45.

A pneumatic operator uses __________.

a)

compressed gas to move the valve stem

b)

an electric motor to rotate the valve stem

c)

hydraulic fluid to move the valve stem

d)

a vacuum to move the valve stem

46.

A __________ valve is used to control the direction of flow in a system.

a)

gate

b)

globe

c)

needle

d)

check

47.

Which of the following is used to connect equipment and transport fluids?

a)

Pump

b)

Valve

c)

Pipe

d)

Busbar

48.

Which one of the following describes the function of a safety valve?

a)

Provide overpressure protection to limit the internal pressure in vessels.

b)

Control pressure in a system to maintain optimum operational conditions.

c)

Sound a warning by lifting at a predetermined value slightly higher than operating pressure.

d)

Modulate open as necessary to maintain system pressure and/or temperature within normallimits.

49.

Heat addition that results in a change in temperature is called ______________.

a)

latent heat of vaporization

b)

sensible heat

c)

wasted heat

d)

isothermal heat addition

50.

The number of degrees a liquid is below its boiling point is called _____________.

a)

subcooling factor

b)

degrees of superheat

c)

degrees of subcooling

d)

degrees of saturation

51.

A fluid that contains both liquid and vapor is called a __________________.

a)

saturated liquid

b)

saturated vapor

c)

wet vapor

d)

superheated vapor

52.

A vapor 5 degrees above its boiling point is a _______________.

a)

subcooled liquid

b)

subcooled vapor

c)

superheated liquid

d)

superheated vapor

53.

The mass of liquid divided by the mass of the mixture is the __________________.

a)

void fraction

b)

moisture content

c)

steam quality

d)

steam content

54.

Which of the following will increase plant efficiency?

a)

Steam quality changes from 99.9% to 99.6%

b)

A feedwater heater is isolated and drained

c)

Condenser pressure goes from 1 psia to 1.5 psia

d)

Condensate depression is reduced by 2oF

55.

Using feedwater heaters _________ plant efficiency because ____________.

a)

reduces; less steam flow goes to the turbine

b)

reduces; heat rejection increases for the heat supplied

c)

increases; temperature of the feedwater entering the steam generators is higher

d)

increases; feed pumps require less power to pump warmer water

56.

The primary reason for using moisture separator reheaters is to:

a)

superheat steam supplied to the LP turbine and improve efficiency

b)

reduce moisture impingement concerns in the last stages of the LP turbine

c)

provide a use for the steam exttracted from the HP turbine instead of condensing

d)

improve efficiency by increasing steam quality supplied to the LP turbine

57.

An air in-­leakage path to the condenser develops. Compared to conditions with no air in-­leakage, plant efficiency is now _____________.

a)

higher because condensate depression is reduced

b)

higher because less heat rejection will take place

c)

lower because more energy is removed from main steam by the turbine

d)

lower because main condenser pressure is higher

58.

Thermodynamic efficiency is calculated as _____________.

a)

heat added ÷ heat rejected

b)

net work ÷ heat added

c)

heat rejected ÷ net work

d)

heat rejected ÷ heat added

59.

Two methods of improving plant efficiency are ___________ and ___________.

a)

less condensate depression; higher steam pressure

b)

less feedwater heating; higher steam quality

c)

more condensate depression; lower steam pressure

d)

more feedwater heating; lower steam quality

60.

An increase in condenser vacuum results in ___________ turbine work and ____________ plant efficiency.

a)

more; lower

b)

more; greater

c)

less; lower

d)

less; greater

61.

Plant efficiency is reduced by ____________.

a)

fixing steam leaks

b)

running all hotwell pumps at all times

c)

fixing air leaks into the condenser

d)

operating with air ejector condensers in service

62.

__________ is used in both the primary and secondary system to savenge oxygen, __________ and__________ are primarily responsible for controlling the pH of the condensate system.

a)

hydrogen; hydrazine; ammonia

b)

hydrazine; ammonia; organic amines

c)

hydrazine; hydrogen; organic amines

d)

hydrazine; hydrogen; ammonia

63.

Failure to control secondary chemistry is most likely to result in __________.

a)

steam generator damage

b)

high dose rates in the aux building

c)

fuel failures

d)

high inventories of crud

64.

A nuclear power plant is operating at 80% of rated power with 5 degrees of condensate depression inthe main condenser. If the condensate depression decreases to 2 degrees, steam cycle efficiency will__________ and the probability of condensate pump cavitation will __________.

a)

decrease; decrease

b)

decrease; increase

c)

increase; decrease

d)

increase; increase

65.

A __________ valve exhibits significant accumulation and a __________ valve exhibits blowdown.

a)

safety; safety

b)

relief; relief

c)

safety; relief

d)

relief; safety

66.

A __________ is used to prevent leakage when the __________ needs replacement.

a)

valve backseat; packing

b)

valve backseat; valve sea

c)

valve seat; valve backseat

d)

valve seat; packing

67.

A __________ can be used for throttling while a __________ should not be used for throttling

a)

check valve; globe valve

b)

plug vlave; needle valve

c)

butterfly valve; gate valve

d)

ball valve; diaphragm valve

68.

A bourdon tube pressure detector is located inside containment. Which of the following will have the most significant immediate effect on the accuracy of indicated pressure from the detector?

a)

Containment temperature increases by 50°F

b)

Radiation level in the vicinity of the detector goes to 40 R/hr

c)

Containment pressure increases by 40 psig

d)

Containment hydrogen concentration increases to 2%

69.

In flow measurement circuits, a square root extractor is used to convert _______ to ________ .

a)

mass flow rate; volumetric flow rate

b)

volumetric flow rate; mass flow rate

c)

differential pressure; volumetric flow rate

d)

volumetric flow rate; differential pressure

70.

A level detection system uses a wet reference leg to supply a signal to a D/P cell. If the equalizing valve for the D/P cell is opened, level indication wil

a)

decrease and stabilize below actual level

b)

increase and stabilize above actual level

c)

remain at the current level

d)

fail to the minimum indicated level

71.

There are three separate circuits measuring temperature in a system. All use the same type of RTD assensors and the same type of circuitry for indication. Two of the indications show that temperature is480°F and the third shows a temperature of 450°F. The most likely cause for this is __________.

a)

the reference junctions for the circuits that indicate 480°F are overheated

b)

there is a short circuit in the RTD for the indicator reading 450°F

c)

the RTD for the indicator reading 450°F is opened and the two dissimilar metals are no longer incontact

d)

there is an open circuit in the Wheatstone bridge circuit for the indicaion showing 450°F

72.

A temperature measuring circuit using a thermocouple relies on the principle that ________ .

a)

the resistance of the thermocouple element changes linearly as temperature changes

b)

the expansion between the two dissimilar metals of the thermocouple creates a voltage

c)

voltage produced by the junctions of two dissimilar metals is proportional to the temperature ofthe junction

d)

expansion of a trapped column of fluid is proportional to the temperature of the fluid'ssurroundings

73.

Compared to thermocouples, resistance temperature detectors are:

a)

More accurate and less expensive.

b)

More accurate but more expensive.

c)

More complex to install but easier to calibrate.

d)

Less complex to install and easier to calibrate.

74.

Which type of pressure detector senses pressure by the axial deflection of a metallic plate?

a)

Boudon tube detector

b)

Variable capacitance

c)

Diaphragm detector

d)

Forced balance detector

75.

Tank level is being monitored by two differential pressure detectors. Detector 1 was calibrated at 180°F and detector 2 was calibrated at 90°F. Current liquid temperature in the tank is 150°F.Given these conditions, __________.

a)

detector 1 indicates higher level than detector 2

b)

detector 2 indicates higher level than detector 1

c)

detector 1 and detector 2 indicate the same level

d)

you cannot determine which detector reads higher

76.

The part of a centrifugal pump that prevents high pressure discharge water from leaking to the low pressure suction side of the pump is the _______________.

a)

shaft seal

b)

packing

c)

gaskets

d)

seal rings

77.

The absolute pressure at the suction of a pump minus the vapor pressure of the fluid is____________.

a)

the NPSHAvailable

b)

the NPSHRequired

c)

the saturation pressure of the fluid

d)

the gauge pressure of the fluid

78.

A pump is started and fails to build discharge pressure. Motor current is below normal operating current. Which of the following conditions is indicated?

a)

cavitation

b)

gas binding

c)

runout

d)

deadheading

79.

Impeller damage and pump vibration are common results of ____________.

a)

cavitation

b)

gas binding

c)

runout

d)

deadheading

80.

Which of the following conditions is indicated by overheating of the pump and high discharge pressure?

a)

cavitation

b)

gas binding

c)

runout

d)

deadheading

81.

Operating a pump with the maximum flowrate and lowest discharge head is called ___________.

a)

deadheading

b)

shutoff head

c)

gas binding

d)

runout

82.

Which of the following would reduce the likelihood of cavitation?

a)

Increase suction temperature

b)

Decrease suction piping diameter

c)

Increase suction lift

d)

Decrease flowrate

83.

The conversion of kinetic energy to Pv energy occurs in what part of the pump?

a)

the impeller eye

b)

the discharge pipe

c)

the volute

d)

the suction pipe

84.

Why should you always start a PD pump with the discharge valve open?

a)

to avoid pump runout

b)

to minimize starting current

c)

to prevent possible pump damage

d)

you should always start all pumps with the discharge valve open

85.

The most common method for varying flow in most systems with centrifugal pumps is by____________.

a)

varying pump speed

b)

varying the number of pumps in operation

c)

varying pump suction pressure

d)

varying system head loss with a valve

86.

The reduction in flow that occurs near the shutoff head of a positive displacement pump is referred to as _________ and is the result of_________________.

a)

slip; insufficient NPSHAvailable

b)

slip; fluid leakage past internal seals

c)

runout; operating the pump at low RPM

d)

runout; excessive NPSH​Available

87.

A centrifugal pump is started and the following indications are observed:

Oscillating flow

Oscillating discharge pressure

Oscillating amps

This indicates that the pump is experiencing ____________.

a)

excessive thrust

b)

cavitation

c)

runout

d)

wear ring failure

88.

A counter flow heat exchanger is more efficient because ___________________.

a)

the average temperature of the cold system is higher than the average temperature of the hot system

b)

the average temperature difference between the two systems is relatively constant

c)

fouling is less likely to occur in a counter flow heat exchanger

d)

the inlet to the cold system is located next to the outlet of the hot system

89.

In a ___________ heat exchanger the hot fluid mixes with the cold fluid.

a)

cross flow

b)

parallel flow

c)

indirect contact

d)

direct contact

90.

In a ____________ heat exchanger, different fluids are on the tube side and shell side of the heat exchanger.

a)

regenerative

b)

non regenerative

c)

direct contact

d)

baffled

91.

The inlet tube side flow in a U-­tube heat exchanger is separated from the outlet tube side flow by the use of a __________.

a)

baffle

b)

channel head

c)

divider plate

d)

tubesheet

92.

The __________ forms a casing around the region where heat transfer occurs.

a)

nozzle

b)

shell

c)

tubes

d)

waterbox

93.

Thermal shock occurs when the __________ of the fluid in a system __________ increases or decreases causing a differential expansion or contraction of the metal.

a)

flowrate; suddenly

b)

pressure; gradually

c)

temperature; suddenly

d)

density; gradually

94.

lbm/hr are the units used for ___________________.

a)

volumetric flowrate

b)

mass flowrate

c)

steady flow

d)

total flow

95.

The property of a fluid that measures its resistance to flow is called ______________.

a)

viscosity

b)

density

c)

specific gravity

d)

weight density

96.

___________ flow exhibits s parabolic velocity profile and ___________ flow exhibits a relatively flat velocity profile.

a)

single phase; two phase

b)

two phase; single phase

c)

turbulent; laminar

d)

laminar; turbulent

97.

Energy expressed in feet is commonly called ____________.

a)

velocity

b)

static electricity

c)

kinetic energy

d)

head

98.

The loss of pressure due to fluid friction is called __________ and can be reduced by increasing____________.

a)

head loss; velocity

b)

head loss; pipe diameter

c)

frictional loss; pump size

d)

frictional loss; velocity

99.

In a piping system, head loss undergoes a __________ change for a given change in velocity.

a)

directly proportional

b)

inversely proportional

c)

square

d)

linear

100.

A pressure surge that develops in a piping system as a result of suddenly changing flow is categorized as______________.

a)

two phase flow

b)

brittle fracture

c)

water hammer

d)

pressurized thermal shock

101.

When water hammer occurs in a piping system, __________ is being converted into ___________ .

a)

pressure­volume energy; kinetic energy

b)

kinetic energy; pressure­volume energy

c)

potential energy; work

d)

work; potential energy

102.

Mass flow rate is equal to volumetric flow rate multiplied by:

a)

Specific volume.

b)

Specific gravity

c)

Area.

d)

Density.

103.

During a loss of coolant accident, which one of the following heat transfer mechanisms provides the most core cooling when fuel elements are not in contact with the coolant?

a)

Radiation

b)

Emission

c)

Convection

d)

Conduction

104.

Heat is transferred from the fuel into the cladding by ______________.

a)

convection through the helium gas in the gap between the fuel and cladding

b)

conduction through the helium gas in the gap between the fuel and the cladding

c)

convection through the nitrogen gas in the gap between the fuel and the cladding

d)

conduction through the nitrogen gas in the gap between the fuel and the cladding

105.

A plant is operating at 60% power. Which one of the following is the primary heat transfer mechanism responsible for the transfer of heat from the surface of the steam generator tubes to the feedwater?

a)

Radiolysis

b)

Radiation

c)

Conduction

d)

Convection

106.

Radiation heat transfer from the fuel is not an acceptable means of cooling the fuel because_____________.

a)

the large delta T required causes excessive coolant temperature

b)

the large delta T required causes excessive fuel temperature

c)

the low coolant flow rate causes excessive coolant temperature

d)

the low coolant flow rate causes excessive fuel temperature

107.

__________ can be defined as the measure of heat input per unit time from the core to the reactor coolant system.

a)

Total core power

b)

Percent reactor power

c)

Conduction thermal power

d)

Core thermal power

108.

To increase the rate of conduction heat transfer, you should __________ the temperature difference or __________ the thickness of the material.

a)

decrease; increase

b)

increase; decrease

c)

increase; increase

d)

decrease; decrease

109.

The difference between the set point in an automatic controller and the steady state value of the measured parameter is called:

a)

Feedback.

b)

Gain

c)

Deadband.

d)

Offset.

110.

In an automatic flow controller, the range of values around the set point of a measured variable where no action occurs is called:

a)

Deadband.

b)

Error.

c)

Deviation

d)

Offset.

111.

An automatic flow controller is being used to position a valve in a cooling water system. A signal from the valve proportional to valve position is returned to the controller. This signal is referred to as:

a)

Gain.

b)

Bias.

c)

Feedback.

d)

Error.

112.

The level in a tank is controlled by an automatic level controller. Level is initially at the setpoint when a drain valve opens. When level decreases to 5% below the setpoint the level controller opens a makeup supply valve. After a few minutes level is 5% above the setpoint and the makeup valve closes. With the drain valve still open, level continues to oscillate 5% above and below the setpoint. The controller in this system uses primarily __________ control.

a)

integral

b)

two position

c)

derivative

d)

proportional

113.

A valve controller is designed to ensure that the valve goes fully closed when a signal is received to initiate valve movement to close the valve. What feature of the controller is designed to make this happen?

a)

A seal-­in feature in the controller.

b)

Proportional action in the controller.

c)

Position feedback to the controller.

d)

Integral action in the controller.

114.

In order to position a large valve to control steam flow to a turbine, a device called a ______ is used between the controller for the valve and the valve operator.

a)

signal amplifier

b)

signal conditioner

c)

valve positioner

d)

valve amplifier

115.

Rotor bowing in the main turbine is prevented by using __________.

a)

a turning gear

b)

gland sealing

c)

labyrinth seals

d)

a thrust bearing

116.

The __________ is/are used to absorb and limit axial movement of the turbine shaft.

a)

exhaust hood

b)

journal bearings

c)

oil system

d)

thrust bearing

117.

The purpose of a steam turbine is to convert __________ energy into __________ energy.

a)

nuclear; mechanical

b)

thermal; electrical

c)

thermal; mechanical

d)

nuclear; electrical

118.

According to the __________ principle of steam turbine operation, stationary nozzles convert some of the steam's thermal energy into kinetic energy, which is then converted into mechanical energy in the form of movement of the turbine wheel and rotor.

a)

nuclear

b)

impulse

c)

reaction

d)

thermal

119.

Which one of the following turbine components is responsible for supporting the bearing for the rotor?

a)

Governor

b)

Rotor

c)

Exhaust hood

d)

Casing

120.

Some symptoms of __________ are noise and excessive vibration.

a)

a reduction in electrical load

b)

a failure of the cooling water system

c)

water impingement

d)

excessive reactor power

121.

In a __________ turbine, the nozzles are attached to the rotor disk and the steam expands in the moving nozzles converting the steam's thermal energy into kinetic energy and producing a force. This force causes rotation in the opposite direction of the steam jet.

a)

compound

b)

gas

c)

simple

d)

reaction

122.

It is better to monitor __________ display during a plant transient because __________.

a)

an analog; it is more accurate than a digital display

b)

an analog; an estimation of the rate of change of the parameter is easier to make

c)

a digital; it is more accurate than an analog display

d)

a digital; an estimation of the rate of change of the parameter is easier to make

123.

A device with 4 inputs that has a "true" output when at least 3 of the 4 inputs are "true" is a/an__________.

a)

AND gate

b)

AND/OR combination gate

c)

1/4 coincidence circuit

d)

3/4 coincidence circuit

124.

_________ interlocks determine the proper sequence of placing equipment into operation by permitting equipment to start only when requirements are met.

a)

Reactive

b)

Permissive

c)

Proactive

d)

Tripping

125.

__________ displays provide very accurate indication of measurements by eliminating the need to interpolate between meter indications.

a)

Analog

b)

High frequency

c)

Digital

d)

Cathode ray tube

126.

__________ is a measure of a fluids ability to resist flow.

a)

Fluid friction

b)

Specific gravity

c)

Viscosity

d)

Density

127.

Which of the following does NOT affect lubrication?

a)

Viscosity of the lubricant.

b)

Supplier of the lubricant.

c)

Temperature of the lubricant.

d)

Impurities in the lubricant.

128.

__________ fittings are used where the retention of the lubricant at the bearing surface would be difficult.

a)

Quick connect

b)

Dragon valve

c)

Vacuum

d)

Zerk

129.

A Circulation Lubrication System ...

a)

Has a pump that takes suction on sump and discharges into the bearing. Used in all types of engines and machines. However, it is primarily used in high speed, high temperature applications.

b)

Is frequently employed where high rotational speeds and enclosed parts are encountered. The lubricated surface is submerged in oil.

c)

Lubricates bearings from a reservoir in the bearing housing by means of rotating rings which ride loosely on the revolving journal.

d)

Is used in enclosed chambers such as crank cases and gear sets. Oil is in a sump and is spread by the action of gear teeth or other moving parts.

130.

Which one of the following is NOT a type of lubricant?

a)

Oil

b)

Grease

c)

Dry

d)

Solid

131.

Sampling oil can reveal:

a)

The need to add oil.

b)

The need to purify the oil.

c)

The deficiencies in the lab.

d)

Any hazards.

132.

__________ friction offers the most resistance to motion.

a)

Fluid

b)

Rolling

c)

Solid

d)

Sliding

133.

One purpose of lubrication is to:

a)

Prevent corrosion in the operating equipment.

b)

Add wear products to the equipment.

c)

Increase the heat of operating equipment.

d)

Agitate the operation of equipment.

134.

The purpose of refrigeration is __________.

a)

ensure the air is clean

b)

ensuring the humidity is kept low to prevent mildew from forming

c)

keep the beer and milk cold

d)

cool spaces, objects, or materials

135.

A refrigeration ton is a measure of __________.

a)

the cumulative weight of the refrigeration cycle components

b)

the weight of the refrigerant inside the refrigeration unit

c)

the amount of heat removal rate of the refrigeration unit

d)

the weight of air that can be lowered by one degree in one hour

136.

If heat is added to a system at saturation conditions, __________ (Assume: System remains at saturation conditions).

a)

only the temperature of the system will increase

b)

only the pressure of the system will increase

c)

both temperature and pressure will increase

d)

neither temperature nor pressure will increase

137.

The amount of heat that must be added or removed from a system to change the phase of the system from liquid to vapor or from vapor to liquid is known as __________ heat.

a)

latent

b)

wasted

c)

excessive

d)

subliminal

138.

In a basic refrigeration cycle, the __________ picks up heat in the __________ where it is converted to a warm vapor.

a)

chill water; condenser

b)

refrigerant; condenser

c)

chill water; evaporator

d)

refrigerant; evaporator

139.

Motor overload, low refrigerant suction pressure, and __________ are common causes of a refrigerant compressor trip.

a)

low evaporator discharge pressure

b)

high oil pressure

c)

high refrigerant discharge pressure

d)

motor underload

140.

A high crankcase oil temperature in a compressor can be caused by __________.

a)

inadequate feedback to the thermal regulator

b)

inadequate amounts of refrigerant in the refrigeration cycle

c)

inadequate heat transfer in the oil condenser

d)

inadequate heat trasfer across the oil cooler

141.

Isolating the air flow through an air handling system is best accomplished by the use of __________blade dampers

a)

pivot

b)

splitter

c)

parallel

d)

opposed

142.

Removing undesirable elements from recirculated air is the purpose of _______________.

a)

silencers

b)

louvers

c)

registers

d)

filters

143.

Which type of fan blade is used for industrial, dust ­laden gas flow?

a)

forward-­curved

b)

straight blade

c)

backward­-curved

d)

variable pitch

144.

_____________ removes gases and vapors from recirculated air.

a)

HEPA filters

b)

fibrous media filters

c)

electronic air cleaners

d)

activated carbon filters

145.

The primary function of ____________ is to keep rain and snow from entering the building.

a)

parallel dampers

b)

opposed dampers

c)

louvers

d)

filters

146.

In a packaged heat pump system operating in the heating mode, the __________ acts as the condenser and the ____________ acts as the evaporator.

a)

outdoor coil; indoor coil

b)

indoor coil; reversing valve

c)

indoor coil; outdoor coil

d)

metering device; outdoor coil

147.

Which one of the following is not a common method of controlling ventilation fan output?

a)

Variable speed control

b)

Louver control

c)

Damper control

d)

Inlet vane control

148.

A detector that is used as a source range nuclear instrument and who's output changes significantly as applied voltage is changed operates in the __________ region of the Gas Filled Detector Characteristic curve.

a)

Ion Chamber

b)

Recombination

c)

Proportional

d)

Geiger­Mueller

149.

Which system provides indications and alarms when general radiation levels in the plant become too high?

a)

Area Monitoring System

b)

Process Monitoring System

c)

Ex­Core Nuclear Instruments

d)

In­Core Nuclear Instruments

150.

A detector is operating in the Geiger­-Mueller region of the Gas-­Filled Detector Characteristic Curve. Its output __________.

a)

depends on the number of primary ions collected

b)

is the same for any ionizing event that takes place

c)

varies with the applied voltage and the number of secondary ions produced

d)

is not useful for radiation detection

151.

Which type of detector is used to monitor the core during operation in the power range?

a)

Proportional Counter

b)

Geiger­Mueller Detector

c)

Ion Chamber Detector

d)

Scintillation Detector

152.

In the __________ region of the Gas=­Filled Detector Characteristic Curve the voltage is not sufficient to collect all of the primary ions formed.

a)

Ion Chamber

b)

Proportional

c)

Recombination

d)

Geiger­Mueller

153.

Which type of radiation detector would be the best to use to determine the presence or absence of radiation?

a)

Ion Chamber Detector

b)

Proportional Counter

c)

Geiger­Mueller Detector

d)

Continuous Discharge Detector

154.

Information regarding the power distribution in the reactor core is obtained from __________.

a)

process monitors

b)

in­-core nuclear detectors

c)

scintillation detectors

d)

Geiger­Mueller survey instruments

155.

Which component in a scintillation radiation detector provides an electrical signal proportional to the light intensity at the component?

a)

phosphor crystal

b)

photocathode

c)

dynode

d)

anode

156.

Which statement describes the ex-­core neutron monitoring system?

a)

Neutron sensitive detectors are moved through selected fuel assemblies to map the neutron distribution in the core.

b)

Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in selected fuel assemblies during fuel loading and are used to monitor the neutron distribution in the core.

c)

Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in wells next to the reactor vessel to detect neutrons escaping from the core.

d)

Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in wells next to the reactor vessel to detect neutrons that do not escape from the core.

157.

Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in wells next to the reactor vessel to detect neutrons that do not escape from the core.

a)

Area Radiation Monitoring System

b)

Process Radiation Monitoring System

c)

In­Core Nuclear Instrumentation System

d)

Ex­Core Nuclear Instrumentation System

158.

During paralleling operations of the main generator to the grid, closing the generator output breaker with the generator voltage slightly lower than grid voltage and with generator frequency slightly higher than grid frequency will result in:

a)

The generator picking up reactive load from the grid.

b)

The generator immediately attaining a leading power factor.

c)

The generator shedding real load to the grid.

d)

Motoring of the generator.

159.

In an AC induction motor, a voltage is applied to the __________, creating a rotating magnetic field, which induces a voltage in the __________.

a)

stator; rotor

b)

rotor; armature

c)

rotor; stator

d)

armature; field

160.

Which one of the following describes the motor current indications that would be observed during the start of a large AC motor­​driven centrifugal pump with a closed discharge valve?

a)

Current immediately increases to the full­load value and then decreases to the no load value over several seconds.

b)

Current immediately increases to the no ­load value and then stabilizes.

c)

Current immediately increases to greater than the full ­load value and then decreases to the no­load value after several seconds.

d)

Current immediately increases to greater than full ­load value and then decreases to the no ­load value after several minutes.

161.

The number of starts for an electric motor in a given period of time should be limited because overheating of the __________ can occur due to the _________ counter electromotive force produced at low rotor speeds.

a)

windings; high

b)

windings; low

c)

commutator and/or slip rings; high

d)

commutator and/or slip rings; low

162.

Closing the output breaker of the main generator with the frequency of the generator 0.1 Hz higher than grid frequency will result in the generator...

a)

assuming a portion of the grid reactive load (MVAR).

b)

assuming a portion of the grid real load (MWe).

c)

behaving as a reactive load to the grid.

d)

behaving as a real load to the grid.

163.

In the main generator, a DC current is applied to the __________ windings located __________.

a)

armature; on the rotor

b)

field; on the rotor

c)

armature; in the stator

d)

field; in the stator

164.

What is the benefit of using a three­phase AC generator instead of a single­phase generator?

a)

The power output of a single-­phase AC generator is √3 times the output of the three-­phase AC generator.

b)

The current output of a three-­phase AC generator is √3 times the output of the single­-phase AC generator.

c)

The power output of a three-­phase AC generator is √3 times the output of the single-­phase AC generator.

d)

The voltage output of a single­phase AC generator is √3 times the output of the three-­phase AC generator.

165.

__________ describes the effect of the magnetic field produced by the current flow in the armature windings in the main generator, which can offset, aid, or oppose the rotor field.

a)

Magnetic induction

b)

Armature losses

c)

Field reaction

d)

Armature reaction

166.

A main generator is connected to the grid. Which one of the following conditions will exist on the generator if it is operating underexcited?

a)

Negative MVARs (VARs in) and a leading power factor

b)

Positive MVARs (VARs out) and a leading power factor

c)

Positive MVARs (VARs out) and a lagging power factor

d)

Negative MVARs (VARs in) and a lagging power factor

167.

With regards to the power triangle, what kind of power in an AC circuit is associated with the expansion and contraction of magnetic and electrostatic fields?

a)

True Power

b)

Power Factor

c)

Reactive Power

d)

Absolute Power

168.

Which one of the following should be performed to completely de­energize a circuit breaker including its control and indication power?

a)

Open the breaker and tag it out.

b)

De­energize the breaker feeder bus.

c)

Tag the control switch and post a watch at the breaker.

d)

Open the breaker, pull the control power fuses, and rack out the breaker.

169.

A molded case circuit breaker has tripped due to overload. In order to close this circuit breaker, the breaker handle must be moved from the.....

a)

OFF position directly to the ON position; trip latch reset is not required.

b)

OFF position to the mid­position to reset the trip latch and then to the ON position.

c)

Mid­position directly to the ON position; trip latch reset is not required.

d)

Mid­position to the OFF position to reset the trip latch and then to the ON position.

170.

When a typical 4160 volt breaker is racked to the "Test" position, control power is __________ the breaker and the breaker is __________ the load.

a)

available to; connected to

b)

available to; isolated from

c)

removed from; connected to

d)

removed from; isolated from

171.

High voltage electrical disconnects are used to ....

a)

adjust the output voltage range from a main power transformer.

b)

protect bus feeder breakers by opening upon bus short­circuit failures.

c)

provide equipment isolation under no­load conditions.

d)

bypass and isolate an electrical bus while maintaining the downstream buses energized.

172.

While remotely investigating the condition of a typical normally-­open motor control center (MCC) feederbreaker, an operator observes the following indications:

Green breaker position indicating light is out.

Red breaker position indicating light is lit.

Alternate MCC feeder breaker green position indicating light is lit.

MCC voltmeter indicates 480 VAC.MCC ammeter indicates zero amperes.

Based on these indications, the operator should report that the feeder breaker is __________ and racked _________.

a)

open; in

b)

closed; in

c)

open; to an unknown position

d)

closed; to an unknown position

173.

A thermal overload device for a large motor protects the motor from...

a)

an over­frequency condition.

b)

instantaneous overcurrent by opening the motor breaker or motor line contacts.

c)

a short circuit in the pump windings.

d)

sustained overcurrent by opening contacts when the sensing element becomes too hot.

174.

A relay scheme that must be reset manually after all other protective relay input signals are reset is:

a)

an overcurrent relay.

b)

a differential relay.

c)

a line relay.

d)

a lockout relay.

175.

A relay that compares the input and output of a transformer is:

a)

an overcurrent relay.

b)

a differential relay.

c)

a line relay.

d)

a lockout relay.

176.

The relationship between a transformer's primary and secondary voltages is determined by the:

a)

size of the bushings.

b)

turns ratio of the transformer.

c)

hysteresis loss ratio.

d)

VA rating of the transformer core.

177.

Which components isolate the transformer's connections from its grounded casing?

a)

Grounding disconnects

b)

Load tap changers

c)

Bushings

d)

Lightning arrestors

178.

When the customer increases load, the increased transformer secondary current flow causes the effect of the primary winding CEMF to be __________, causing __________ generator current to flow.

a)

increased; more

b)

increased; less

c)

decreased; more

d)

decreased; less

179.

Which type of transformer loss comes from dissipating the heat produced by current flow through the transformer windings?

a)

Winding current loss

b)

Eddy current loss

c)

Hysteresis loss

d)

Copper loss

180.

Why are transformer cores often laminated and insulated?

a)

To provide structural strength.

b)

To limit arcing when first energized.

c)

To reduce eddy current losses.

d)

To improve primary to secondary coupling.

181.

Which one of the following is NOT an alarm typically associated with a main distribution transformer?

a)

High Casing Pressure

b)

Low Casing Pressure

c)

High Oil Temperature

d)

Low Oil Temperature

182.

Which type of transformer is used in circuits for voltage measurement and indication?

a)

Potential

b)

Current

c)

Power

d)

Auto

183.

In an electrical transformer, the __________ winding is attached to the power source, while the__________ winding is attached to the load.

a)

power; current

b)

primary; secondary

c)

potential; power

d)

secondary; primary

184.

Fission products that have large microscopic cross sections for absorption of thermal neutrons are called:

a)

breeder fuels.

b)

burnable poisons.

c)

fissionable fuels.

d)

fission product poisons.

185.

Following a reactor shutdown from 100% power, peak samarium will occur ______.

a)

≈ 12 hours later

b)

≈ 12 days later

c)

≈ 48 days later

d)

never

186.

Following a refueling reactor power is returned to 100% power. Equilibrium samarium will be reached in __________.

a)

≈ 24 hours

b)

≈ 48 days

c)

≈ 24 days

d)

≈ 48 hours

187.

Equilibrium samarium at 50% power is _____________ equilibrium value at 100% power.

a)

equal to the

b)

about 1/2 of the

c)

about 1.5 times the

d)

about 2 times the

188.

Following a reactor trip from sustained power operation the Xenon­135 removal process consists primarily of:

a)

beta decay.

b)

gamma decay.

c)

electron capture.

d)

neutron capture.

189.

Following a two week shutdown, a reactor is taken critical and ramped to full power in 6 hours.  How long will it take to achieve an equilibrium xenon condition after the reactor reaches full power?

a)

70 to 80 hours

b)

40 to 50 hours

c)

8 to 10 hours

d)

1 to 2 hours

190.

A reactor trip has occurred following two months of operation at steady state 100% power. How soon after the trip will the reactor be considered xenon­-free?

a)

8 to 10 hours

b)

24 to 30 hours

c)

40 to 50 hours

d)

70 to 80 hours

191.

As reactor coolant boron concentration is reduced the differential boron worth (pcm/ppm) becomes:

a)

Less negative due to the increased number of water molecules in the core.

b)

More negative due to the increased number of water molecules in the core.

c)

Less negative due to the decreased number of boron molecules in the core.

d)

More negative due to the decreased number of boron molecules in the core.

192.

Differential boron worth becomes more negative as:

a)

fuel is depleted.

b)

boron concentration increases.

c)

moderator temperature increases.

d)

fission product poison concentration increases

193.

Differential boron worth becomes __________ as moderator temperature increases because a 1 ppm increase at higher temperature adds __________ boron atoms to the core.

a)

more negative ; fewer

b)

less negative ; fewer

c)

more negative ; more

d)

less negative ; more

194.

Which one of the following has the smallest microscopic cross section for absorption of a thermal neutron in an operating reactor?

a)

Uranium­235

b)

Uranium­238

c)

Samarium­149

d)

Xenon­135

195.

The __________ coefficient is the amount of reactivity added by a unit increase in the dissolved neutron poison concentration.

a)

fuel

b)

moderator temperature

c)

doppler

d)

boron

196.

To compensate for the __________ reactivity added by fuel burnup over core life, the boron concentration must be __________ in the reactor coolant system.

a)

positive; reduced

b)

negative; increased

c)

negative; reduced

d)

positive; increased

197.

Due to the __________ boron concentration at EOL, a significantly __________ amount of water must be removed to cause the same ppm decrease as would be needed at BOL.

a)

higher; larger

b)

lower; larger

c)

lower; smaller

d)

higher; smaller

198.

As core age increases, the differential boron worth becomes more __________ because of __________.

a)

negative; reduced self-­competition

b)

positive; higher fuel temperatures

c)

negative; an increased chemical shim concentration

d)

positive; a buildup of Pu­240

199.

Which one of the following isotopes is the most significant contributor to resonance capture of neutrons in the reactor core at the beginning of core life?

a)

U­233

b)

U­238

c)

Pu­239

d)

Pu­240

200.

Which one of the following will cause the Doppler Coefficient to become more negative?

a)

Decreased moderator temperature

b)

Higher reactor power

c)

Increased fuel burnup

d)

Decreased boron concentration

201.

Which one of the following will directly result in a less negative fuel temperature coefficient? (Consider only the effect of the change in the listed parameters.)

a)

Increase in fuel burnup

b)

Decrease in fuel temperature

c)

Increase in void fraction

d)

Decrease in moderator temperature

202.

For the same power level, as the core ages the fuel temperature coefficient becomes __________ negative because __________.

a)

more; there is less boron in the coolant

b)

more; there is more Pu­240 in the core

c)

less; there is less U­235 in the core

d)

less; average fuel temperature is higher

203.

On a power increase, power defect __________ reactivity.

a)

adds no

b)

always adds negative

c)

always adds positive

d)

sometimes adds negative

204.

The __________ coefficient of reactivity is defined as the amount of reactivity added by a unit increase in fuel temperature.

a)

power

b)

pressurizer temperature

c)

moderator temperature

d)

Doppler

205.

Changes in neutron absorption cross section at specific non­thermal neutron energies resulting in the capture of a neutron at those specific non­thermal neutron energies is known as __________.

a)

resonance absorption

b)

resonance scattering

c)

radiative capture

d)

inelastic scattering

206.

Under which one of the following conditions is the moderator temperature coefficient the MOST negative?

a)

Low coolant temperature at beginning of life.

b)

Low coolant temperature at the end of life.

c)

High coolant temperature at beginning of life.

d)

High coolant temperature at the end of life.

207.

The reactor has operated at steady­state 100% power for six months. Compared to six months ago, the current moderator temperature coefficient is:

a)

More negative due to control rod withdrawal.

b)

Less negative due to burnable poison rod burnup.

c)

More negative due to decreased reactor coolant system (RCS) boron concentration.

d)

Less negative due to decreased RCS boron concentration.

208.

Assume that the core is undermoderated at the end of cycle (EOC). Which one of the following correctly describes the effect of a boric acid addition to the moderator?

a)

The initially negative MTC becomes more negative.

b)

The initially negative MTC becomes less negative.

c)

The initially positive MTC becomes more positive.

d)

The initially positive MTC becomes less positive.

209.

A reactivity coefficient can be determined by:

a)

Finding the area under the reactivity defect curve.

b)

Dividing the change in the parameter by the reactivity added.

c)

Finding the slope of the reactivity defect curve.

d)

Multiplying the change in the parameter by the reactivity added.

210.

Flux redistribution is a shift in neutron flux distribution throughout the core, due to changes in __________ and __________.

a)

control rod height; core ΔT

b)

fuel burnup; boron concentration

c)

control rod height; boron concentration

d)

core ΔT; fuel burnup