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WorksheetsBOT Final Exam Review
Total questions: 210
Worksheet time: 11hrs 30mins
A solution is formed when:
a substance called the solvent is dissolved in a another substance called the solute
a substance called the solute is dissolved in another substance called the solvent
a substance like metal shavings are mixed in a liquid known as the solute
a substance like metal shavings are mixed in a liquid known as the solvent
A solution that can accept more solute is said to be:
saturated
unsaturated
supersaturated
subcooled
For a solution to conduct electricity, it must _______________.
have a high pH
contain an impurity
contain ions
have a low pH
Nitrogen is hazardous because it is _____________.
toxic
invisible
an asphyxiant
chemically reactive
Comparing two solutions with pH's of 2 and 4; these solutions are __________ and the solution with apH of 4 __________ than the solution with a pH of 2.
acidic; less acidic
acidic; more acidic
basic; less basic
basic; more basic
When diluting acids you should always add the _________ to the __________ to prevent uncontrolled chemical reactions.
base; acid
acid; base
acid; water
water: acid
A base is defined as a substance that yields __________ ions when dissolved in water and has a pH_________ than 7.
hydrogen; less
hydrogen; greater
hydroxide; less
hydroxide; greater
CO2 is used for __________
cooling the main electrical generator
corrosion prevention of drained equipment
scavenging oxygen in the reactor coolant system
fire protection
__________ is a measure of a material's ability to conduct an electrical current.
pH
Conductivity
Turbidity
Resistivity
The concentration of a solution may be defined as the amount of __________ per unit volume of__________.
solution; solute
solvent; solute
solute; solution
solute; solvent
Strainers remove __________, ion exchangers remove __________, and filters remove __________from the process stream.
micron size particles, grit or large particles, dissolved ions
grit or large particles, micron size particles, dissolved ions
dissolved ions, micron size partilces, grit or large particles
grit or large particles, dissolved ions, micron size particles
Unwanted ions that have been removed can be released from the demineralizer if the __________ of the liquid flowing through the demineralizer becomes too high.
pressure
temperature
pH
conductivity
Which one of the following does not have to be removed from service for cleaning?
"Y" Type Strainer
Duplex Strainer
Disposable Cartridge Filter
Disposable Bag Filter
When the delta P (differential pressure) becomes excessive, __________ are replaced while__________ are cleaned.
filters; strainers
strainers; demineralizers
strainers; filters
evaporators; strainers
Mesh size is used when describing __________ and micron ratings are used when describing__________.
filters; strainers
demineralizers; strainers
strainers; filters
filters; demineralizers
Why is radiation dose a concern when processing contaminated water through a demineralizer?
Demineralizers tend to concentrate radioactive material.
Demineralizers tend to reduce the shielding ability of the coolant causing an increase in radiationdose.
Demineralizers tend to generate a EMF causing SRDs to give erroneous results.
Demineralizers tend to create radioactive material during the ion exchange process.
The number of active ion exchange sites available per unit volume of ion exchange resin is known as the__________
Breakthrough
Affinity
Capacity
Leakage
__________ is the process that removes undesirable ions that were removed from the process water during a service run by the resin and replaces them with desirable ions.
Exhaustion
Refreshment
Cation exchange
Regeneration
A/An __________ demineralizer is one that has the same concentration of a specific ion on the influent and effluent.
full
saturated
supersaturated
tired
Organic and iron fouling in a demineralizer __________.
will result in resin throw
reduces the capacity of the resin by coating the beads
does not affect the ability of the resin to remove ions from the water being processed
improves the decontamination factor of the demineralizer
The area where hydrogen gas is produced is the __________.
anode
cathode
hematite
magnetite
Formation of a uniform layer of metal oxide on the surface of a metal that reduces the base metal thickness at a predictable rate is called __________.
hematite formation
magnetite formation
general corrosion
local corrosion
Local corrosion is of concern because of __________.
it can result in rapid buy predictable failure
it can result in rapid and unpredictable failure
it cannot be controlled or prevented
it is very costly to prevent
General corrosion is accelerated by __________.
lowering the temperature of the fluid
lowering the O2 concentration of the fluid
raising the temperature of the fluid
raising the pH of the fluid to 10.3
__________ forms a very tenacious, protective layer on the surface of steel or iron.
Hematite
Stalactite
Magnetite
Hitite
__________ is also know a red iron oxide.
Hematite
Magnetite
Cathite
Ammonite
The use of corrosion inhibitors, like Potassium Chromate, is a form of __________ to minimize corrosion.
alloying
barrier protection
chemistry control
cathodic protection
Refining a metal results in the metal being in a/an __________ state, making it susceptible to corrosion.
excited, stable
ground, stable
ground, unstable
excited, unstable
Which of the following will reduce general corrosion rates?
Increasing temperature
reducing the pH below 7.0
Reducing the flow rate
Increasing the dissolved oxygen in the water
What is not a basic condition required to promote corrosion?
A tensile stress
A potential difference
An electrolytic solution
A metal
Which of the following lists chemicals added to the reactor coolant system of a PWR?
Hydrazine, hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide, ammonia
lithium hydroxide, hydrogen, hydrazine, amines
lithium hydroxide, boric acid, hydrazine, hydrogen
carbohydrazide, lithium hydroxide, boric acid, hydrogen
Which of the following lists chemicals added to the secondary system for chemistry control?
Amines, hydrogen, hydrazine, carbohydrazide
Hydrogen, amines, hydrazine
Boric acid, ammonia, hydrazine, carbohydrazide
Amines, hydrazine, carbohydrazide
Hydrazine is used in the primary and secondary systems to __________.
control pH
control dissolved oxygen
prevent flow accelerated corrosion (FAC)
control reactivity
Boric acid is used to __________.
control pH
control dissolved oxygen
control reactivity
control corrosion
The chemicals present in the secondary system that control pH are:
lithium and amines
hydrogen and amines
hydrazine and hydrogen
amines and ammonium hydroxide
Flow accelerated corrosion is controlled in part by the addition of __________ to the condensate system.
lithium hydroxide
hydrazine
hydrogen
organic amines
The secondary chemistry control program primarily aimed at __________.
protection the core from damage
protecting the steam generators from corrosion damage
minimizing corrosion product transport in the reactor coolant
preventing pipe failures from SCC, PWSCC, IGA, and IGSCC
__________ and __________ are the primary sources of impurities in the secondary system water.
Steam generator tube leaks; makeup water
Condenser air inleakage; makeup water
Makeup water; cooling water ingress
Steam generator tube leakage; cooling water ingress
Which type of piping is corrosion resistant and used when the production of corrosion products is a concern, as in systems that may come in contact with the reactor?
Plastic
Copper Alloys
Stainless Steel
Low-Carbon Steel
Which of the following valve types is best suited for throttling?
Gate
Diaphragm
Safety
Ball
Which of the following valve types provides very fine throttling characteristics?
Diaphragm
Kerotest
Globe
Needle
Throttling a gate valve can result in __________.
excessive internal wear
a precise control of flow rate
flange leakage
packing leakage
Relief valves exhibit __________ but not __________.
accumulation; blowdown
leakage; blowdown
blowdown; accumulation
leakage; accumulation
In comparison to a globe valve, a gate valve has a __________ pressure drop when fully open and is the __________ choice for throttling.
higher; better
lower; better
higher; poorer
lower; poorer
A pneumatic operator uses __________.
compressed gas to move the valve stem
an electric motor to rotate the valve stem
hydraulic fluid to move the valve stem
a vacuum to move the valve stem
A __________ valve is used to control the direction of flow in a system.
gate
globe
needle
check
Which of the following is used to connect equipment and transport fluids?
Pump
Valve
Pipe
Busbar
Which one of the following describes the function of a safety valve?
Provide overpressure protection to limit the internal pressure in vessels.
Control pressure in a system to maintain optimum operational conditions.
Sound a warning by lifting at a predetermined value slightly higher than operating pressure.
Modulate open as necessary to maintain system pressure and/or temperature within normallimits.
Heat addition that results in a change in temperature is called ______________.
latent heat of vaporization
sensible heat
wasted heat
isothermal heat addition
The number of degrees a liquid is below its boiling point is called _____________.
subcooling factor
degrees of superheat
degrees of subcooling
degrees of saturation
A fluid that contains both liquid and vapor is called a __________________.
saturated liquid
saturated vapor
wet vapor
superheated vapor
A vapor 5 degrees above its boiling point is a _______________.
subcooled liquid
subcooled vapor
superheated liquid
superheated vapor
The mass of liquid divided by the mass of the mixture is the __________________.
void fraction
moisture content
steam quality
steam content
Which of the following will increase plant efficiency?
Steam quality changes from 99.9% to 99.6%
A feedwater heater is isolated and drained
Condenser pressure goes from 1 psia to 1.5 psia
Condensate depression is reduced by 2oF
Using feedwater heaters _________ plant efficiency because ____________.
reduces; less steam flow goes to the turbine
reduces; heat rejection increases for the heat supplied
increases; temperature of the feedwater entering the steam generators is higher
increases; feed pumps require less power to pump warmer water
The primary reason for using moisture separator reheaters is to:
superheat steam supplied to the LP turbine and improve efficiency
reduce moisture impingement concerns in the last stages of the LP turbine
provide a use for the steam exttracted from the HP turbine instead of condensing
improve efficiency by increasing steam quality supplied to the LP turbine
An air in-leakage path to the condenser develops. Compared to conditions with no air in-leakage, plant efficiency is now _____________.
higher because condensate depression is reduced
higher because less heat rejection will take place
lower because more energy is removed from main steam by the turbine
lower because main condenser pressure is higher
Thermodynamic efficiency is calculated as _____________.
heat added ÷ heat rejected
net work ÷ heat added
heat rejected ÷ net work
heat rejected ÷ heat added
Two methods of improving plant efficiency are ___________ and ___________.
less condensate depression; higher steam pressure
less feedwater heating; higher steam quality
more condensate depression; lower steam pressure
more feedwater heating; lower steam quality
An increase in condenser vacuum results in ___________ turbine work and ____________ plant efficiency.
more; lower
more; greater
less; lower
less; greater
Plant efficiency is reduced by ____________.
fixing steam leaks
running all hotwell pumps at all times
fixing air leaks into the condenser
operating with air ejector condensers in service
__________ is used in both the primary and secondary system to savenge oxygen, __________ and__________ are primarily responsible for controlling the pH of the condensate system.
hydrogen; hydrazine; ammonia
hydrazine; ammonia; organic amines
hydrazine; hydrogen; organic amines
hydrazine; hydrogen; ammonia
Failure to control secondary chemistry is most likely to result in __________.
steam generator damage
high dose rates in the aux building
fuel failures
high inventories of crud
A nuclear power plant is operating at 80% of rated power with 5 degrees of condensate depression inthe main condenser. If the condensate depression decreases to 2 degrees, steam cycle efficiency will__________ and the probability of condensate pump cavitation will __________.
decrease; decrease
decrease; increase
increase; decrease
increase; increase
A __________ valve exhibits significant accumulation and a __________ valve exhibits blowdown.
safety; safety
relief; relief
safety; relief
relief; safety
A __________ is used to prevent leakage when the __________ needs replacement.
valve backseat; packing
valve backseat; valve sea
valve seat; valve backseat
valve seat; packing
A __________ can be used for throttling while a __________ should not be used for throttling
check valve; globe valve
plug vlave; needle valve
butterfly valve; gate valve
ball valve; diaphragm valve
A bourdon tube pressure detector is located inside containment. Which of the following will have the most significant immediate effect on the accuracy of indicated pressure from the detector?
Containment temperature increases by 50°F
Radiation level in the vicinity of the detector goes to 40 R/hr
Containment pressure increases by 40 psig
Containment hydrogen concentration increases to 2%
In flow measurement circuits, a square root extractor is used to convert _______ to ________ .
mass flow rate; volumetric flow rate
volumetric flow rate; mass flow rate
differential pressure; volumetric flow rate
volumetric flow rate; differential pressure
A level detection system uses a wet reference leg to supply a signal to a D/P cell. If the equalizing valve for the D/P cell is opened, level indication wil
decrease and stabilize below actual level
increase and stabilize above actual level
remain at the current level
fail to the minimum indicated level
There are three separate circuits measuring temperature in a system. All use the same type of RTD assensors and the same type of circuitry for indication. Two of the indications show that temperature is480°F and the third shows a temperature of 450°F. The most likely cause for this is __________.
the reference junctions for the circuits that indicate 480°F are overheated
there is a short circuit in the RTD for the indicator reading 450°F
the RTD for the indicator reading 450°F is opened and the two dissimilar metals are no longer incontact
there is an open circuit in the Wheatstone bridge circuit for the indicaion showing 450°F
A temperature measuring circuit using a thermocouple relies on the principle that ________ .
the resistance of the thermocouple element changes linearly as temperature changes
the expansion between the two dissimilar metals of the thermocouple creates a voltage
voltage produced by the junctions of two dissimilar metals is proportional to the temperature ofthe junction
expansion of a trapped column of fluid is proportional to the temperature of the fluid'ssurroundings
Compared to thermocouples, resistance temperature detectors are:
More accurate and less expensive.
More accurate but more expensive.
More complex to install but easier to calibrate.
Less complex to install and easier to calibrate.
Which type of pressure detector senses pressure by the axial deflection of a metallic plate?
Boudon tube detector
Variable capacitance
Diaphragm detector
Forced balance detector
Tank level is being monitored by two differential pressure detectors. Detector 1 was calibrated at 180°F and detector 2 was calibrated at 90°F. Current liquid temperature in the tank is 150°F.Given these conditions, __________.
detector 1 indicates higher level than detector 2
detector 2 indicates higher level than detector 1
detector 1 and detector 2 indicate the same level
you cannot determine which detector reads higher
The part of a centrifugal pump that prevents high pressure discharge water from leaking to the low pressure suction side of the pump is the _______________.
shaft seal
packing
gaskets
seal rings
The absolute pressure at the suction of a pump minus the vapor pressure of the fluid is____________.
the NPSHAvailable
the NPSHRequired
the saturation pressure of the fluid
the gauge pressure of the fluid
A pump is started and fails to build discharge pressure. Motor current is below normal operating current. Which of the following conditions is indicated?
cavitation
gas binding
runout
deadheading
Impeller damage and pump vibration are common results of ____________.
cavitation
gas binding
runout
deadheading
Which of the following conditions is indicated by overheating of the pump and high discharge pressure?
cavitation
gas binding
runout
deadheading
Operating a pump with the maximum flowrate and lowest discharge head is called ___________.
deadheading
shutoff head
gas binding
runout
Which of the following would reduce the likelihood of cavitation?
Increase suction temperature
Decrease suction piping diameter
Increase suction lift
Decrease flowrate
The conversion of kinetic energy to Pv energy occurs in what part of the pump?
the impeller eye
the discharge pipe
the volute
the suction pipe
Why should you always start a PD pump with the discharge valve open?
to avoid pump runout
to minimize starting current
to prevent possible pump damage
you should always start all pumps with the discharge valve open
The most common method for varying flow in most systems with centrifugal pumps is by____________.
varying pump speed
varying the number of pumps in operation
varying pump suction pressure
varying system head loss with a valve
The reduction in flow that occurs near the shutoff head of a positive displacement pump is referred to as _________ and is the result of_________________.
slip; insufficient NPSHAvailable
slip; fluid leakage past internal seals
runout; operating the pump at low RPM
runout; excessive NPSHAvailable
A centrifugal pump is started and the following indications are observed:
Oscillating flow
Oscillating discharge pressure
Oscillating amps
This indicates that the pump is experiencing ____________.
excessive thrust
cavitation
runout
wear ring failure
A counter flow heat exchanger is more efficient because ___________________.
the average temperature of the cold system is higher than the average temperature of the hot system
the average temperature difference between the two systems is relatively constant
fouling is less likely to occur in a counter flow heat exchanger
the inlet to the cold system is located next to the outlet of the hot system
In a ___________ heat exchanger the hot fluid mixes with the cold fluid.
cross flow
parallel flow
indirect contact
direct contact
In a ____________ heat exchanger, different fluids are on the tube side and shell side of the heat exchanger.
regenerative
non regenerative
direct contact
baffled
The inlet tube side flow in a U-tube heat exchanger is separated from the outlet tube side flow by the use of a __________.
baffle
channel head
divider plate
tubesheet
The __________ forms a casing around the region where heat transfer occurs.
nozzle
shell
tubes
waterbox
Thermal shock occurs when the __________ of the fluid in a system __________ increases or decreases causing a differential expansion or contraction of the metal.
flowrate; suddenly
pressure; gradually
temperature; suddenly
density; gradually
lbm/hr are the units used for ___________________.
volumetric flowrate
mass flowrate
steady flow
total flow
The property of a fluid that measures its resistance to flow is called ______________.
viscosity
density
specific gravity
weight density
___________ flow exhibits s parabolic velocity profile and ___________ flow exhibits a relatively flat velocity profile.
single phase; two phase
two phase; single phase
turbulent; laminar
laminar; turbulent
Energy expressed in feet is commonly called ____________.
velocity
static electricity
kinetic energy
head
The loss of pressure due to fluid friction is called __________ and can be reduced by increasing____________.
head loss; velocity
head loss; pipe diameter
frictional loss; pump size
frictional loss; velocity
In a piping system, head loss undergoes a __________ change for a given change in velocity.
directly proportional
inversely proportional
square
linear
A pressure surge that develops in a piping system as a result of suddenly changing flow is categorized as______________.
two phase flow
brittle fracture
water hammer
pressurized thermal shock
When water hammer occurs in a piping system, __________ is being converted into ___________ .
pressurevolume energy; kinetic energy
kinetic energy; pressurevolume energy
potential energy; work
work; potential energy
Mass flow rate is equal to volumetric flow rate multiplied by:
Specific volume.
Specific gravity
Area.
Density.
During a loss of coolant accident, which one of the following heat transfer mechanisms provides the most core cooling when fuel elements are not in contact with the coolant?
Radiation
Emission
Convection
Conduction
Heat is transferred from the fuel into the cladding by ______________.
convection through the helium gas in the gap between the fuel and cladding
conduction through the helium gas in the gap between the fuel and the cladding
convection through the nitrogen gas in the gap between the fuel and the cladding
conduction through the nitrogen gas in the gap between the fuel and the cladding
A plant is operating at 60% power. Which one of the following is the primary heat transfer mechanism responsible for the transfer of heat from the surface of the steam generator tubes to the feedwater?
Radiolysis
Radiation
Conduction
Convection
Radiation heat transfer from the fuel is not an acceptable means of cooling the fuel because_____________.
the large delta T required causes excessive coolant temperature
the large delta T required causes excessive fuel temperature
the low coolant flow rate causes excessive coolant temperature
the low coolant flow rate causes excessive fuel temperature
__________ can be defined as the measure of heat input per unit time from the core to the reactor coolant system.
Total core power
Percent reactor power
Conduction thermal power
Core thermal power
To increase the rate of conduction heat transfer, you should __________ the temperature difference or __________ the thickness of the material.
decrease; increase
increase; decrease
increase; increase
decrease; decrease
The difference between the set point in an automatic controller and the steady state value of the measured parameter is called:
Feedback.
Gain
Deadband.
Offset.
In an automatic flow controller, the range of values around the set point of a measured variable where no action occurs is called:
Deadband.
Error.
Deviation
Offset.
An automatic flow controller is being used to position a valve in a cooling water system. A signal from the valve proportional to valve position is returned to the controller. This signal is referred to as:
Gain.
Bias.
Feedback.
Error.
The level in a tank is controlled by an automatic level controller. Level is initially at the setpoint when a drain valve opens. When level decreases to 5% below the setpoint the level controller opens a makeup supply valve. After a few minutes level is 5% above the setpoint and the makeup valve closes. With the drain valve still open, level continues to oscillate 5% above and below the setpoint. The controller in this system uses primarily __________ control.
integral
two position
derivative
proportional
A valve controller is designed to ensure that the valve goes fully closed when a signal is received to initiate valve movement to close the valve. What feature of the controller is designed to make this happen?
A seal-in feature in the controller.
Proportional action in the controller.
Position feedback to the controller.
Integral action in the controller.
In order to position a large valve to control steam flow to a turbine, a device called a ______ is used between the controller for the valve and the valve operator.
signal amplifier
signal conditioner
valve positioner
valve amplifier
Rotor bowing in the main turbine is prevented by using __________.
a turning gear
gland sealing
labyrinth seals
a thrust bearing
The __________ is/are used to absorb and limit axial movement of the turbine shaft.
exhaust hood
journal bearings
oil system
thrust bearing
The purpose of a steam turbine is to convert __________ energy into __________ energy.
nuclear; mechanical
thermal; electrical
thermal; mechanical
nuclear; electrical
According to the __________ principle of steam turbine operation, stationary nozzles convert some of the steam's thermal energy into kinetic energy, which is then converted into mechanical energy in the form of movement of the turbine wheel and rotor.
nuclear
impulse
reaction
thermal
Which one of the following turbine components is responsible for supporting the bearing for the rotor?
Governor
Rotor
Exhaust hood
Casing
Some symptoms of __________ are noise and excessive vibration.
a reduction in electrical load
a failure of the cooling water system
water impingement
excessive reactor power
In a __________ turbine, the nozzles are attached to the rotor disk and the steam expands in the moving nozzles converting the steam's thermal energy into kinetic energy and producing a force. This force causes rotation in the opposite direction of the steam jet.
compound
gas
simple
reaction
It is better to monitor __________ display during a plant transient because __________.
an analog; it is more accurate than a digital display
an analog; an estimation of the rate of change of the parameter is easier to make
a digital; it is more accurate than an analog display
a digital; an estimation of the rate of change of the parameter is easier to make
A device with 4 inputs that has a "true" output when at least 3 of the 4 inputs are "true" is a/an__________.
AND gate
AND/OR combination gate
1/4 coincidence circuit
3/4 coincidence circuit
_________ interlocks determine the proper sequence of placing equipment into operation by permitting equipment to start only when requirements are met.
Reactive
Permissive
Proactive
Tripping
__________ displays provide very accurate indication of measurements by eliminating the need to interpolate between meter indications.
Analog
High frequency
Digital
Cathode ray tube
__________ is a measure of a fluids ability to resist flow.
Fluid friction
Specific gravity
Viscosity
Density
Which of the following does NOT affect lubrication?
Viscosity of the lubricant.
Supplier of the lubricant.
Temperature of the lubricant.
Impurities in the lubricant.
__________ fittings are used where the retention of the lubricant at the bearing surface would be difficult.
Quick connect
Dragon valve
Vacuum
Zerk
A Circulation Lubrication System ...
Has a pump that takes suction on sump and discharges into the bearing. Used in all types of engines and machines. However, it is primarily used in high speed, high temperature applications.
Is frequently employed where high rotational speeds and enclosed parts are encountered. The lubricated surface is submerged in oil.
Lubricates bearings from a reservoir in the bearing housing by means of rotating rings which ride loosely on the revolving journal.
Is used in enclosed chambers such as crank cases and gear sets. Oil is in a sump and is spread by the action of gear teeth or other moving parts.
Which one of the following is NOT a type of lubricant?
Oil
Grease
Dry
Solid
Sampling oil can reveal:
The need to add oil.
The need to purify the oil.
The deficiencies in the lab.
Any hazards.
__________ friction offers the most resistance to motion.
Fluid
Rolling
Solid
Sliding
One purpose of lubrication is to:
Prevent corrosion in the operating equipment.
Add wear products to the equipment.
Increase the heat of operating equipment.
Agitate the operation of equipment.
The purpose of refrigeration is __________.
ensure the air is clean
ensuring the humidity is kept low to prevent mildew from forming
keep the beer and milk cold
cool spaces, objects, or materials
A refrigeration ton is a measure of __________.
the cumulative weight of the refrigeration cycle components
the weight of the refrigerant inside the refrigeration unit
the amount of heat removal rate of the refrigeration unit
the weight of air that can be lowered by one degree in one hour
If heat is added to a system at saturation conditions, __________ (Assume: System remains at saturation conditions).
only the temperature of the system will increase
only the pressure of the system will increase
both temperature and pressure will increase
neither temperature nor pressure will increase
The amount of heat that must be added or removed from a system to change the phase of the system from liquid to vapor or from vapor to liquid is known as __________ heat.
latent
wasted
excessive
subliminal
In a basic refrigeration cycle, the __________ picks up heat in the __________ where it is converted to a warm vapor.
chill water; condenser
refrigerant; condenser
chill water; evaporator
refrigerant; evaporator
Motor overload, low refrigerant suction pressure, and __________ are common causes of a refrigerant compressor trip.
low evaporator discharge pressure
high oil pressure
high refrigerant discharge pressure
motor underload
A high crankcase oil temperature in a compressor can be caused by __________.
inadequate feedback to the thermal regulator
inadequate amounts of refrigerant in the refrigeration cycle
inadequate heat transfer in the oil condenser
inadequate heat trasfer across the oil cooler
Isolating the air flow through an air handling system is best accomplished by the use of __________blade dampers
pivot
splitter
parallel
opposed
Removing undesirable elements from recirculated air is the purpose of _______________.
silencers
louvers
registers
filters
Which type of fan blade is used for industrial, dust laden gas flow?
forward-curved
straight blade
backward-curved
variable pitch
_____________ removes gases and vapors from recirculated air.
HEPA filters
fibrous media filters
electronic air cleaners
activated carbon filters
The primary function of ____________ is to keep rain and snow from entering the building.
parallel dampers
opposed dampers
louvers
filters
In a packaged heat pump system operating in the heating mode, the __________ acts as the condenser and the ____________ acts as the evaporator.
outdoor coil; indoor coil
indoor coil; reversing valve
indoor coil; outdoor coil
metering device; outdoor coil
Which one of the following is not a common method of controlling ventilation fan output?
Variable speed control
Louver control
Damper control
Inlet vane control
A detector that is used as a source range nuclear instrument and who's output changes significantly as applied voltage is changed operates in the __________ region of the Gas Filled Detector Characteristic curve.
Ion Chamber
Recombination
Proportional
GeigerMueller
Which system provides indications and alarms when general radiation levels in the plant become too high?
Area Monitoring System
Process Monitoring System
ExCore Nuclear Instruments
InCore Nuclear Instruments
A detector is operating in the Geiger-Mueller region of the Gas-Filled Detector Characteristic Curve. Its output __________.
depends on the number of primary ions collected
is the same for any ionizing event that takes place
varies with the applied voltage and the number of secondary ions produced
is not useful for radiation detection
Which type of detector is used to monitor the core during operation in the power range?
Proportional Counter
GeigerMueller Detector
Ion Chamber Detector
Scintillation Detector
In the __________ region of the Gas=Filled Detector Characteristic Curve the voltage is not sufficient to collect all of the primary ions formed.
Ion Chamber
Proportional
Recombination
GeigerMueller
Which type of radiation detector would be the best to use to determine the presence or absence of radiation?
Ion Chamber Detector
Proportional Counter
GeigerMueller Detector
Continuous Discharge Detector
Information regarding the power distribution in the reactor core is obtained from __________.
process monitors
in-core nuclear detectors
scintillation detectors
GeigerMueller survey instruments
Which component in a scintillation radiation detector provides an electrical signal proportional to the light intensity at the component?
phosphor crystal
photocathode
dynode
anode
Which statement describes the ex-core neutron monitoring system?
Neutron sensitive detectors are moved through selected fuel assemblies to map the neutron distribution in the core.
Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in selected fuel assemblies during fuel loading and are used to monitor the neutron distribution in the core.
Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in wells next to the reactor vessel to detect neutrons escaping from the core.
Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in wells next to the reactor vessel to detect neutrons that do not escape from the core.
Neutron sensitive detectors are installed in wells next to the reactor vessel to detect neutrons that do not escape from the core.
Area Radiation Monitoring System
Process Radiation Monitoring System
InCore Nuclear Instrumentation System
ExCore Nuclear Instrumentation System
During paralleling operations of the main generator to the grid, closing the generator output breaker with the generator voltage slightly lower than grid voltage and with generator frequency slightly higher than grid frequency will result in:
The generator picking up reactive load from the grid.
The generator immediately attaining a leading power factor.
The generator shedding real load to the grid.
Motoring of the generator.
In an AC induction motor, a voltage is applied to the __________, creating a rotating magnetic field, which induces a voltage in the __________.
stator; rotor
rotor; armature
rotor; stator
armature; field
Which one of the following describes the motor current indications that would be observed during the start of a large AC motordriven centrifugal pump with a closed discharge valve?
Current immediately increases to the fullload value and then decreases to the no load value over several seconds.
Current immediately increases to the no load value and then stabilizes.
Current immediately increases to greater than the full load value and then decreases to the noload value after several seconds.
Current immediately increases to greater than full load value and then decreases to the no load value after several minutes.
The number of starts for an electric motor in a given period of time should be limited because overheating of the __________ can occur due to the _________ counter electromotive force produced at low rotor speeds.
windings; high
windings; low
commutator and/or slip rings; high
commutator and/or slip rings; low
Closing the output breaker of the main generator with the frequency of the generator 0.1 Hz higher than grid frequency will result in the generator...
assuming a portion of the grid reactive load (MVAR).
assuming a portion of the grid real load (MWe).
behaving as a reactive load to the grid.
behaving as a real load to the grid.
In the main generator, a DC current is applied to the __________ windings located __________.
armature; on the rotor
field; on the rotor
armature; in the stator
field; in the stator
What is the benefit of using a threephase AC generator instead of a singlephase generator?
The power output of a single-phase AC generator is √3 times the output of the three-phase AC generator.
The current output of a three-phase AC generator is √3 times the output of the single-phase AC generator.
The power output of a three-phase AC generator is √3 times the output of the single-phase AC generator.
The voltage output of a singlephase AC generator is √3 times the output of the three-phase AC generator.
__________ describes the effect of the magnetic field produced by the current flow in the armature windings in the main generator, which can offset, aid, or oppose the rotor field.
Magnetic induction
Armature losses
Field reaction
Armature reaction
A main generator is connected to the grid. Which one of the following conditions will exist on the generator if it is operating underexcited?
Negative MVARs (VARs in) and a leading power factor
Positive MVARs (VARs out) and a leading power factor
Positive MVARs (VARs out) and a lagging power factor
Negative MVARs (VARs in) and a lagging power factor
With regards to the power triangle, what kind of power in an AC circuit is associated with the expansion and contraction of magnetic and electrostatic fields?
True Power
Power Factor
Reactive Power
Absolute Power
Which one of the following should be performed to completely deenergize a circuit breaker including its control and indication power?
Open the breaker and tag it out.
Deenergize the breaker feeder bus.
Tag the control switch and post a watch at the breaker.
Open the breaker, pull the control power fuses, and rack out the breaker.
A molded case circuit breaker has tripped due to overload. In order to close this circuit breaker, the breaker handle must be moved from the.....
OFF position directly to the ON position; trip latch reset is not required.
OFF position to the midposition to reset the trip latch and then to the ON position.
Midposition directly to the ON position; trip latch reset is not required.
Midposition to the OFF position to reset the trip latch and then to the ON position.
When a typical 4160 volt breaker is racked to the "Test" position, control power is __________ the breaker and the breaker is __________ the load.
available to; connected to
available to; isolated from
removed from; connected to
removed from; isolated from
High voltage electrical disconnects are used to ....
adjust the output voltage range from a main power transformer.
protect bus feeder breakers by opening upon bus shortcircuit failures.
provide equipment isolation under noload conditions.
bypass and isolate an electrical bus while maintaining the downstream buses energized.
While remotely investigating the condition of a typical normally-open motor control center (MCC) feederbreaker, an operator observes the following indications:
Green breaker position indicating light is out.
Red breaker position indicating light is lit.
Alternate MCC feeder breaker green position indicating light is lit.
MCC voltmeter indicates 480 VAC.MCC ammeter indicates zero amperes.
Based on these indications, the operator should report that the feeder breaker is __________ and racked _________.
open; in
closed; in
open; to an unknown position
closed; to an unknown position
A thermal overload device for a large motor protects the motor from...
an overfrequency condition.
instantaneous overcurrent by opening the motor breaker or motor line contacts.
a short circuit in the pump windings.
sustained overcurrent by opening contacts when the sensing element becomes too hot.
A relay scheme that must be reset manually after all other protective relay input signals are reset is:
an overcurrent relay.
a differential relay.
a line relay.
a lockout relay.
A relay that compares the input and output of a transformer is:
an overcurrent relay.
a differential relay.
a line relay.
a lockout relay.
The relationship between a transformer's primary and secondary voltages is determined by the:
size of the bushings.
turns ratio of the transformer.
hysteresis loss ratio.
VA rating of the transformer core.
Which components isolate the transformer's connections from its grounded casing?
Grounding disconnects
Load tap changers
Bushings
Lightning arrestors
When the customer increases load, the increased transformer secondary current flow causes the effect of the primary winding CEMF to be __________, causing __________ generator current to flow.
increased; more
increased; less
decreased; more
decreased; less
Which type of transformer loss comes from dissipating the heat produced by current flow through the transformer windings?
Winding current loss
Eddy current loss
Hysteresis loss
Copper loss
Why are transformer cores often laminated and insulated?
To provide structural strength.
To limit arcing when first energized.
To reduce eddy current losses.
To improve primary to secondary coupling.
Which one of the following is NOT an alarm typically associated with a main distribution transformer?
High Casing Pressure
Low Casing Pressure
High Oil Temperature
Low Oil Temperature
Which type of transformer is used in circuits for voltage measurement and indication?
Potential
Current
Power
Auto
In an electrical transformer, the __________ winding is attached to the power source, while the__________ winding is attached to the load.
power; current
primary; secondary
potential; power
secondary; primary
Fission products that have large microscopic cross sections for absorption of thermal neutrons are called:
breeder fuels.
burnable poisons.
fissionable fuels.
fission product poisons.
Following a reactor shutdown from 100% power, peak samarium will occur ______.
≈ 12 hours later
≈ 12 days later
≈ 48 days later
never
Following a refueling reactor power is returned to 100% power. Equilibrium samarium will be reached in __________.
≈ 24 hours
≈ 48 days
≈ 24 days
≈ 48 hours
Equilibrium samarium at 50% power is _____________ equilibrium value at 100% power.
equal to the
about 1/2 of the
about 1.5 times the
about 2 times the
Following a reactor trip from sustained power operation the Xenon135 removal process consists primarily of:
beta decay.
gamma decay.
electron capture.
neutron capture.
Following a two week shutdown, a reactor is taken critical and ramped to full power in 6 hours. How long will it take to achieve an equilibrium xenon condition after the reactor reaches full power?
70 to 80 hours
40 to 50 hours
8 to 10 hours
1 to 2 hours
A reactor trip has occurred following two months of operation at steady state 100% power. How soon after the trip will the reactor be considered xenon-free?
8 to 10 hours
24 to 30 hours
40 to 50 hours
70 to 80 hours
As reactor coolant boron concentration is reduced the differential boron worth (pcm/ppm) becomes:
Less negative due to the increased number of water molecules in the core.
More negative due to the increased number of water molecules in the core.
Less negative due to the decreased number of boron molecules in the core.
More negative due to the decreased number of boron molecules in the core.
Differential boron worth becomes more negative as:
fuel is depleted.
boron concentration increases.
moderator temperature increases.
fission product poison concentration increases
Differential boron worth becomes __________ as moderator temperature increases because a 1 ppm increase at higher temperature adds __________ boron atoms to the core.
more negative ; fewer
less negative ; fewer
more negative ; more
less negative ; more
Which one of the following has the smallest microscopic cross section for absorption of a thermal neutron in an operating reactor?
Uranium235
Uranium238
Samarium149
Xenon135
The __________ coefficient is the amount of reactivity added by a unit increase in the dissolved neutron poison concentration.
fuel
moderator temperature
doppler
boron
To compensate for the __________ reactivity added by fuel burnup over core life, the boron concentration must be __________ in the reactor coolant system.
positive; reduced
negative; increased
negative; reduced
positive; increased
Due to the __________ boron concentration at EOL, a significantly __________ amount of water must be removed to cause the same ppm decrease as would be needed at BOL.
higher; larger
lower; larger
lower; smaller
higher; smaller
As core age increases, the differential boron worth becomes more __________ because of __________.
negative; reduced self-competition
positive; higher fuel temperatures
negative; an increased chemical shim concentration
positive; a buildup of Pu240
Which one of the following isotopes is the most significant contributor to resonance capture of neutrons in the reactor core at the beginning of core life?
U233
U238
Pu239
Pu240
Which one of the following will cause the Doppler Coefficient to become more negative?
Decreased moderator temperature
Higher reactor power
Increased fuel burnup
Decreased boron concentration
Which one of the following will directly result in a less negative fuel temperature coefficient? (Consider only the effect of the change in the listed parameters.)
Increase in fuel burnup
Decrease in fuel temperature
Increase in void fraction
Decrease in moderator temperature
For the same power level, as the core ages the fuel temperature coefficient becomes __________ negative because __________.
more; there is less boron in the coolant
more; there is more Pu240 in the core
less; there is less U235 in the core
less; average fuel temperature is higher
On a power increase, power defect __________ reactivity.
adds no
always adds negative
always adds positive
sometimes adds negative
The __________ coefficient of reactivity is defined as the amount of reactivity added by a unit increase in fuel temperature.
power
pressurizer temperature
moderator temperature
Doppler
Changes in neutron absorption cross section at specific nonthermal neutron energies resulting in the capture of a neutron at those specific nonthermal neutron energies is known as __________.
resonance absorption
resonance scattering
radiative capture
inelastic scattering
Under which one of the following conditions is the moderator temperature coefficient the MOST negative?
Low coolant temperature at beginning of life.
Low coolant temperature at the end of life.
High coolant temperature at beginning of life.
High coolant temperature at the end of life.
The reactor has operated at steadystate 100% power for six months. Compared to six months ago, the current moderator temperature coefficient is:
More negative due to control rod withdrawal.
Less negative due to burnable poison rod burnup.
More negative due to decreased reactor coolant system (RCS) boron concentration.
Less negative due to decreased RCS boron concentration.
Assume that the core is undermoderated at the end of cycle (EOC). Which one of the following correctly describes the effect of a boric acid addition to the moderator?
The initially negative MTC becomes more negative.
The initially negative MTC becomes less negative.
The initially positive MTC becomes more positive.
The initially positive MTC becomes less positive.
A reactivity coefficient can be determined by:
Finding the area under the reactivity defect curve.
Dividing the change in the parameter by the reactivity added.
Finding the slope of the reactivity defect curve.
Multiplying the change in the parameter by the reactivity added.
Flux redistribution is a shift in neutron flux distribution throughout the core, due to changes in __________ and __________.
control rod height; core ΔT
fuel burnup; boron concentration
control rod height; boron concentration
core ΔT; fuel burnup
