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PCOL ANALGESICS PART 1

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

a)

PAIN

b)

PERCEPTION

c)

MODULATION

d)

TRANSDUCTION

2.

is a painful condition that arise because of viral infection caused by Varicella zoster virus

a)

Shingles Pain

b)

Postherpetic neuralgia

c)

both

d)

none

3.

The first step leading to pain is the activation of _____

a)

nociceptors

b)

receptors

c)

stimuli

d)

all of the above

4.

External stimuli are converted to electrical signals that can be perceived as pain

a)

TRANSDUCTION

b)

TRANSMISSION

c)

MODULATION

d)

PERCEPTION

5.

Message is carried from the site of tissue injury to the brain regions underlying perception (afferent neurons)

a)

TRANSDUCTION

b)

TRANSMISSION

c)

MODULATION

d)

PERCEPTION

6.

Pain reaches the brain through ascending fiber tracts.

a)

TRANSDUCTION

b)

TRANSMISSION

c)

MODULATION

d)

PERCEPTION

7.

The spinothalamic tract is divided into two ascending  pathways:

a)

Lateral

b)

Ventral

c)

Central

d)

Horizontal

8.

the pain signal carried is sharp and localized pain

a)

Lateral Pathway

b)

Ventral Pathway

9.

when neurons carries electrical messages wherein it originates from aching or dull or non-localized pain

a)

Lateral Pathway

b)

Ventral Pathway

10.

The body alters a pain signal as it is transmitted along the pain pathway and explains, at least in part, why individual responses to the same painful stimulus sometimes differ. can either inhibit or facilitate pain

a)

TRANSDUCTION

b)

TRANSMISSION

c)

MODULATION

d)

PERCEPTION

11.

endogenous opioids (endorphins, dynorphins and enkephalins)

a)

Central modulation

b)

Peripheral modulation

12.

Corticosteroids- Lipocortins

a)

Central modulation

b)

Peripheral modulation

13.

is an inhibitor of phospholipase a-2 wherein it converts phospholipid through arachidonic acid.

a)

lipocortins

b)

endorphins

c)

dynorphins

d)

enkephalins

14.

Pain becomes more than a pattern of nociceptive action potentials when they reach the brain. Action potentials ascending the spinothalamic tract are decoded by the thalamus & sensorimotor cortex to be perceived as an unpleasant sensation that can be localized to a specific region of the body.

a)

TRANSDUCTION

b)

TRANSMISSION

c)

MODULATION

d)

PERCEPTION

15.

Short-term pain or pain with an easily identifiable cause.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

16.

Is the body's warning of present damage to tissue or disease

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

17.

Often fast and sharp followed by aching pain.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

18.

typically comes on suddenly and has a limited duration.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

19.

. It's frequently caused by damage to tissue such as bone, muscle, or organs, and the onset is often accompanied by anxiety or emotional distress

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

20.

Pain that last much longer than pain normally would with a particular injury

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

21.

can be the result of damaged tissue, but very often is attributable to nerve damage

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

22.

Can be constant or intermittent and is generally harder to treat

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

23.

can be the result of damaged tissue, but very often is attributable to nerve damage

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

24.

Flares of pain/ severe pain that occur even when pain medication is being used regularly.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Chronic Pain

c)

Breakthrough Pain

25.

“Tissue Damage”

a)

Nociceptive Pain

b)

Neuropathic Pain

26.

caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond only to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity

a)

Nociceptive Pain

b)

Neuropathic Pain

27.

Caused by activity in neural pathways in response to potentially tissue-damaging stimuli

a)

Nociceptive Pain

b)

Neuropathic Pain

28.

Visceral pain

a)

Nociceptive Pain

b)

Neuropathic Pain

29.

Deep somatic pain

a)

Nociceptive Pain

b)

Neuropathic Pain

30.

Post operative pain and arthritis

a)

Nociceptive Pain

b)

Neuropathic Pain

31.

caused by damage or disease affecting any part of the nervous system initiated or caused by primary lesion or dysfunction in the nervous system

a)

Nociceptive Pain

b)

Neuropathic Pain

32.

caused by damage or disease affecting any part of the nervous system initiated or caused by primary lesion or dysfunction in the nervous system

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

33.

Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

34.

Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain.

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

35.

Extreme pain

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

36.

State of an exaggerated or prolonged perception of pain produced by a noxious stimulus.

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

37.

a burning or prickling sensation, most common when there is sustained pressure on a nerve

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

38.

'pins and needles

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

39.

Stabbing, burning, and often severe pain due to an irritated or damaged nerves.

a)

Hypoalgesia

b)

Allodynia

c)

Hyperalgesia

d)

Paresthesia

e)

Neuralgia

40.

most common complication of shingles

a)

Postherpetic neuralgia

b)

Distal polyneuropathy

c)

Trigeminal neuralgia

d)

Central Post stroke pain

41.

. The condition affects nerve fibers and skin, causing burning pain that lasts long after the rash and blisters of shingles disappear.

a)

Postherpetic neuralgia

b)

Distal polyneuropathy

c)

Trigeminal neuralgia

d)

Central Post stroke pain

42.

complication associated with Diabetes characterized by slowly progressive toe and distal foot numbness, allodynia and paresthesia

a)

Postherpetic neuralgia

b)

Distal polyneuropathy

c)

Trigeminal neuralgia

d)

Central Post stroke pain

43.

a pain due to damage in the trigeminal nerve (nerve that carries sensation from face to brain) severe, shooting or jabbing pain that may feel like an electric shock in the facial muscle.

a)

Postherpetic neuralgia

b)

Distal polyneuropathy

c)

Trigeminal neuralgia

d)

Central Post stroke pain

44.

neuropathic pain condition characterized by pain and sensory abnormalities that manifest in the body parts that correspond to the area of the brain that has been injured by the cerebrovascular lesion

a)

Postherpetic neuralgia

b)

Distal polyneuropathy

c)

Trigeminal neuralgia

d)

Central Post stroke pain

45.

– pain that feels like it’s coming from a body part that’s no longer there (amputation)

a)

PHANTOM PAIN

b)

PSYCHOGENIC PAIN

c)

BREAKTHROUGH PAIN

d)

INCIDENT PAIN

46.

–physical pain caused by mental and emotional factors (broken heart, grief)

a)

PHANTOM PAIN

b)

PSYCHOGENIC PAIN

c)

BREAKTHROUGH PAIN

d)

INCIDENT PAIN

47.

Otherwise known psychological or emotional pain

a)

PHANTOM PAIN

b)

PSYCHOGENIC PAIN

c)

BREAKTHROUGH PAIN

d)

INCIDENT PAIN

48.

severe pain (cancer)

a)

PHANTOM PAIN

b)

PSYCHOGENIC PAIN

c)

BREAKTHROUGH PAIN

d)

INCIDENT PAIN

49.

– caused by intense or damaging stimuli

a)

PHANTOM PAIN

b)

PSYCHOGENIC PAIN

c)

BREAKTHROUGH PAIN

d)

INCIDENT PAIN

50.

goal is to improve patient comfort and quality of life

a)

Primary pain

b)

Acute pain management

c)

Chronic pain

51.

goal is to improve patient comfort and quality of life

a)

Primary pain

b)

Acute pain management

c)

Chronic pain

52.

Analgesics are agents that relieve pain by elevating the pain threshold without disturbing consciousness or altering sensory modalities. They only decrease the pain and alter or to disturb the consciousness or altering sensory modalities

a)

1st correct

b)

2nd correct

c)

both correct

d)

both wrong

53.

goal is to improve patient comfort and quality of life

a)

Primary pain

b)

Acute pain management

c)

Chronic pain

54.

Narcotics Those drugs which possess both an analgesic and sedative properties. refer to a variety of substances with abuse or addictive potential

a)

1st correct

b)

2nd correct

c)

both correct

d)

both wrong

55.

disease causing microorganism

a)

PATHOGEN

b)

PYROGEN

56.

is a enzyme that converts arachidonic acid to prostaglandin

a)

cox enzyme

b)

mao enzyme

c)

net enzyme

57.

Include over-the-counter pain relievers and fever depressants

a)

Mild Analgesics

b)

Narcotic analgesic

c)

both

d)

none

58.

Physician who will prescribed should have a S2 license

a)

Analgesics

b)

Narcotics

59.

fever causing component of microorganism

a)

PATHOGEN

b)

PYROGEN

60.

The hypothalamus can increase or regulate body temperature as response to prostaglandin. it can make your body heat up causing fever

a)

1st correct

b)

2nd correct

c)

both correct

d)

both wrong

61.

Heat

a)

calor

b)

rubor

c)

dolor

d)

palor

e)

functio laesa

62.

Heat

a)

rubor

b)

dolor

c)

palor

d)

functio laesa

e)

calor

63.

Pain

a)

rubor

b)

dolor

c)

palor

d)

functio laesa

e)

calor

64.

Redness

a)

rubor

b)

dolor

c)

palor

d)

functio laesa

e)

calor

65.

consititutive (type of COX enzyme that is very useful in the body)

a)

cox 1

b)

cox 2

66.

Can increase mucosal barrier in the stomach

a)

cox 1

b)

cox 2

67.

Can also increase the functioning the kidney

a)

cox 1

b)

cox 2

68.

Enhances the renal blood flow

a)

cox 1

b)

cox 2

69.

Initiate inflammation, fever, edema, pain

a)

cox 1

b)

cox 2

70.

N-acetyl-p-aminophenol

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

71.

inhibits peripheral PG synthesis

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

72.

Also known as Paracetamol

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

73.

Acetaminophen produces a metabolite known as _____ that can damage the liver because this decreases the glutathione in the liver

a)

NAPQI

b)

CYP1A2

c)

N-acetylcysteine

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

74.

TREATMENT OF HEPATOTOXICITY CAUSED BY NAPQI

a)

ACETAMINOPHEN

b)

CYP1A2

c)

N-acetylcysteine

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

75.

Carboxylic acid containing drug

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

76.

Acetylsalicylic acid

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

77.

Mechanism of action: Blocks COX irreversibly

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

78.

With anti-pyretic, anti-inflammatory, analgesic and anti-platelet effect

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

79.

hyperpyrexia & Dull pain (Headache arthritis, dysmennorhea)

a)

0.25-0.5 g

b)

3-4 g

c)

100-325 mg

80.

- Anti-inflammatory: Rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritis (first-line drugs)

a)

0.25-0.5 g

b)

3-4 g

c)

100-325 mg

81.

Antiplatelet: prevention of thromboembolism, stroke, myocardial infarction

a)

0.25-0.5 g

b)

3-4 g

c)

100-325 mg

82.

It can prevent blood clot

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

83.

Anti-cancer (for colon cancer= can decrease polyps in the colon)

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

84.

can cause Reye's syndrome

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Aspirin

c)

Sulindac

d)

Ibuprofen

85.

Tx for overdose of salicylate drugs

a)

ACETAMINOPHEN

b)

CYP1A2

c)

N-acetylcysteine

d)

Sodium bicarbonate

86.

Reye’s syndrome is associated with aspirin consumption by children with viral illness. Manifested by Hepatic failure & encephalopathy

a)

1st correct

b)

2nd correct

c)

both correct

d)

both wrong

87.

Common manifestation of Salicylism is tinnitus

a)

true

b)

false

88.

less effective analgesics than aspirin Do not inhibit platelet aggregation

a)

true

b)

false

89.

Diflunisal

a)

Voltaren

b)

Cataflam

c)

Dolobid

d)

Toradol

e)

Tolobid

90.

Can decrease GI upset nagccause ng Diclofenac pero it can result to diarrhea

a)

Diclofenac + Misoprostol

b)

Diclofenac + Omeprazole

c)

0.1% ophthalmic preparation

d)

A topical gel (3%)

91.

Capable to reduce gastric ulceration caused by diclofenac however, nagccause namna siya ng risk sa renal damage

a)

Diclofenac + Misoprostol

b)

Diclofenac + Omeprazole

c)

0.1% ophthalmic preparation

d)

A topical gel (3%)

92.

Sulfoxide- prodrug

a)

Sulindac

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Etodolac and Tolmetin

d)

Ibuprofen

93.

Sulfoxide- prodrug

a)

Clinoril

b)

Toradol

c)

Tolectin

d)

Midol

94.

It is reversibly metabolized to the active sulfide metabolite

a)

Clinoril

b)

Toradol

c)

Tolectin

d)

Midol

95.

It is reversibly metabolized to the active sulfide metabolite

a)

Sulindac

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Etodolac and Tolmetin

d)

Ibuprofen

96.

mainly as an analgesic, not as an anti-inflammatory drug

a)

Sulindac

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Etodolac and Tolmetin

d)

Ibuprofen

97.

mainly as an analgesic, not as an antiinflammatory drug

a)

Clinoril

b)

Toradol

c)

Tolectin

d)

Midol

98.

Replace morphine in some situations involving mild to moderate postsurgical pain

a)

Clinoril

b)

Toradol

c)

Tolectin

d)

Midol

99.

Replace morphine in some situations involving mild to moderate postsurgical pain

a)

Sulindac

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Etodolac and Tolmetin

d)

Ibuprofen

100.

Use: mgt. of post surgical pain (SHOULD NOT BE USE NMT 5 days it can cause nephrotoxicity

a)

Sulindac

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Etodolac and Tolmetin

d)

Ibuprofen

101.

Use: mgt. of post surgical pain (SHOULD NOT BE USE NMT 5 days it can cause nephrotoxicity

a)

Clinoril

b)

Toradol

c)

Tolectin

d)

Midol

102.

Racemic acetic acid derivative

a)

Sulindac

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Etodolac and Tolmetin

d)

Ibuprofen

103.

Racemic acetic acid derivative

a)

Clinoril

b)

Toradol

c)

Tolectin

d)

Midol

104.

Induce uric acid stone formation

a)

Sulindac

b)

Ketorolac

c)

Etodolac and Tolmetin

d)

Ibuprofen

105.

Induce uric acid stone formation

a)

Clinoril

b)

Toradol

c)

Tolectin

d)

Midol

106.

effective in closing patent ductus arteriosus in preterm infants

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Oxaprozin

d)

Indomethacin

107.

2400 mg ibuprofen is equivalent to 5 g of aspirin in anti-inflammatory effect

a)

true

b)

false

108.

Used in primary knee osteoarthritis.

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Oxaprozin

d)

Indomethacin

109.

ibuprofen

a)

Midol

b)

Medicol

c)

Advil

d)

Ponstan

110.

only NSAID presently marketed as a single enantiomer

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Oxaprozin

d)

Indomethacin

111.

Effective for the usual rheumatologic indications

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Oxaprozin

d)

Indomethacin

112.

Associated with pseudoporphyria and photosensitivity

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Naproxen

c)

Oxaprozin

d)

Indomethacin

113.

Naproxen

a)

Naprosyn

b)

Flanax

c)

Skelan

d)

Dolfenal

114.

Diclofenac

a)

Voltaren

b)

Cataflam

c)

Dolobid

d)

Toradol

e)

Tolobid

115.

derived from salicylic acid but it is not metabolized by salicylic acid of salicylate

a)

Voltaren

b)

Cataflam

c)

Toradol

d)

Dolobid

116.

derived from salicylic acid but it is not metabolized by salicylic acid of salicylate

a)

Voltaren

b)

Cataflam

c)

Dolobid

d)

Toradol

e)

Tolobid