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Worksheets

Orion 43-59

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following physicochemical characteristics of a drug decreases its transdermal penetration?

a)

nonionic from

b)

high melting point

c)

high concentration

d)

molecular weight below 500

2.

Which of the following is the main purpose of levigating a suspension during extemporaneous compounding?

a)

improve flowability

b)

reduce particle size

c)

reduce the zeta potential.

d)

prevent microbial growth

3.

suspension character?

a)

Hydrophobic to prevent aggregation.

b)

Hydrophilic to prevent aggregation.

c)

Hydrophobic to increase gastric empty.

d)

hydrophilic to increase gastric empty

4.

vit c add as

a)

Preservative

b)

coloring agent

c)

flavoring agent

5.

Rate limiting step in oral dosage forms?

a)

diffusion

b)

disintegration

c)

Dissolution

6.

Which of the following is the ratio of mass to the volume of object determined at a specific temp?

a)

Specific Gravity

b)

Density

c)

Absolute Density

d)

Apparent Density

7.

Bentonite is?

a)

Preservative

b)

emulsifying agent

c)

Suspending agent

d)

vehicle

8.

The ratio of the density of the substance or mass to the volume at a specified condition of temperature What is this?

a)

Specific gravity

b)

Relative density

c)

Absolute density

d)

Something density

9.

Vacuum IS? Vacuum Mixer Machine is designed to mix and Blend Materials under Controlled Vaccum Environment

a)

an environment maintained at a pressure below atmospheric

b)

a process that increases ambient pressure above atmospheric

c)

a temperature-controlled environment without pressure control

d)

a method to add air to materials during mixing

10.

Uniformity test applied to determine the content of the ingredient in tablets?

a)

Bioequivalence

b)

Dissolution

c)

Purity

d)

Potency

11.

Expiry of Compounded syrup contain water is?

a)

7 days

b)

9 days

c)

14 days

d)

1 month

12.

Role of boric acid in eye prescription?

a)

Thinking

b)

Stable

13.

route of administration Highest bioavailability?

a)

IM

b)

SC

c)

inhalation

d)

tablets

14.

Which of the following is a component added as a binder?

a)

Lactose

b)

starch

c)

Previn phenyl

15.

Observing evidence of instability during compounding is an important step. Which of the following is happened should have discarded the product and not dispense it?

a)

Color intensity

b)

Weight Changing

c)

Size of the holder

d)

Chemical potency

16.

Which of the following is the ratio of the mass to the volume of object determined at a specified temperature?

a)

specific gravity

b)

relative density

c)

absolute density

d)

apparent density

17.

Which routes of administration result in faster absorption?

a)

oral

b)

Rectal

c)

topical

18.

Which of the following products is an oleaginous ointment base? Oleaginous base consists of oil+fatex:- Soft paraffin (Petroleum) • Polysorb • Aquabase • Anhydrous lanolin

a)

Soft paraffin (Petroleum)

b)

Polysorb

c)

Aquabase

d)

Anhydrous lanolin

19.

Which of the following is the benefit from adding a conjugate of polyethylene glycol (PEG) in some medications like Peg-interferon?

a)

to extend the half-life of medications

b)

to extend the shelf-life of medications

c)

to enhance the effect of the medications

d)

to enhance the elimination of the medications

20.

Which of the following resources is best to use for common compounding techniques and ingredients?

a)

Red book

b)

Drug facts and comparison

c)

Martindale: the complete drug reference

d)

Remington: the science and practice of pharmacy

21.

Which of the following is the most appropriate source for information on compounding medications?

a)

Micromedex

b)

Orange book

c)

A drug information website

d)

United states pharmacopoeia (USP)

22.

Oleaginous base for ointment?

a)

linoline

b)

White petroleum

23.

Which of the following capsules sizes has the largest size suitable for human patient?

a)

no. 0

b)

no. 1

c)

no. 5

d)

no. 000

24.

Which of the following is the term used to describe the pharmaceutical technique of grinding an insoluble substance to fine powder while wet?

a)

trituration

b)

levigation

c)

attrition

d)

milling

25.

Sterile preparation is a very complex manufacturing procedure that requires attention tothe ingredients added in it. Which of the following ingredients can be added when preparing a sterile drug?

a)

Antioxidants

b)

2% Benzyl alcohol

c)

Bactericidal agents

d)

1.9% Sodium Chloride

26.

Special techniques are required during compounding of emulsion. Which of the following techniques is used for compounding of emulsion?

a)

dry gum

b)

fusion mold

c)

compression

d)

heat technique

27.

A drug has a volume of distribution of 35L in a 70 Kg man. Which of the following best describes Its distribution?

a)

it is bound to DNA

b)

it is dissolved in lipids

c)

it has low bioavailability

d)

it is mostly distributed in plasma

28.

Which of the following is the term used to describe the pharmaceutical technique of grinding an insoluble substance to fine powder while wet?

a)

trituration

b)

levigation

c)

attrition

d)

milling

29.

A 5-year-old girl admitted to the Pediatric Intensive Care Unit (PICU) with severe hypotension. The physician prescribed dopamine infusion at a rate of 5 mcg/kilogram/minute. The child weights 15 kilograms. How many milliliters are needed from an 80 mg/ml dopamine vial to prepare the 24-hour infusion?

a)

1 ml

b)

1.4 ml

c)

2 ml

d)

2.5 ml

30.

Which of the following pharmaceutical activities should follow the USP chapter 797 standards?

a)

Compounding ophthalmic preparations

b)

Compounding of sterile preparations

c)

Dispensing of non-hazardous preparation

d)

Compounding of extemporaneous preparations

31.

Boric acid in preparation?

a)

puffer

b)

stabilizes

c)

preservative

32.

What dosage form should store at refrigerated even if it not opened?

a)

eye drops

b)

oral solutions

c)

suppository

d)

tablets

33.

Which of the following is the most practical method for sterilizing ophthalmic solution?

a)

autoclaving for 15 minutes

b)

autoclaving for 30 minutes

c)

membrane filtration through 0.2-um filter

d)

membrane filtration through 5-um filter

34.

Which product enhance powder flow while using automatic filling tablet machine?

a)

Gelatin

b)

Cellulose

c)

Lubricant

35.

prepration oil with water

a)

suspension

b)

emulsion

36.

is a heterogeneous mixture in which the solute particles do not dissolve

a)

suspension

b)

emulsion

37.

The easiest way to take ear drops?

a)

foam

b)

solution

c)

suspension

38.

why is there XL dosage form?

a)

to cover the bitter taste of the tablet

b)

slow release

c)

to make easier to swallow

d)

sustained release or Extended Release

39.

When adding PEG to a composite, which effect is expected?

a)

It increases clearance

b)

It increases the size of distribution

c)

It increases extended half‑life

d)

It acts as a surfactant

40.

What is a mixture of dispersed solid in a liquid called?

a)

Solution

b)

Suspension

c)

Emulsion

41.

A suspended agent is important for preparing an oral suspension. Which of the following is the characteristic of this suspending agent?

a)

Hydrophilic, to inhibit agglomeration

b)

Hydrophobic, to inhibit agglomeration

c)

Hydrophilic, to prolong gastric emptying time

d)

Hydrophobic, to prolong gastric emptying time

42.

What is the usual shelf life for reconstituted and refrigerated antibiotic suspension?

a)

5 days

b)

7 days

c)

14 days

d)

30 days

43.

Which of the following drugs may decrease heart rate?

a)

Hydrochlorothiazide

b)

Isoproterenol

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Metoprolol

44.

Which of the following is an indication for the use of streptokinase?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Neoplastic disorders

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Impaired fat absorption

45.

The effects of four anti‑hypertensive drug classes (A–D) on the renin–angiotensin system are shown in the accompanying table. Which class is represented by the drug labeled C?

a)

Diuretics (D)

b)

Direct Renin inhibitors (A)

c)

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (C)

d)

Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors (B)

46.

A 69‑year‑old woman presents with severe dry cough for one week. She was recently prescribed hydrochlorothiazide and captopril for hypertension, and salbutamol and fexofenadine for allergic asthma. Which drug is the most likely reason for her complaint?

a)

Captopril

b)

Salbutamol

c)

Fexofenadine

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide

47.

Which of the following best describes the role of colipase in digestion of lipids?

a)

It breaks down triglycerides into absorbable free fatty acids

b)

It hydrolyzes cholesteryl esters into cholesterol and free fatty acids

c)

It acts as co‑enzyme for the action of lipase in the presence of bile acids

d)

It plays an important role in the degradation and excretion of phospholipids

48.

A 37‑year‑old breastfeeding mother has consistent high blood pressure. Which of the following anti‑hypertensives is most hazardous for the child?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Verapamil

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Propranolol

49.

Which component of the electrocardiograph (ECG) represents atrial depolarization?

a)

P wave

b)

QRS complex

c)

T wave

d)

ST segment

50.

Refer to the electrocardiogram waveform diagram showing labeled P wave, PR interval, ST segment, QRS complex, and QT interval. Which of the following in electrocardiograph (ECG) represents the absolute refractory period?

a)

P wave

b)

PR interval

c)

ST segment

d)

QRS complex

51.

Which of the following medications is a class IA antiarrhythmic agent?

a)

quinidine

b)

flecainide

c)

verapamil

d)

amiodarone

52.

Which one of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of enalapril?

a)

pregnancy

b)

hypertension

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

congestive heart failure

53.

Which of the following is the best classification for bisoprolol?

a)

beta 1 adrenergic receptor agonist

b)

beta 1 adrenergic receptor blocker

c)

alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blocker

d)

non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker

54.

Which of the following is the Vaughan Williams classification for the antiarrhythmic drug procainamide?

a)

class IV

b)

class III

c)

class II

d)

class IA

55.

Which medication can cause orthostatic hypotension?

a)

prazosin

b)

donepezil

c)

rivastigmine

d)

spironolactone

56.

Which of the following can the pharmacological property of hydralazine be directly responsible for?

a)

Relaxation of cardiac muscle

b)

Blockade of dopamine receptor

c)

Relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

d)

Contraction of vascular smooth muscle

57.

A 31-year-old hypertensive man was treated for addiction to amphetamine and discharged on an antihypertensive drug. Later, he presented with severe depression. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed?

a)

losartan

b)

captopril

c)

methyldopa

d)

hydrochlorothiazide

58.

Which of the following is most likely the reason for using amlodipine in the treatment of hypertension?

a)

selective beta 1 blocker

b)

selective alpha 1 blocker

c)

calcium channel blocker

d)

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

59.

A 90-year-old man with diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and congestive heart failure presents with nausea, anorexia, and visual changes. Current home medications include metformin, aspirin, lisinopril, atorvastatin, and digoxin. Laboratory results show serum creatinine 250 μmol/L (normal 44–115), blood urea nitrogen 15 mmol/L (normal 2.8–8.9), sodium 140 mmol/L (normal 134–146), potassium 4 mmol/L (normal 3.5–5.1), chloride 100 mmol/L (normal 97–108), bicarbonate 23 mmol/L (normal 21–28), calcium 2.5 mmol/L (normal 2.15–2.62), and digoxin (men) 3 ng/L (normal 0.8–2). Which of the following most likely explains the patient’s symptoms?

a)

digoxin–lisinopril interaction

b)

adverse drug reaction of atorvastatin

c)

congestive heart failure exacerbation

d)

high serum digoxin level due to renal impairment

60.

Which of the hypertensive therapies is preferred to be used during the acute phase of ischemic stroke if elevated blood pressure should be treated?

a)

lisinopril

b)

nicardipine

c)

hydrochlorothiazide

d)

metoprolol succinate

61.

Which is the most appropriate time to draw a plasma blood sample for digoxin monitoring?

a)

2 hours post-dose

b)

4 hours post-dose

c)

5 hours post-dose

d)

6 hours post-dose

62.

Which of the following parenteral anticoagulants require routine monitoring of coagulation lab parameters?

a)

UFH intravenously

b)

UFH subcutaneously

c)

enoxaparin subcutaneously

d)

fondaparinux subcutaneously

63.

A 36-year-old woman in her first trimester of pregnancy is recently diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following is the best and safest therapy?

a)

Aliskiren

b)

Captopril

c)

Valsartan

d)

Labetalol

64.

Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is considered a rate control drug?

a)

sotalol

b)

flecainide

c)

amiodarone

d)

propafenone

65.

Which of the following is the most important decision to be taken for this patient before becoming pregnant?

a)

add methyldopa

b)

discontinue lisinopril

c)

continue same treatment in pregnancy

d)

decrease lisinopril dose to 2.5 mg once daily

66.

A 45-year-old male is admitted to the hospital for craniotomy. Phenytoin has been prescribed to him after the surgery. Before initiation of the drug the pharmacist suggested to do pharmacogenetics test and the results revealed that the patient carries the HLA-B*58:01 allele. Which of the following adverse effects is associated with this patient's allele type?

a)

bleeding

b)

high blood pressure

c)

increased risk of jaundice

d)

severe cutaneous reaction

67.

A 4-week infant is diagnosed with patent ductus arteriosus. The doctor wants to avoid performing surgery. Which drug will be administered to avoid a surgical closure?

a)

allopurinol

b)

indomethacin

c)

pseudoephedrine

d)

brompheniramine

68.

Which of the following medications to be used under caution is in patients with ischemic heart disease?

a)

lisinopril

b)

celecoxib

c)

metoprolol

d)

simvastatin

69.

A 45-year-old patient with atrial fibrillation is treated with amiodarone 400 mg/day and rivaroxaban 20 mg/day with the evening meal. He has concern about his drugs routine monitoring. Which of the following would be the best recommended regarding amiodarone monitoring?

a)

Slit-lamp examination at baseline and annually

b)

Renal function tests at baseline and annually

c)

Cardiac enzymes at baseline and annually

d)

Liver function tests at baseline and every 6 months

70.

A 28-year-old woman presents with tachycardia and palpitations (ventricular ectopic beats). History revealed essential hypertension and asthma. Patient wants to conceive (mean become pregnant). BLOOD PRESSURE: 147/98 mmHg. What is the most likely alternative to the β-blocker in terms of efficacy on pressure, heart rate and relative safety?

a)

Prazosin

b)

Enalapril

c)

Diltiazem

d)

Methyldopa

71.

A 68-year-old woman with a history of type-2 diabetes and dyslipidemia is on atenolol and lisinopril. The doctor wants to start statin as her estimated 10-year ASCVD risk is 10%. Which of the following would be the recommended statin in (mg)?

a)

Atorvastatin 10 (moderate intensity statin)

b)

Atorvastatin 40 (HIGH intensity statin)

c)

Simvastatin 10 (low intensity statin)

d)

Simvastatin 80

72.

A 60-year-old man presents with complain of chest pain twice weekly. History revealed chronic stable angina with hypertension and is on atenolol 100 mg daily. BP: 147/93 mmHg; 65/min. What is the best management?

a)

Add lisinopril 20 mg daily

b)

Add amlodipine 5 mg daily

c)

Diltiazem 30 mg every 8 hours

d)

Add isosorbide dinitrate 20 mg twice daily

73.

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in heart failure?

a)

Captopril

b)

Celecoxib

c)

Furosemide

d)

Amiodarone

74.

A 76-year-old cardiac male patient was transferred to the hospital for palpitation with a heart rate of 177 bpm. He is a heavy smoker and his past medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia and coronary artery disease. His medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, carvedilol, valsartan and atorvastatin. He was diagnosed as having fibrillation. Which of the following is the CHADS2-VASC score for this patient?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

75.

Which of the following beta-blockers is indicated for use in heart failure patients?

a)

Esmolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Labetalol

d)

Carvedilol

76.

Which of the following medication should be prescribed to the patients with angina to treat an acute attack?

a)

Ranolazine

b)

Nitroglycerin skin patch

c)

Isosorbide dinitrate SR capsules

d)

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets

77.

Which of the following antihypertensive agents is most likely to cause peripheral edema?

a)

Atenolol

b)

Perindopril

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Candesartan

78.

Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of celecoxib?

a)

Ischemic heart disease

b)

Renal failure

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

79.

Which of the following medications is a class-IC antiarrhythmic agent?

a)

Quinidine

b)

Flecainide

c)

Verapamil

d)

Amiodarone

80.

Which of the following is an indication for the use of indapamide?

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

Cardiac dysrhythmias

c)

Essential hypertension

d)

Acute myocardial infarction

81.

Which of the following calcium channel blockers is a non-dihydropyridin drug?

a)

Nicardipine

b)

Amlodipine

c)

Nifedipine

d)

Diltiazem

82.

Which of the following drugs when given with verapamil can result in a major drug interaction?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Sulindac

c)

Naproxen

d)

Piroxicam

83.

Which of the following is the pharmacological property of atenolol?

a)

nonselective beta-blocker

b)

cardioselective beta 1-blocker

c)

cardioselective beta 2-blocker

d)

cardioselective beta 1-agonist

84.

What is the pharmacological property of cardiac glycosides?

a)

alpha 1 blocker

b)

potent bronchodilator

c)

positive inotropic effect

d)

negative inotropic effect

85.

Which of the following is the reason of using verapamil as an antiarrhythmic drug?

a)

it suppresses phase four depolarization

b)

it stimulates the breakdown of adrenaline

c)

it inhibits slow inward current of phase two of action potential

d)

it increases the excitability of pyramidal neurons in the amygdala

86.

Which of the following is the best classification for Bisoprolol?

a)

beta 1 adrenergic receptor agonist

b)

beta 1 adrenergic receptor blocker

c)

alpha 1 adrenergic receptor blocker

d)

non-selective beta-adrenergic receptor blocker

87.

Which of the following is a pharmacological action of dopamine?

a)

elevation of blood pressure

b)

paralysis of skeletal muscle

c)

stimulation of gastric secretion

d)

activation of cardiac contraction

88.

Which of the following medications is a class-IV antiarrhythmic agent?

a)

quinidine

b)

flecainide

c)

verapamil

d)

amiodarone

89.

Which of the following mechanisms of actions most appropriately describes nifedipine?

a)

selective beta blocker

b)

calcium channel blocker

c)

non-selective beta blocker

d)

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

90.

Which of the following is the most likely side effect to be monitored when a patient is prescribed amiodarone?

a)

ptosis

b)

tinnitus

c)

pulmonary toxicity

d)

pseudomembranous entercolitis

91.

Which one of the following conditions is a contraindication for the use of angiotensin‑converting enzyme inhibitors?

a)

hypertension

b)

diabetes mellitus

c)

idiopathic angioedema

d)

congestive heart failure

92.

Which of the following is a centrally acting alpha‑2 adrenergic agonist?

a)

enalapril

b)

labetalol

c)

clonidine

d)

nifedipine

93.

Which of the following antihypertensive agents is most likely to cause peripheral edema?

a)

atenolol

b)

perindopril

c)

amlodipine

d)

candesartan

94.

A 47‑year‑old man is admitted to hospital with atrial arrhythmia and is prescribed amiodarone. Which of the following is the most likely side effect to be monitored?

a)

ptosis

b)

tinnitus

c)

pulmonary toxicity

d)

pseudomembranous enter colitis

95.

Which of the following is a benefit of using dopamine in the treatment of cardiogenic shock?

a)

It selectively constricts renal and mesenteric beds

b)

It increases the force of myocardial contraction

c)

It lacks peripheral vasoconstriction effect

d)

It decreases cardiac output

96.

A 75‑year‑old woman with congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin to improve cardiac muscle contractility. She has a marked improvement in her symptoms. What cellular action of digoxin is responsible for its pharmacological action?

a)

Inhibition of cAMP synthesis

b)

Inhibition of Na+/K+ ATPase enzyme

c)

Inhibition of β‑adrenergic stimulation

d)

Inhibition of mitochondrial calcium release

97.

What is the main advantage of losartan over lisinopril?

a)

Less hyperkalemia

b)

Safe during pregnancy

c)

Less induction of cough

d)

Higher oral bioavailability

98.

Which of the following is a selective α1 blocker?

a)

labetalol

b)

terazosin

c)

clonidine

d)

captopril

99.

Case: A patient has hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia, takes lisinopril and prazosin, and remains uncontrolled. He is having orthostatic hypotension. What is the best management change?

a)

Add finstride

b)

Stop prazosin

c)

Discontinue prazosin and change to alfuzosin

100.

Case: A patient has hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia, takes lisinopril and prazosin, and remains uncontrolled. He has side effect orthostatic hypotension. What is the best management change?

a)

Add finstride

b)

Stop prazosin

c)

Discontinue prazosin and change to alfuzosin

101.

An elderly patient complaining of urine incontinence uses many drugs for hypertension and diabetes. His doctor prescribed prazosin for his problem, but he had syncope and asked for an alternative. Which option is most appropriate?

a)

beta blocker

b)

diltiazem

c)

alfuzosin

d)

decrease dose of prazosin

102.

How much blood does the heart pump per minute?

a)

0.5 liters

b)

5 liters

c)

50 liters

103.

A common form of supraventricular tachycardia in teenagers is?

a)

atrial ectopic tachycardia

b)

atrial flutter

c)

junctional ectopic tachycardia

d)

AVNRT

104.

Which drugs are used for ventricular arrhythmias (VA) and supraventricular atrial arrhythmias (SVAA)?

a)

procainamide

b)

sotalol

c)

dofetilide

d)

flecainide or propafenone

105.

Responsible for generating the normal cardiac impulse is the:

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Purkinje fibers

106.

Anti‑arrhythmic patient with testing showing high TSH and low T3. Which drug is most likely responsible?

a)

phenytoin

b)

digoxin

c)

amiodarone

107.

A patient on amlodipine with hypertension has laboratory findings of hyperproteinemia. What should be given?

a)

ACEI

b)

alpha blocker

c)

CCB

108.

A 76‑year‑old male with palpitations has a heart rate of 177 bpm, is a heavy smoker, and has past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and coronary artery disease. Medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, carvedilol, valsartan, and atorvastatin. He is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. What is his CHA2DS2‑VASc score?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

109.

Case: A patient has difficulty voiding and is already on oxybutynin and lisinopril. What should be added?

a)

prazocin

b)

sildenafil

c)

alfuzosin

d)

doxazosin

110.

Which of the following is an angiotensin‑converting enzyme inhibitor?

a)

enalapril

b)

timolol

c)

doxazosin

d)

albuterol

111.

Aspirin given at inflammatory dose in myocardial infarction is:

a)

anticipated harmful

b)

anticipated beneficial

c)

unanticipated harmful

d)

unanticipated beneficial

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