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Procedures Final Study Guide

Total questions: 192

Worksheet time: 3hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The patient is prone the interpupillary line is perpendicular to IR, and the midsagittal is parallel to IR.  The C.R. is perpendicular to a point 3/4 of inch above and 3/4 of inch anterior to the E.A.M.  Which of the following choices could be used to critique the image?

               1.     occipital bone superimpose

               2.     sella turcica superimpose

               3.     orbital roofs superimpose

               4.     mandibular condyles superimposed

a)

only numbers 1 & 2 are correct

b)

Only numbers 2 and 3 are correct

c)

Only numbers 1,2,& 3 are correct

d)

Only numbers 2,3 & 4 are correct

2.

The patient is in the erect position with the median sagittal plane parallel to the IR, the interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR and the central ray directed perpendicularly to the IR, entering the patient's head directed to a point between outer canthus & EAM.  This position demonstrates:

a)

the frontal and ethmoid sinuses

b)

the maxillary sinuses

c)

the sphenoid sinuses

d)

All the sinuses are demonstrated

e)

Only the orbits are demonstrated

3.

Which group of sinuses is shaded (screened) in the frontal and lateral views of the illustration below?

a)

Maxillary

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Frontal

4.

Which baseline was used in the original Caldwell position?

a)

orbitomeatal line

b)

glabellomeatal line

c)

infraorbitomeatal line

d)

acanthomeatal line

e)

Caldwell gave no specific base line

5.

The Water's position is used primarily to demonstrate  which group of paranasal sinuses:

a)

frontal and ethmoid sinuses

b)

maxillary sinuses

c)

sphenoid sinuses

d)

mastoid sinuses

e)

none of these choices are correct

6.

The Water's position utilizes which baseline?

a)

glabellomeatal

b)

orbitomeatal

c)

infraorbitomeatal

d)

acanthomeatal

e)

none of these choices are correct

7.

If the O.M.L. line is less than 37o to the plane of the IR when doing a parietoacanthial projection, the resultant image would show:

a)

the petrous ridges are shown through the maxillary sinuses

b)

adequate demonstration of the antra

c)

the antra foreshortened

d)

None of the statements are correct

8.

What is the name of the structure that serves as a common passageway for noth food and air?

a)

Larynx

b)

Esophagus

c)

Epiglottis

d)

Pharynx

9.

The objective of the  Water's position is to demonstrate:

a)

detail of the orbital floor

b)

the antral roofs

c)

the frontal and ethmoid sinuses

d)

the sphenoid sinuses

10.

The posteroanterior projection of the wrist is ulnar deviation demonstrates the:

1. Coronoid free of self superimposition

2. Pisiform free of superimposition

3. Scaphoid not foreshortened

4. Interspace between the carpals on the medial side of the wrist

a)

1 & 3 are correct

b)

Only 2 is correct

c)

Only 3 is correct

d)

3 & 4 are correct

11.

For the axial projection of the nasal bones, which of the following localization lines must be perpendicular to the IR?

a)

glabellomeatal

b)

acanthomeatal

c)

orbitomeatal

d)

glabelloalveolar

12.

Which positioning line should be perpendicular to the plane of the IR for the AP axial (Towne) projection with a 37-degree caudad CR angle?

a)

OML

b)

IOML

c)

AML

d)

LML

13.

Where does the CR exit for a modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection of the facial bones?

a)

Nasion

b)

Glabella

c)

Acanthion

d)

Midorbits

e)

numbers 1,2, 3 and 4 are correct

14.

The Caldwell's position will demonstrate:

               1. pars petrosae through lower 1/3 of orbits

2. The petrosae filling the orbit

3.The occipital bone

         4.The frontal sinuses

a)

only number 1 is correct

b)

only number 2 is correct

c)

only numbers 1 and 4 are correct

d)

only number 4 is correct

e)

Numbers 1,2, 3 and 4 are correct

15.

The paranasal sinuses should routinely be radiographed with the patient in the:

a)

prone position

b)

erect position

c)

supine position

d)

The prone and supine postion are the most correct answer

e)

none of these choices are correct

16.

Radiographic exams of the paranasal sinuses require:

               1. close collimation

               2. short scale contrast

               3. upright projections

               4. lower K.V. than skull

a)

only numbers 1 and 2 are correct

b)

only numbers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

c)

None of the choices are correct

d)

Numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

17.

Which positioning line is placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR with a true lateral nasal bone projection?

a)

OML

b)

AML

c)

Midsagittal

d)

Interpupillary

18.

To demonstrate ribs above the diaphragm:

a)

Suspend respiration in expiration

b)

none of the options are correct

c)

use a breathing technique

d)

suspend respiration in inspiration

19.

Which of the facial bones forms the prominence of the cheeks?

a)

Maxilla

b)

Zygoma

c)

Palatine

d)

Mandible

e)

None of the choices are correct

20.

Which sinuses are best demonstrated with a parietoacanthial (Waters) projection?

a)

Maxillary

b)

Frontal and Maxillary

c)

Frontal, Maxillary and Ethmoid

d)

Sphenoid and Maxillary

21.

The Parietal bone is best demonstrated in which of the following Projections/view or method.

a)

Waters

b)

Lateral Skull

c)

SMV

d)

Caldwells

22.

The Nasal Septum is best demonstrated in which of the following projections/view or method.

a)

Waters

b)

Grashey

c)

Caldwells

d)

Lateral skull

e)

Straight PA

23.

A blowout fracture would be best demonstrated in which of the following projections/view or method.

a)

Modified Waters Projection

b)

Submentovertex Projection

c)

Caldwell method

d)

Lateral Skull

e)

Haas Method

24.

Nasal bones are routinely (always) radiographed

a)

Bilaterally

b)

Obliquely

c)

  In the SMV Projection

d)

Unilaterally

25.

How many bones make up the facial bone region?

a)

 

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

14

26.

The mastoid process is part of what bone?

a)

Occipital

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Ethomoid

27.

A patient enters the ED with trauma to the bony thorax. The initial radiographs reveal that there are fractured ribs and a possible pneumothorax of the left thorax. The physician orders a chest study to confirm the pneumothorax; however, the patient cannot stand. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the pneumothorax?

a)

Left lateral decubitus

b)

Right lateral decubitus

c)

Dorsal decubitus

d)

Ventral decubitus

28.

Which one of the following technical considerations is most critical for demonstrating air and/or fluid levels within the cranium?

a)

  Low kVp range

b)

  Detail image receptor (IR)

c)

  Short exposure time

d)

  Erect or horizontal x-ray beam positioning

29.

Which cranial bone possesses the sella turcica?

a)

  Temporal

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Occipital

e)

None of the above

30.

Which of the following project off the posterior, lateral border of the vertebral body?

a)

pedicles

b)

laminae

c)

spinous process

d)

articular processes

31.

What is the difference, in degrees, between the infraorbitomeatal and orbitomeatal lines?

a)

  10 degrees

b)

  15 to 22 degrees

c)

  7 to 8 degrees

d)

  20 to 25 degrees

e)

Sigmoid

32.

All of the sinuses intercommunicate with each other and with the nasal cavity.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

The submentovertical projection requires that the infraorbital meatal line (IOML) is placed perpendicular to the image receptor.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

For lateral view of the C-Spine the CR is centered to:

1. C-4

2. The level of the mastoid tip

3. A point 2 inches above the manubrium

4. A point 1.5 inches below the EAM

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only numbers 1 and 2 are correct

d)

Only Numbers 1,2 and 3 are correct

35.

Which of the following is NOT a correct evaluation criterion for the AP axial C-spine projection?

a)

Spinous processes are seen to be equal distances from the vertebral body lateral boders.

b)

CR is at the lower margin of the thyroid cartilage.

c)

C3-T2 vertebral bodies should be visualized.

d)

All the options are correct

36.

The RAO of the SI joint will demonstrate which of the following:

a)

The Joint remote from the IR

b)

The joint adjacent to the IR

c)

None of the statements are correct

d)

All of the statements are correct

37.

The LPO of the C-Spine will demonstrate which of the following:

a)

pedicles remote from the IR

b)

foramina adjacent to the IR

c)

zygapophyseal farthest from the IR

d)

All the statements are correct

e)

none of the statements are correct

38.

What are the lateral projections on a typical vertebra called?

a)

Spinous processes

b)

Articular processes

c)

transverse process

d)

pedicles

39.

The eye of the "scotty dog" is formed by:

a)

pedicle

b)

transverse process

c)

inferior articular process

d)

none of the above

40.

The front leg of the "scotty dog," is formed by:

a)

pedicle

b)

inferior articular process

c)

transverse process

d)

superior articular process

41.

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) because of a MVA. The patient is on a backboard and wearing a cervical collar. The technologist is concerned about the artifacts that the collar will project on the spine during the horizontal beam lateral projection. What should the technologist do in this situation?

a)

Remove the cervical collar but be careful not to more the patient's head.

b)

Leave the collar on during the exposure.

c)

Ask the patients to remove the collar herself.

d)

Ask a nurse to remove the collar and hold the patient's head.

42.

To demonstrate the cervical intervertebral foramina in the posteroanterior oblique projection, besides rotating the patient, it is necessary to:

a)

direct the CR 30 to 35 degrees caudad

b)

direct the CR 30 to 35 degrees cephalad

c)

direct the CR 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

d)

direct the CR 15 to 20 degrees caudad

43.

The medial malleolus is part of the

a)

Fibula

b)

Tibia

c)

Calcaneus

d)

Talus

44.

The cross-table lateral projection of the skull could :

  

               1.     Demonstrate fluid in the sphenoid sinus

               2.    Be beneficial in diagnosing a basal skull fracture

               3.     Demonstrate the parietal bone

               4.    Could be used to demonstrate the sella turcica

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only numbers 1 and 2 are correct

c)

Only numbers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

d)

None of the choices listed are correct

e)

Numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct

45.

Which cranial bone possesses the zygomatic process?

a)

Temporal

b)

Sphenoid

c)

Ethmoid

d)

Frontal

e)

  None of the above

46.

The projection for the Scaphoid requires that the CR be:

1. Perpendicular to the Scaphoid

2. angled 10 to 20 degrees toward the elbow

3. angled 5 to 10 degrees toward the elbow

4. angled 10 to 20 degrees medially

a)

Only 1 and 2 are correct

b)

Only 1 is correct

c)

Only 2 and 3 are correct

d)

Only 2, 3 and 4 are correct

47.

Which zygapophyseal joint is demonstrated with an LAO position of the lumbar spine?

a)

Neither. The LAO demonstrates the intervertebral foramina

b)

Right

c)

Left

d)

none of these statements are correct

48.

How much central ray (CR) angulation (if any) should be used for an AP projection of the toes?

a)

Keep CR perpendicular to IR

b)

5 degrees towards calcaneus

c)

10-15 Degrees towards calcaneus

d)

20 to 25 degrees towards calcaneus

49.

How much flexion of the knee is recommended for the lateral projection of the patella?

a)

5 to 10 degrees

b)

20 to 30 degrees

c)

35 to 40 degrees

d)

45 to 50 degrees

50.

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a possible transverse fracture of the patella. Which of the following routines would safely provide the best images of the patella?

a)

AP and horizontal beam lateral, no flexion of knee

b)

AP and 5 to 10 degrees flexion lateral

c)

AP and merchant method (tangential projection)

d)

PA and 45 Degree PA oblique with medical rotation

51.

What vertebra or segment is located at the level of the Xiphoid?

a)

T10

b)

T6

c)

T12

d)

L1

52.

For the AP weight-bearing knee projection on an average patient, the CR should be:

a)

10 degree caudad

b)

5 to 10 degree cephalad

c)

perpendicular to the image receptor

d)

perpendicular to the image receptor, but SID should be increased to 60 inches

53.

When radiographing the sacro-iliac joints with the patient rotated from the prone position, the join being radiographed is:

a)

closest to the IR

b)

farthest from the IR

c)

parallel to the IR

d)

parallel to the central ray

54.

A patient comes to radiology with an infection involving the sesamoid bones of the foot. Beyond the routine foot projections, which one of the following projections can be performed to best demonstrate these structures?

a)

PA axial Camp Coventry method

b)

AP weight-bearing foot projection

c)

Lateral weight-bearing projection

d)

Tangential projection

55.

The oblique projections of the cervical vertebrae are taken primarily to demonstrate the:

a)

intervertebral spaces

b)

intervertebral foramina

c)

spinous processes

d)

transverse processes

56.

A 3 to 5 degree caudad CR angle should be used for an AP knee projection for patients with thick thighs.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Which vertebra or segment is located at the level of the iliac crest?

a)

T5

b)

L1

c)

L3

d)

S1

e)

None of these are correct

58.

A correctly positioned lateral ankle will demonstrate the lateral malleolus superimposed over the posterior half of the tibia.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur?

a)

Intertrochanteric crest

b)

Fovea Capitis

c)

Obturator Foramen

d)

Lesser Trochanter

60.

In order to localize the long axis of the femoral neck

a)

Draw a line between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

b)

Draw a line one inch below trochanter

c)

Draw a line between greater trochanter and pubic symphysis

d)

Draw a line between the ASIS and upper border of the symphysis and mark its center point, then draw a line between this point and a point 1 inch distal to the greater trochanter

61.

The reasons for using a long SID for a lateral projection of the cervical spine include:

1. To preserve the normal curvature of the cervical spine

2. To project the pedicles over the vertebral bodies

3. To decrease magnification and distortion

a)

Only 1 is correct

b)

Only 2 is correct

c)

Only 3 is correct

d)

1 and 2 are correct

e)

1, 2 and 3 are correct

62.

Why must the lower limbs be rotated to 15 to 20 degrees internally for AP pelvis projection (nontrauma)?

a)

To separate the greater trochanters from the lesser trochanter

b)

To place the fovea capitis into a profiled position

c)

To open up the femoroacetabular joint

d)

To place the femoral neck parallel to the image receptor.

63.

The two bony landmarks that are palpated using the hip localization method are the:

a)

Ischial spine and the symphysis pubis

b)

symphysis pubis and the greater trochanter

c)

ASIS and the crest of ilium

d)

ASIS and the symphysis pubis

64.

What is one advantage of the lateromedial projection of the foot?

a)

It is more comfortable for the patient.

b)

It better demonstrates the intertarsal joints.

c)

The foot assumes a true lateral position.

d)

It opens the subtalar joint.

65.

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cranium reveals that the orbital roofs (plates) are not superimposed—one is slightly superior to the other. Which of the following positioning errors led to this radiographic outcome?

a)

Rotation

b)

Tilt

c)

  Excessive flexion

d)

  Excessive extension

66.

Which projection of the knee will best demonstrate the neck of the fibula without superimposition of the tibia?

a)

AP

b)

Lateral

c)

AP oblique with medial rotation

d)

AP oblique with lateral rotation

67.

Using the hip localization method, the femoral head can be located:

a)

1 in (2.5 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.

b)

1 1/2 in (4 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.

c)

2 1/2 in (6 to 7 cm) below the midpoint of the imaginary line between the two bony landmarks.

d)

At the level of the symphysis pubis.

68.

Gonadal shielding of the male patient for the AP pelvis projection requires that the top of the shield is not extended above the level of:

a)

the ASIS

b)

the ischial spine

c)

the inferior margin of the symphysis pubis

d)

none of the options; gonadal shielding cannot be used due to possible covering of pertinent anatomy.

69.

In the submentovertex position, the central ray is directed:

a)

from the gonion to the vertex

b)

from the inion to the vertex

c)

from the opitc foramen to

d)

from the glabella to the vertex

e)

None of these statements are correct

70.

A patient enters the emergency department (ED) having sustained trauma to the pelvis. The patient's main complaint is about her left hip. Which of the following projections should be taken first to rule out fracture or dislocation?

a)

AP Pelvis

b)

AP projection of the left hip

c)

Axiolateral (Inferosuperior) projection of the left hip

d)

Unilateral frog-leg projection of the left hip

71.

A patient comes to radiology with a request for a right hip study. He is from an extended care facility and is confused about the cause of the injury. The technologist takes an AP pelvis, and when the lateral frog-leg projection is attempted, the patient complains loudly about the pain in his affected hip. What should the technologist do to complete the study?

a)

Continue to position the patient but more the affected limb more gently.

b)

Perform the AP pelvis projection only

c)

Perform the axiolateral (inferosuperior) projection

d)

Perform the anterior pelvis (Taylor) outlet projection

72.

A study of prosthetic hip demonstrates that the end of the prosthesis is cut off on the AP projection, but the entire device demonstrated on the lateral projection. What should the technologist do next?

a)

Repeat both the AP and lateral projections

b)

Repeat AP projection only.

c)

Ask another technologist for his or her opinion.

d)

Ask the radiologist if he or she wants the AP projection repeated.

73.

The term pelvic girdle refers to the total pelvis including the sacrum and coccyx.

a)

True

b)

False - Girdle

74.

Only a small part of the lesser trochanter, if any, will be visible on a well-positioned axiolateral (infersuperior) lateral hip.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

If a patient has excessive external rotation of one foot, a fractured hip may be indicated.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the C4-C5 zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine?

a)

AP axial

b)

Posterior Oblique

c)

Anterior Oblique

d)

Lateral

77.

What type of CR angle is required for posterior oblique (LPO/ RPO) positions of the cervical spine?

a)

15 degree cephalad

b)

5 degree cephalad

c)

15 degree caudad

d)

None. The CR is perpendicular to the IR

78.

In reference to the AP of the sacrum, which of the following is/are correct:

1. The CR is angled 15 degrees cephalad

2. Feces could obscure this projection of the sacrum

3. If the CR is not correctly angled, the sacrum will be superimposed on itself

4. The CR forms a 90 degree with the IR

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only numbers 1 & 3 are correct

c)

Only numbers 3 & 4 are correct

d)

Only Numbers 1,2 & 3 are correct

79.

For the posterior oblique projection of the SI joints the:

1. Patient is oblique 25 to 30 degrees

2. LPO will visualize the right joint

3. RPO will visualize the right joint

4. This exam requires that both sides be done

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only numbers 1,2 and 4 are correct

d)

Numbers 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

80.

Which of the following is/are correct about the lateral of L-5 (Spot View):

1. This is a routine view of Lumbosacral-spine exams

2. CR is centered to a point 1.5 inches below the crest of the ilium

3. The lumbosacral junction is well demonstrated

4. The space between L-5 and S-1 should be well demonstrated

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only numbers 1,2 and 3 are correct

d)

Only numbers 1,2,3 & 4 are correct

81.

A lateral view of the Lumbar spine will demonstrate the ___ well

1. Intervertebral disk spaces

2. All spinous process

3. All the intervertebral foramina

4. Transverse processes

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only number 3 is correct

d)

Only numbers 1, 2, & 3 are correct

82.

A good well positioned oblique view of the L-S spine is evidence by the demonstration of:

1. Scotty dog sign

2. Zygapophyseal articulations

3. Otivag sign

4. Intervertebral foramen

a)

Only Number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only numbers 1 & 2 are correct

d)

Only number 4 is correct

83.

The spinous process is best demonstrated in the

a)

AP Projection

b)

Lateral Projection

c)

Oblique View

d)

none of these statements are correct

84.

The apophyseal joints of the lower six cervical vertebrae are at an angle to the midsagittal plane of:

a)

45 degrees

b)

90 degrees

c)

35 degrees

d)

70 degrees

85.

The RAO of the cervical spine will demonstrate the:

1. the pedicles closest to the IR

2. the intervertebral foramina closest to the IR

3. the foramina adjacent to the IR

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only numbers 1 and 2 are correct

d)

Numbers 1,2,and 3 are correct

86.

The goal of the Swimmers method is to have one shoulder higher than the other, just enough to prevent their superimposition on the vertebrae.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

On a patient with a severe neck injury, which projection should always be taken first?

a)

Open mouth

b)

oblique

c)

6' lateral cross-table

d)

72'' Upright lateral

88.

What SID should be used when radiographing an erect Lateral Cervical spine?

a)

40 '' SID

b)

6' SID

c)

3' SID

d)

None of these are correct

89.

Which vertebra is/are located at the level of the jugular notch?

a)

T-2 to T3

b)

T4

c)

T10

d)

C7

90.

The dens will be visualized in the

a)

Swimmers view

b)

Oblique projection of the C-spine

c)

open-mouth position of the cervical spine

d)

Twinning method

91.

The position in which zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine are best demonstrated is the

a)

anteroposterior

b)

posteroanterior

c)

oblique

d)

lateral

92.

In the lateral lumbar position, if the spine not parallel to the IR, it will be necessary to

a)

flex the hips and knees

b)

direct the central ray 5 to 8 degrees caudad

c)

direct the central ray 5 to 8 cranially

d)

direct the CR perpendicular to the IR

93.

To prevent overlapping of the intervertebral disk spaces in the lateral projection of the lumbar vertebrae

a)

angle the central ray 25 degrees caudad

b)

use of short SID

c)

elevate the since on a suitable support until it is horizontal with the table top

d)

None of these statements are correct

94.

For the lateral projection of the lumbar spine, center the IR at the level of

a)

The symphysis pubis

b)

the iliac crest

c)

the anterior superior iliac spine

d)

a point midway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis

95.

The intervertebral foramina are well demonstrated in which projection of the lumbar vertebraw?

a)

anteroposterior

b)

lateral

c)

oblique

d)

erect anteroposterior

96.

For the frontal projection of the lumbar spine, center the IR at the level of the

a)

the iliac crest

b)

the symphysis pubis

c)

the anterior superior iliac spine

d)

a point midway between the iliac crest and symphysis pubis

97.

To reduce the lumbar lordosis, with the patient in the anteroposterior position, for frontal projection of the lumbar spine, it is necessary to

a)

angle the central ray 15 degrees cephalad

b)

angle the central ray 15 degrees caudad

c)

flex the hips and knees

d)

extend the hops and knees

98.

The zygapophyseal joints are well demonstrated in which projection of the cervical vertebrae?

a)

anteroposterior

b)

lateral

c)

oblique

d)

erect anteroposterior

99.

The intervertebral foramina are well demonstrated in which projection of the thoracic vertebrae?

a)

anteroposterior

b)

lateral

c)

oblique

d)

erect oblique

100.

When patient is in the recumbent position, to prevent overlapping of the intervertebral spaces in the lateral projection of the thoracic vertebrae:

a)

elevate the lower thoracic spine until it is horizontal to the table top

b)

utilize the breathing method

c)

angle the central ray toward the feet

d)

use a short focal-IR distance

101.

The routine lateral projection of the thoracic vertebrae does not demonstrate:

a)

T1 to T3

b)

T6 to T7

c)

T11 to T12

d)

the intervertebral spaces

102.

What CR angulation is recommended for an AP projection of the knee on a patient with an ASIS to tabletop measurement of 18 cm?

a)

3 to 5 degree caudad

b)

CR perpendicular to the IR

c)

3 to 5 degree cephalad

d)

10 to 15 degree cephalad

103.

In order to obliterate the rib shadows and vascular markings when examining the thoracic vertebrae in the lateral position:

1. use a short SID

2. utilize the breathing method

3. use a long SID

4. use the angulation method

a)

only numbers 1 & 2 are correct

b)

only number 2 is correct

c)

only numbers 1,2, & 4 are correct

d)

none of the statements are correct

104.

For the anteroposterior projection of the thoracic vertebrae the central ray is directed to the level of:

a)

T1

b)

T3

c)

T7

d)

T12

105.

If the patient is supine, the midsagittal plane and the orbitomeatal line are perpendicular to the plane of the IR, and the central ray directed at a 30o caudad angle and is centered to the hairline ( 2.5 inches above Glabella).  The projection obtained is:

1. P.A. Hass

2. axial

3. Lateral

4. Verticosubmental

  5. Townes

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only number 3 is correct

d)

Only numbers 2 & 5 are correct

e)

None of the statements are correct

106.

To demonstrate the intervertebral disk spaces when radiographing the cervical spine in the anteroposterior projection:

a)

direct the CR perpendicular to the plane of the IR

b)

direct the CR 15 to 20 degrees cephalad

c)

direct the CR 15 to 20 degrees caudad

d)

take flexion-extension views

107.

To obtain an anteroposterior projection of the atlas and axis free of superimposition:

a)

direct the CR 15 degrees cephalad

b)

use the otivag method

c)

use the open-mouth projection

d)

direct the CR 15 degrees caudad

108.

How much rotation from an AP position of the ankle will typically produce an AP mortise porjection?

a)

No rotation is necessary

b)

15 to 20 degree medial

c)

45 to 60 degrees lateral

d)

25 to 30 degree medial

109.

Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal or exaggerated ___ curvature.

a)

Concave

b)

convex

c)

lateral

d)

"swayback" lumbar

110.

Which position or projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1 and C2?

a)

Anteroposterior (AP) axial

b)

Lateral

c)

45 Degree posterior or anterior oblique

d)

AP open mouth

111.

The patient is prone with the midsagittal plane perpendicular to the table top, the orbitomeatal line perpendicular to the plane of the IR and the central ray directed perpendicularly to the nasion.  This projection will demonstrate__________________ best.

         1.   Frontal bone                                              3.   Frontal Sinuses

         2.   Occipital bone                                           4.   Parietal bone

a)

Number 1 only is correct

b)

Number 2 only is correct

c)

Number 3 only is correct

d)

Only numbers 1 & 4 are correct

e)

Only number 4 is correct

112.

The position in which the intervertebral disk spaces of the cervical vertebrae are best demonstrated is the:

a)

anteroposterior

b)

lateral

c)

oblique

d)

posteroanterior

113.

On average, how many separate bones make up the adult vertebral column?

a)

28

b)

46

c)

33

d)

26

114.

For the axial projection of the clavicle the CR angle is determined by

a)

The person who first described the projection

b)

The size of the patient

c)

The type of equipment used

d)

None of the above are correct

115.

A patient enters the ER in severe pain with a possible dislocation of the elbow. The patient has the elbow flexed more than 90 degrees. Which one of the following routines should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Partially flexed AP of humerus & AP Radius; lateral elbow

b)

One AP projection and limited lateral

c)

Coyle mehod and limited lateral

116.

Which of the following projections of the elbow demonstrates the Olecranon process best?

a)

PA projection

b)

Medial Lateral projection

c)

Lateral Projection

d)

AP projection

117.

Which basic projection of the elbow best demonstrates the trochlear sulcus in profile?

a)

AP

b)

Medial Rotation Oblique

c)

Lateral

d)

Lateral rotation Oblique

118.

Which carpal bone is found between the Scaphoid and the Triquetrum

a)

Lunate

b)

Pisiform

c)

Trapezoid

d)

Capitate

119.

Which of the following has/have a styloid process?

a)

Both the Radis and Ulna have a styloid process

b)

Only the radius has a styloid process

c)

Only the Ulna has a styloid process

d)

The styloid process is found in the Humerus

120.

Which specific anatomy is better visualized with a fan lateral as compared with the other lateral projections of the hand?

a)

Sesamoid bones

b)

Phalanges

c)

Carpals

d)

Carpometacarpal joints

121.

Which routine projection of the elbow demonstrates the radial head and tuberosity free of superimposition?

a)

AP Oblique with lateral rotation

b)

AP oblique with medial rotation

c)

Lateral

d)

AP

122.

For the PA projection of the index finger the CR is centered to:

a)

The distal interphalangeal joint

b)

The proximal interphalangeal joint

c)

The middle Phalanx

d)

The base of the metacarpophalangeal joint

123.

Which of the following is used to control the amount of scatter radiation reaching the IR?

a)

the cassette

b)

the bucky/grid

c)

the SID

d)

None of the above control scatter radiation

124.

Which of the following radiographic factors is/are considered "quantitative":

1. mA

2. kVp

3. Time

4. mAs

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 4 is correct

c)

Numbers 1,3 & 4 are correct

d)

Only number 2 is correct

125.

When would it be safer to x-ray a female (child bearing age)

a)

During the first half of the menstrual cycle

b)

during the second half of the menstrual cycle

c)

during the last quarter of the menstrual cycle

d)

none of the above are correct

126.

On the lateral view of the elbow the coronoid process is partially superimposed on:

a)

the Olecronon fossa

b)

the Radial head

c)

the radial tuberosity

d)

none of the above are correct

127.

When doing an internal rotation exam of the shoulder which of the following is/are correct?

1. The lesser tubercle is demonstrated in profile

2. the greater tubercle is demonstrated in profile

3. the tubercle demonstrated in profile is projected on the scapula

4. The arm could be abducted a little

5. The coronal plane between the epicondyles is perpendicular to IR

a)

only number 2 is correct

b)

only number 1 is correct

c)

Only numbers 1 and 5 are correct

d)

Only numbers 1,2,4 and 5 are correct

128.

Which of the following is correct about the axial projection of the shoulder?

1. This requires an inferior superior projection

2. The patient is supine

3. This is done when the humerus is fractured to rule out a dislocation

4. This exam is done to rule out a possible dislocation

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Only number 1 and 2 are correct

d)

Only numbers 1, 2 and 4 are correct

e)

All of the above are correct

129.

The posteroanterior projection, Caldwell position, is used to demonstrate the:

a)

frontal and anterior ethmoid sinuses

b)

maxillary sinuses

c)

sphenoid sinuses

d)

mastoid sinuses

130.

Which of the following would indicate that an exact axial projection of the Clavicle was done?

1. Clavicle is projected above apex

2. The anterior part of the first rib is superimposed on the posterior part

3. Most of the clavicle is projected above the ribs and scapula

4. If you angle the tube 15 degrees you always get an exact axial view

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

only number 2 is correct

c)

Numbers 1 and 2 are correct

d)

Only number 3 is correct

e)

Only number 4 is correct

131.

Which of the following is correct when doing an x-ray exam of the AC joints?

a)

the SID is 36''

b)

the patient is recumbent

c)

It's a bilateral exam of the AC articulations

d)

None of the above are correct

e)

All of the above are correct

132.

Which of the following is correct for an AP projection of the scapula?

1. Rotate the body anteriorly

2. CR is angled toward the head

3. Abducted the arm to form a 45 degree angle with the body

4. The coronoid process is demonstrated

a)

Only numbers 2 and 3 are correct

b)

only number 4 is correct

c)

only numbers 3 and 4 are correct

d)

All of the above correct

e)

None of the above are correct

133.

If the patient is in RAO position, which of the following is/are true of a radiographic examination of the scapula?

1. this would demonstrate a lateral view of the right scapula

2. this would demonstrate a lateral view of the left scapula

3. the CR would be directed to the vertebral border

4. the CR would be directed to the axillary border

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

Only number 2 is correct

c)

Number 2 and 4 are correct

d)

Numbers 1 and 3 are correct

134.

A general positioning rule is to place the anatomical part of interest __ to the image receptor.

a)

Perpendicular

b)

remote

c)

Axial

d)

Adjacent

135.

Which of the following structures is/are demonstrated in a transthoracic Humerus radiograph?

a)

Hairline Fracture

b)

Lateral projection of upper Humerus

c)

Humeral Head

d)

a,b,c are well demonstrated

e)

b and c are demonstrated

136.

Select the answer which would utilize the following position:

Patient prone, left side elevated away from the table with the right anterior portion of the body in contact with the tabletop.

a)

Lateral right scapula

b)

lateral left scapula

c)

oblique view of right shoulder

d)

Lateral view of shoulder

137.

What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the elbow?

a)

Radial and ulnar styloid process

b)

Humeral epicondyles

c)

Humeral condyles

d)

Trochlea and capitulum

138.

In the lateral projection of the wrist, it is important to:

a)

Hyper extend the hand

b)

superimpose the radius and ulna

c)

supinate the wrist

d)

flex the fingers

139.

Another name for scaphoid is:

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Cuboid

c)

Navicular

d)

Os calcis

140.

A patient is said to be in the Recumbent position when he/she is:

a)

Laying face down

b)

Laying on his back

c)

Laying on his right side

d)

Laying on his left side

e)

All of the above describe the recumbent position

141.

A radiograph of the inferosuperior axial projection of the shoulder will project the lesser tubercle:

a)

Anteriorly

b)

Posteriorly

c)

Laterally

d)

Medially

142.

The term extension, as used to describe the position of a joint to be radiographed, means that the joint is:

a)

Straightened

b)

Bent

c)

Turned on the side

d)

Rotated Outward

143.

To show subluxation of the AC joints, which of the following views should be done:

a)

Transthoracic of both shoulders

b)

Axial of both shoulders

c)

Anteroposterior of both shoulders with weight bearing

d)

Open and closed mouth views

144.

A lateral elbow radiograph demonstrates about 1/3 of the radial head superimposed by the coronoid process of the ulna. Which of the following occured?

a)

The hand was pronated rather than in a true lateral

b)

The hand and wrist were rotated laterally and not in a true lateral position

c)

The shoulder was not dropped sufficiently to the tabletop level

d)

No positioning errors occurred

145.

What is the name of the joint found between the proximal and distal phalanges of the first digit?

a)

Proximal interphalangeal

b)

Distal interphalangeal

c)

Metacarpophalangeal

d)

Interphalangeal

146.

In order to obtain a proper lateral view of the humerus:

a)

The hand must be in the lateral position

b)

The coronal plane between the humeral epicondyle must be perpendicular to the plane of the IR

c)

If possible, the elbow should be flexed 90 degrees

d)

All of the above

147.

What position would the patient be in if he were facing the IR with the x-ray tube behind him, turned slightly, with his right shoulder against the IR?

a)

RAO

b)

LPO

c)

LAO

d)

RPO

148.

If a patient is supine on the table with the IR against the patient's left side and the x-ray tube is horizontal and perpendicular to the IR.

a)

This is called a left lateral

b)

This is called a right lateral

c)

This is called a dorsal decubitus

d)

This is called a left lateral decubitus

149.

On which view of the elbow is the coronoid process of the ulna projected free of superimposition?

a)

Partial flexion

b)

Anteroposterior

c)

Lateral oblique

d)

Medial oblique

150.

A radiograph of an AP projection of the elbow reveals that there is complete separation of the proximal radius and ulna. What positing error has been committed?

a)

Excessive medial rotation

b)

Partial flexion of the joint

c)

Excessive lateral rotation

d)

Incorrect CR location and angle

151.

In positioning the second finger for a lateral projection, in order to keep the distortion to a minimum the ___ surface must be nearest the IR.

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

152.

A patient enters ER with a midshaft humeral fracture. The AP projection taken on the bed demonstrates another fracture near the surgical neck of the humerus. The patient is unable to stand or rotate the humerus due to the extent of trauma. What other projection should be take of the patient?

a)

a Scapular Y lateral - AP oblique

b)

Axial projection

c)

Inferior superior projection

d)

Horizontal beam transthoracic lateral

153.

A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals that the mid-aspect of the fourth and fifth metacarpals are superimposed. Which error has been committed?

a)

1

b)

Excessive rotation of the hand and/ or wrist

c)

Incorrect CR angulation

d)

Insufficient rotation of the hand and/or wrist

154.

A radiograph of the elbow demonstrates the radius directly superimposed over the ulna and the coronoid process in profile. Which projection of the elbow has been performed?

a)

AP

b)

Lateral

c)

Lateral rotation oblique

d)

Medial rotation oblique

155.

A radiograph of an AP axial projection of the clavicle demonstrates that the clavicle is within the mid-aspect of the lung apices. What should the technologist do to correct the error?

a)

Do nothing; this is an acceptable AP clavicle projection

b)

Increase the cephalic CR angle during the repeat exposure

c)

Make exposure upon complete inspiration

d)

No positioning errors occurred

156.

Which of the following carpals articulates with the radius?

a)

Triquetrum

b)

Scaphoid

c)

Pisiform

d)

Hamate

157.

The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the:

a)

Intercarpal

b)

Interphalangeal

c)

Carpometacarpal

d)

Proximal Metacarpophalangeal

158.

Which of the following structures is not part of the proximal Humerus?

a)

Lesser tubercle

b)

Glenoid Fossa

c)

Interubecular grove

d)

Anatomic neck

159.

The two most common landmarks for chest positioning are the:

a)

jugular notch and vertebra prominens

b)

lower margin of thyroid cartilage

c)

top of shoulders and xiphoid process

d)

Jugular notch and top of shoulders

160.

The vertebra prominens corresponds to the level of:

a)

C5

b)

C7

c)

C4 - 5

d)

T2

161.

Air or gas that escapes from the lungs into the pleural cavity results in a condition known as:

a)

Hemothorax

b)

air bronchogram

c)

hemidiaphragm

d)

pneumothorax

162.

The CR for an AP supine, adult chest projection, should be centered:

a)

to the level of T4

b)

At the vertebra prominens

c)

3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch

d)

at the xiphoid process

163.

For an AP portable chest on an older or hypersthenic male patient, which of the following should occur?

a)

The CR should be centered 3 inches (8cm) below the jugular notch

b)

The IR generally should be placed portrait

c)

The CR should be centered to the mammillary (nipple) line

d)

none of the above

164.

Which type of body habitus typically requires that the IR be placed landscaped rather than portrait for a posteroanterior (PA) chest?

a)

Hyposthenic

b)

Hypersthenic

c)

Asthenic

d)

Sthenic

165.

A well inspired healthy adult chest PA projection will have a minimum of ___ posterior ribs seen above the diaphragm.

a)

12

b)

10

c)

8

d)

7

166.

Which of the following objects does NOT have to be removed or moved before a chest radiography?

a)

Hearing aids

b)

Bra

c)

T-shit

d)

Necklace

167.

What is the primary disadvantage of performing an AP projection of the chest rather than a PA?

a)

Increased magnification of the heart

b)

AP projection requires more kVp as compared with the PA projection

c)

Mode radiation exposure to the lungs

d)

Distortion of the ribs

168.

Of the following factors, which one is most crucial to demonstrate possible air and fluid level in the chest?

a)

Patient in erect or decubitus position

b)

High kVp technique

c)

Using high mA and short exposure time

d)

72 inch SID

169.

A PA chest radiograph reveals that the left sternoclavicular joint is closer to the spine than the right joint. What specific positioning error has been committed?

a)

Rotation into the left anterior oblique (LAO) position

b)

Rotation into the right anterior oblique (RAO) position

c)

Right tilt

d)

Left tilt

170.

Which of the following factors must be applied to minimize distortion of the heart?

a)

High kVp technique

b)

using high mA and short exposure time

c)

72 inch SID

d)

Performing study recumbent

171.

Of the following positing actions, which one will remove most of the scapulae from the lung fields?

a)

Depress shoulders

b)

Roll shoulders forward

c)

None of the options.

d)

Elevate chin.

172.

For an average-size female patient, where is the CR placed for a PA projection of the chest?

a)

8 inches (20 cm) below the vertebra prominens

b)

2 inches (5 cm) above the shoulders

c)

3 inches (7.6 cm) below the jugular notch

d)

7 inches (18 cm) below the vertebra prominens

173.

A patient is in the intensive care unit with multiple injuries. The attending physician is concerned about a pleural effusion in the left lung. The patient cannot stand or sit erect due to age. Which position/projection would be best to rule out the pleural effusion.

a)

Right lateral decubitus

b)

Apical lordotic

c)

AP spine

d)

Left Lateral Decubitus

174.

Situs inversus is a condition in which:

a)

the thymus gland is absent

b)

the liver is in the left abdomen

c)

all major organs are in the opposite side of the body

d)

the heart is located in the left thorax

175.

Top of the IR placed approximately 3 inches (7.6 cm) above the shoulders is a recommended centering technique for adult chest radiography.

a)

True

b)

False

176.

Which of the following structures connects the anterior aspect of the ribs to the sternum?

a)

Costovertebral joints

b)

Sternal tendons

c)

Costocartilage

d)

Costotransverse joints

177.

Which ribs are considered to be true ribs?

a)

First through seventh ribs

b)

First only

c)

First through ninth ribs

d)

Eleventh and twelfth ribs

178.

What is RAO sternum preferred to the LAO position?

a)

The RAO projects the sternum away from the hilum and heart

b)

The RAO produces less magnification of the sternum

c)

The RAO reduces dose to the thyroid gland

d)

The RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart.

179.

Which of the following statements is true about radiography of ribs located above the diaphragm?

a)

Suspend breathing upon inspiration

b)

Use a kVp range of 90 to 100

c)

Perform the study with the patient recumbent

d)

Always inlude an AP projection as part of the routine

180.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs?

a)

PA

b)

LPO

c)

AP

d)

LAO

181.

What is the recommended degree of obliquity for an RAO projection of the sternum for an asthenic (thin chested) type of patient?

a)

10 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

20 degrees

d)

5 degrees

182.

Which position can replace the RAO of the sternum if the patient cannot lie prone?

a)

LAO

b)

Left lateral Decubitus

c)

LPO

d)

RPO

183.

Which two projection must be taken for an injury to the left posterior lower ribs?

a)

PA and RAO

b)

AP and RAP

c)

AP and LPO

d)

PA and LPO

184.

A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be cone to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?

a)

Increase obliquity of the body

b)

Increase kVp

c)

Perform an LPO projection instead of an RAO

d)

Angle the CR 5 to 10 degrees laterally to the sternum

185.

Which of the following routines should be performed for a study of the second toe?

a)

AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, mediolateral projection

b)

AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, lateromedial projection

c)

AP, AP oblique with lateral rotation, lateromedial projection

d)

AP, AP oblique with medial rotation, mediolateral projection.

186.

A radiograph of a lateral projection of the sternum reveals that the patient's ribs are superimposed over the sternum. What needs to be done to correct this problem during the repeat exposure?

a)

Angle the CR 5 degree anterior

b)

Ensure that the patient is not rotated

c)

Increase kVp

d)

Increase SID

187.

Which term describes the small flap of cartilage covering the opening to the ear?

a)

EAM

b)

Acanthion

c)

Tragus

d)

Pinna

e)

None of the statements are correct

188.

A young female patient from the ED is brought to radiology for a rib exam. She is able to sit up or stand for the procedure. She indicates that the region of pain is to the right anterior-to-mid axillary region. Which rib projection should be performed to minimize the effective dose to this patient?

a)

AP and RPO

b)

PA and LAO

c)

PA and RAO

d)

PA and RPO

189.

Gonadal shielding should be used on both males and females of childbearing age for AP hip projections, if correctly placed.

a)

True

b)

False

190.

The S.M.V. method could be used to demonstrate which of the following:

  

               1.     zygomatic arches

               2.     base of the skull

               3.     foramen magnum

               4.     profile view of sella turcica

a)

Only number 1 is correct

b)

only numbers 1 and 2 are correct

c)

Only number 4 is correct

d)

The S.M.V does not demonstrate any of the choices listed

e)

Only numbers 1,2 and 3 are correct

191.

A radiograph of an RAO projection of the ribs demonstrates the left axillary ribs are foreshortened, whereas the right side is elongated. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this radiographic outcome?

a)

The technologist should have performed a PA projection to demonstrate the left axillary ribs, not an RAO

b)

The patient requires more rotation to the right

c)

CR angulation was incorrect

d)

An LAO was performed rather than the RAO position

192.

It is a safe practice to decrease the SID to 30 inches (75 cm) for the oblique sternum projection.

a)

True

b)

False