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Accounting Final Review

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 32hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of accounting?

a)

The information system that identifies, records, and communicates the economic events of an organization to interested users.

b)

A means of collecting information.

c)

The interconnected network of subsystems necessary to operate a business.

d)

Electronic collection, organization, and communication of vast amounts of information.

2.

Which of the following is the best definition of an internal user of accounting information

a)

Investors who use accounting information to decide whether to buy or sell stock

b)

Creditors, such as banks, that use accounting information to evaluate the risk of lending money

c)

Labor unions who use accounting information to examine the ability of the company to pay increased wages and benefits

d)

Managers who use accounting information to plan, organize, and run a business

3.

Which of the following is not an advantage of the corporate form of business organization?

a)

No personal liability

b)

Easy to transfer ownership

c)

Favorable tax treatment

d)

Easy to raise funds

4.

Which of the following is not a principal type of business activity?

a)

Operating

b)

Investing

c)

Financing

d)

Delivering

5.

Borrowing money is an example of a(n)

a)

delivering activity.

b)

financing activity

c)

operating activity

d)

investing activity

6.

Which activities involve acquiring the resources to run the business?

a)

Delivering

b)

Financing

c)

Investing

d)

Operating

7.

To show how successfully your business performed during a period of time, you would report its revenues and expenses in the 

a)

balance sheet.

b)

income statement.

c)

statement of cash flows.

d)

retained earnings statement

8.

Which of the following financial statements is concerned with the company at a point in time?

a)

Balance sheet

b)

Income statement

c)

Retained earnings statement

d)

Statement of cash flows

9.

The retained earnings statement shows all of the following except:

a)

the amounts of changes in retained earnings during the period.

b)

the causes of changes in retained earnings during the period.

c)

the time period following the one shown for the income statement.

d)

beginning retained earnings on the first line of the statement.

10.

The right to receive money in the future is called a(n)

a)

account payable.

b)

account receivable.

c)

liability.

d)

revenue.

11.

Buying and selling products are examples of:

a)

operating activities.

b)

investing activities

c)

financing activities.

d)

delivering activities.

12.

The liability created by a business when it purchases coffee beans and coffee cups on credit from suppliers is termed a(n)

a)

account payable.

b)

account receivable.

c)

revenue

d)

expense.

13.

The best definition of assets is the

a)

cash owned by the company.

b)

collections of resources belonging to the company and the claims on these resources

c)

owners’ investment in the business.

d)

resources belonging to a company that have future benefit to the company.

14.

Generally accepted accounting principles 

a)

are accounting rules formulated by the Internal Revenue Service

b)

are sound in theory but rarely used in real life.

c)

are accounting rules that are recognized as a general guide for financial reporting.

d)

have eliminated all errors in accounting

15.

What is the order in which assets are generally listed on a classified balance sheet?

a)

Current assets and long-term

b)

current assets; property, plant and equipment; long-term investments; intangibles

c)

 current assets; property, plant and equipment; intangibles; long-term investments

d)

current assets; long-term investments; property, plant and equipment, intangibles

16.

What organization issues U.S. accounting standards? 

a)

Securities and Exchange Commission

b)

International Accounting Standards Committee

c)

International Auditing Standards Committee

d)

Financial Accounting Standards Board

17.

The assumption that requires that only those things that can be expressed in money are included in the accounting records is the

a)

economic entity assumption

b)

monetary unit assumption

c)

going concern assumption.

d)

periodicity assumption

18.

What is the total amount of property, plant, and equipment that will appear on the balance sheet?

a)

$2,250,000

b)

$1,950,000

c)

$2,700,000

d)

$1,725,000

19.

The relationship between current assets and current liabilities is important in evaluating a company's

a)

liquidity

b)

profitability.

c)

market value

d)

solvency.

20.

N3 Corporation has assets of $4,200,000, common stock of $1,092,000, and retained earnings of $665,000. What are the creditors’ claims on their assets (liabilities)?

a)

$3,773,000

b)

$1,757,000

c)

$2,443,000

d)

$4,627,000

21.

The agency of the United States Government that oversees the U.S. financial markets is the

a)

Internal Revenue Service

b)

Security Exchange Commission.

c)

 Financial Accounting Standards Board.

d)

International Auditing Standards Committee.

22.

The two fundamental qualities of useful information are

a)

relevance and faithful representation

b)

verifiability and timeliness

c)

comparability and flexibility.

d)

understandability and consistency

23.

Ratios that measure the income or operating success of a company for a given period of time are

a)

profitability ratios

b)

solvency ratios.

c)

liquidity ratios.

d)

trending ratios.

24.

The accounting concept that indicates assets should be reported at the price that would be received to sell an asset is the

a)

economic entity assumption.

b)

monetary unit assumption.

c)

fair value principle.

d)

historical cost principle.

25.

The operating cycle of a company is the average time that is required to go from cash to

a)

inventory in producing revenues

b)

cash in producing revenues.

c)

accounts receivable in producing revenues.

d)

sales in producing revenues.

26.

A liquidity ratio measures the

a)

percentage of total financing provided by creditors.

b)

ability of a company to survive over a long period of time.

c)

short-term ability of a company to pay its maturing obligations and to meet unexpected needs for cash.

d)

income or operating success of a company over a period of time

27.

Which of the following is a constraint in accounting

a)

Comparability

b)

Cost

c)

Consistency

d)

Relevance

28.

Which statement about an account is true?

a)

The left side of an account is the credit or decrease side.

b)

There are separate account for specific assets and liabilities but only one account for stockholders’ equity items

c)

An account is an individual accounting record of increases and decreases in specific asset, liability, and stockholders’ equity items.

d)

In its simplest form, an account consists of two parts.

29.

An accounting record that includes a list of accounts and their balances at a given time is called a

a)

chart of accounts.

b)

general ledger.

c)

trial balance.

d)

general journal.

30.

The payment of a liability:  

a)

decreases assets and increases liabilities.

b)

increases assets and decreases liabilities.

c)

decreases assets and liabilities.

d)

decreases assets and stockholders' equity.

31.

The normal balance of any account is the

a)

right side.

b)

left side.

c)

side which increases that account.

d)

side which decreases that account.

32.

The usual sequence of steps in the transaction recording process is

a)

journalize, analyze, post to the ledger.

b)

 journalize, post to the ledger, analyze.

c)

analyze, journalize, post to the ledger.

d)

post to the ledger, journalize, analyze.

33.

Comstock Company provided consulting services and billed the client $2,500. As a result of this event,

a)

assets increased by $2,500.

b)

Both assets (Accts Rec.) and equity (Revenue) increased by $2,500.

c)

total assets remained unchanged.

d)

equity increased by $2,500

34.

For the basic accounting equation to stay in balance, each transaction recorded must

a)

affect the same number of asset and liability accounts

b)

affect two or less accounts.

c)

always affect exactly two accounts.

d)

affect two or more accounts.

35.

Debits   

a)

decrease both assets and liabilities.

b)

increase assets and decrease liabilities

c)

increase both assets and liabilities.

d)

decrease assets and increase liabilities.

36.

In recording an accounting transaction in a double-entry system,

a)

there must always be entries made on both sides of the accounting equation.

b)

the number of debit accounts must equal the number of credit accounts.

c)

there must only be two accounts affected by any transaction.

d)

the amount of the debits must equal the amount of the credits.

37.

The purpose of the ledger is to  

a)

keep in one place all information about changes in specific account balances.

b)

make sure that all assets, liabilities, etc., have normal balances at all times.

c)

record chronologically the day's transactions.

d)

keep a record of documentation to support each transaction.

38.

If a company buys a $700 machine on account, this transaction will affect the

a)

income statement and retained earnings statement only.

b)

balance sheet only.

c)

income statement, retained earnings statement, and balance sheet.

d)

income statement only.

39.

Collection of a $600 Accounts Receivable

a)

increases an asset $600; decreases an asset $600.

b)

decreases a liability $600; increases stockholders’ equity $600.

c)

increases an asset $600; decreases a liability $600.

d)

decreases an asset $600; decreases a liability $600.

40.

A trial balance would only help in detecting which one of the following errors?Hint: Limitations of Trial Balance

a)

Offsetting errors made in recording the transaction

b)

A journal entry that is posted twice

c)

A transaction that is not journalized

d)

A transposition error when transferring the debit side of journal entry to the ledger

41.

An investment by the stockholders in a business increases 

a)

assets only.

b)

assets and liabilities.

c)

assets and stockholders’ equity.

d)

liabilities and stockholders’ equity.

42.

Courtney Company purchased equipment for $1,800 cash. As a result of this event,

a)

total assets remained unchanged.

b)

assets increased by $1,800.

c)

Both assets and equity decreased by $1,800

d)

equity decreased by $1,800.

43.

A ledger  

a)

contains only asset and liability accounts.

b)

should show accounts in alphabetical order.

c)

is a collection of the entire group of accounts (and the changes in their balances) maintained by a company.

d)

provides a chronological record of transactions.

44.

Posting is performed by transferring information from the     

a)

ledger to the journal.

b)

journal to the ledger.

c)

source documents to the journal.

d)

source documents to the ledger.

45.

A journal

a)

provides a chronological record of transactions.

b)

should show accounts in alphabetical order.

c)

contains only asset and liability accounts.

d)

is a collection of the entire group of accounts maintained by a company.

46.

The primary purpose of the trial balance is to

a)

make sure a journal entry is not posted twice.

b)

transfer journal entries to the ledger accounts.

c)

disclose the complete effect of a transaction in one place.

d)

prove the equality of the debit and credit amounts after posting.

47.

All of the following are characteristics of every accounting information system except it is a system

a)

that processes transaction data.

b)

of data storage hardware for the chart of accounts.

c)

that collects transaction data.

d)

that communicates financial information to decision makers.

48.

An adjusted trial balance: 

a)

proves the equality of the total debit balances and total credit balances of ledger accounts after all adjustments have been made and is used in the preparation of financial statements.

b)

is a required financial statement under generally accepted accounting principles.

c)

is prepared after the financial statements are completed.

d)

cannot be used to prepare financial statements.

49.

The general term employed to indicate an expense that has not been paid or revenue that has not been received and has not yet been recognized in the accounts is:

a)

contra asset.

b)

prepayment.

c)

asset.

d)

accrued.

50.

The closing entry process consists of closing:  

a)

 all permanent accounts.

b)

all temporary accounts.

c)

all asset and liability accounts.

d)

out the Retained Earnings account.

51.

The purpose of the post-closing trial balance is to:

a)

prove the equality of the permanent account balances that are carried forward into the next accounting period.

b)

list all the balance sheet accounts in alphabetical order for easy reference.

c)

prove that no mistakes were made.

d)

prove the equality of the temporary account balances that are carried forward into the next accounting period.

52.

Why do generally accepted accounting principles require the application of the revenue recognition principle?

a)

Failure to apply the revenue recognition principle could lead to a misstatement of revenue.

b)

It is easy to apply the revenue recognition principle because revenue issues are always easy to identify and resolve.

c)

Recording revenue when cash is received is an objective application of the revenue recognition principle.

d)

Accounting software has made the revenue recognition easy to apply.

53.

Adjusting entries are made to ensure that:

a)

expenses are recognized in the period in which they are incurred.

b)

revenues are recorded in the period in which the performance obligation is satisfied.

c)

balance sheet and income statement accounts have correct balances at the end of an accounting period.

d)

All of these answer choices are correct.

54.

Otto’s Tune-Up Shop follows the revenue recognition principle. Otto services a car on August 31. The customer picks up the vehicle on September 1 and mails the payment to Otto on September 5. Otto receives the check in the mail on September 6. When should Otto show that the revenue was recognized?

a)

August 31

b)

August 1

c)

September 5

d)

September 6

55.

Choose the correct order of the accounting cycle: 

a)

Analyze, Journalize, Post to Ledger Accounts, Trial Balance, Adjusting Entries, Adjusted Trial Balance, Closing Entries, Financial Statements,  Post Closing Trial Balance.

b)

Analyze, Journalize, Post to Ledger Accounts, Trial Balance, Adjusting Entries, Adjusted Trial Balance, Financial Statements, Closing Entries, Post Closing Trial Balance.

c)

Analyze, Journalize, Post to Ledger Accounts, Trial Balance, Adjusting Entries, Adjusted Trial Balance, Closing Entries, Post Closing Trial Balance, Financial Statements.

d)

Journalize, Analyze, Post to Ledger Accounts, Trial Balance, Adjusting Entries, Adjusted Trial Balance, Closing Entries, Financial Statements,  Post Closing Trial Balance.

56.

Expenses are recognized when:

a)

they contribute to the production of revenue.

b)

they are paid

c)

they are billed by the supplier.

d)

the invoice is received.

57.

La More Company had the following transactions during 2021:

Sales of $9,000 on account for services performed

Collected $4,000 for services to be performed in 2022

Paid $3,750 cash in salaries for 2021

Purchased airline tickets for $500 in December for a trip to take place in 2022

 

            What is La More's 2021 net income using accrual accounting?

a)

$5,750

b)

$9,750

c)

$9,250

d)

$5,250

58.

Each of the following companies is a merchandising company except a

a)

wholesale parts company.

b)

furniture store.

c)

candy store.

d)

moving company.

59.

The operating cycle of a merchandising company is     

a)

ordinarily longer than that of a service company.

b)

about the same as that of a service company.

c)

ordinarily shorter than that of a service company

d)

always one year in length.

60.

Gross profit equals the difference between

a)

net income and operating expenses.

b)

sales revenue and cost of goods sold

c)

sales revenue and cost of goods sold plus operating expenses.

d)

sales revenue and operating expenses.

61.

Which of the following expressions is incorrect?

a)

Gross profit - Operating expenses = Net income

b)

Sales revenue - Cost of goods sold - Operating expenses = Net income

c)

Operating expenses - Cost of goods sold = Gross profit

d)

Net income + Operating expenses = Gross profit

62.

In a perpetual inventory system, cost of goods sold is recorded 

a)

on a monthly basis

b)

on a daily basis.

c)

on an annual basis

d)

each time a sale occurs.

63.

Inventory becomes part of cost of goods sold when a company   

a)

pays for the inventory.

b)

receives payment from the customer.

c)

sells the inventory.

d)

purchases the inventory.

64.

A company using a perpetual inventory system that returns goods previously purchased on credit would

a)

debit Cash and credit Accounts Payable

b)

debit Accounts Payable and credit Purchases.

c)

debit Accounts Payable and credit Inventory.

d)

debit Sales and credit Accounts Payable.

65.

If a purchaser using a perpetual inventory system pays the transportation costs for goods purchased, then the

a)

Inventory account is increased.

b)

Freight-Out account is increased.

c)

Delivery Expense account is increased.

d)

Inventory account is not affected.

66.

Freight costs incurred by a seller on merchandise sold to customers will cause an increase  

a)

in operating expenses for the seller

b)

to the cost of goods sold of the seller.

c)

to a contra-revenue account of the seller

d)

in the selling expenses of the buyer.

67.

Tony's Market recorded the following events involving a recent purchase of inventory:

Received goods for $80,000, terms 2/10, n/30.

Returned $1,600 of the shipment for credit.

Paid $400 freight on the shipment.

Paid the invoice within the discount period.

As a result of these events, the company's inventory

a)

increased by $76,832

b)

increased by $77,232

c)

increased by $78,800.

d)

increased by $77,224.

68.

Of the following companies, which one would not likely employ the specific identification method for inventory costing? 

a)

Hardware store

b)

Antique shop

c)

Farm implement dealership

d)

Music store specializing in organ sales

69.

The situation that requires a departure from the cost basis of accounting to the lower-of- cost-or-net-realizable-value basis in valuing inventory is necessitated by 

a)

an increase in the value of the inventory.

b)

a desire for more profit.

c)

a decline in the value of the inventory.

d)

an increase in selling price.

70.

Which of the following should not be included in the physical inventory of a company?

a)

Goods in transit from another company shipped FOB shipping point.

b)

Goods held on consignment from another company.

c)

All of these answer choices should be included.

d)

Goods shipped on consignment to another company.

71.

Cost of goods available for sale is equal to:

Ending inventory plus cost of goods sold

Beginning inventory plus purchases

Beginning inventory plus cost of goods sold

Ending inventory plus purchases

a)

3 and 1

b)

1 and 2

c)

4 and 3

d)

2 and 4

72.

Tidwell Company's goods in transit at December 31 include sales made

(1)  FOB destination

(2)  FOB shipping point

and purchases made

(3)  FOB destination

(4)  FOB shipping point.

Which items should be included in Tidwell's inventory at December 31?

a)

(2) and (3)

b)

(1) and (4)

c)

 (1) and (3)

d)

(2) and (4)

73.

An assumption about cost flow is used

a)

only when the flow of goods cannot be determined.

b)

because prices usually change, and tracking which units have been sold is difficult

c)

even when there is no change in the purchase price of inventory.

d)

because it is required by the income tax regulation.

74.

The selection of an appropriate inventory cost flow assumption for an individual company is made by

a)

management.

b)

the SEC.

c)

the internal auditors.

d)

the external auditors.

75.

The LIFO inventory method assumes that the cost of the latest units purchased is

a)

the first to be allocated to ending inventory.

b)

the last to be allocated to cost of goods sold.

c)

the first to be allocated to cost of goods sold.

d)

not allocated to cost of goods sold or ending inventory.

76.

When is a physical inventory usually taken?

a)

When the company has its greatest amount of inventory.

b)

At the end of the company’s fiscal year.

c)

When goods are not being sold or received.

d)

When the company has its greatest amount of inventory and at the end of the company's fiscal year.

77.

Goods held on consignment are

a)

kept for sale on the premises of the consignor.

b)

included in the consignee's ending inventory.

c)

never owned by the consignee.

d)

included as part of no one's ending inventory.

78.

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to inventories?

a)

Under FIFO, the ending inventory is based on the latest units purchased.

b)

FIFO seldom coincides with the actual physical flow of inventory.

c)

It is generally good business management to sell the most recently acquired goods first.

d)

The FIFO method assumes that the costs of the earliest goods acquired are the last to be sold.

79.

Which one of the following would not cause a bank to debit a depositor's account?

a)

Wiring of funds to other locations

b)

Collection of a note receivable

c)

Bank service charge

d)

Checks marked NSF

80.

Which of the following is not a basic principle of cash management?

a)

Delay payment of liabilities.

b)

Increase the speed of collection on receivables

c)

Keep inventory levels low

d)

Maintain idle cash.

81.

A company maintains the asset account, Cash in Bank, on its books, while the bank maintains a reciprocal account that is

a)

a stockholders' equity account

b)

a liability account

c)

also an asset account

d)

a contra asset account

82.

Restricted cash should be reported

a)

separately on the income statement

b)

always as a noncurrent asset

c)

separately on the balance sheet

d)

always as a current asset

83.

What causes the balance on the bank statement to differ from the cash balance in the general ledger?

a)

Time lags, and errors by the bank or company

b)

Errors by the company only

c)

Time lags only

d)

Errors by the bank only

84.

All of the following are examples of internal control procedures except

a)

insisting that employees take vacations

b)

using prenumbered documents

c)

customer satisfaction surveys

d)

reconciling the bank statement

85.

Which of the following is not one of the main factors that contribute to fraudulent activity?

a)

Financial pressure.

b)

Opportunity

c)

Incompatible duties.

d)

Rationalization

86.

Which one of the following is not an objective of a system of internal controls?

a)

Safeguard company assets

b)

Overstate liabilities in order to be conservative

c)

Reduce the risks of errors

d)

Enhance the accuracy and reliability of accounting records

87.

Which item is a current asset?

a)

Cash equivalents

b)

Cash that will be used to close a plant in eighteen months

c)

Restricted cash that will not be used within the upcoming year

d)

Cash – regardless of whether it has a positive or negative balance

88.

Under the concept of establishment of responsibility, how many people should have the ultimate responsibility?

a)

Only one individual

b)

An individual and his/her supervisor

c)

Everyone in the organization

d)

The CEO

89.

Receivables are

a)

claims that are expected to be collected in cash.

b)

shown on the income statement at cash realizable value.

c)

always the result of revenue recognition.

d)

one of the most liquid assets and thus are always considered current assets.

90.

Two methods of accounting for uncollectible accounts are the

a)

direct write-off method and the allowance method

b)

allowance method and the net realizable method.

c)

direct write-off method and the accrual method

d)

allowance method and the accrual method.

91.

When an account becomes uncollectible and must be written off

a)

  Sales Revenue should be debited.

b)

Bad Debt Expense should be credited.

c)

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts should be credited.

d)

Accounts Receivable should be credited.

92.

The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is necessary because  

a)

 uncollectible accounts that are written off must be accumulated in a separate account.

b)

management needs to accumulate all the credit losses over the years.

c)

when recording uncollectible accounts expense, it is not possible to know which specific accounts will not pay.

d)

a liability results when a credit sale is made.

93.

When the allowance method is used to account for uncollectible accounts, Bad Debts Expense is debited when

a)

a sale is made.

b)

management estimates the amount of uncollectible accounts.

c)

an account becomes bad and is written off.

d)

a customer's account becomes past due.

94.

When the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts is used, Bad Debt Expense is recorded

a)

in the same year as the credit sale.

b)

as each credit sale is made.

c)

in the year after the credit sale is made.

d)

when an account is written off as uncollectible.

95.

The two key parties to a promissory note are the

a)

maker and a bank.

b)

debtor and the payee.

c)

sender and the receiver.

d)

maker and the payee.

96.

To record estimated uncollectible accounts using the allowance method, the adjusting entry would be a

a)

debit to Accounts Receivable and a credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

b)

debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

c)

debit to Loss on Credit Sales and a credit to Accounts Receivable.

d)

debit to Bad Debt Expense and a credit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

97.

A high accounts receivable turnover ratio indicates

a)

the company's sales are increasing.

b)

customers are making payments very quickly.

c)

 a large proportion of the company's sales are on credit.

d)

 customers are making payments slowly.

98.

Which one of the following is not a principle of sound accounts receivable management?

a)

Determine to whom to extend credit.

b)

Monitor collections.

c)

Delay cash receipts from receivables if necessary.

d)

Determine a payment period.

99.

All of the following statements are false regarding depreciation except

a)

depreciation does not apply to land improvements

b)

depreciation does not apply to land

c)

recognizing depreciation results in the accumulation of cash for asset replacement

d)

depreciation is an asset valuation process

100.

Which one of the following items is not a consideration when recording periodic depreciation expense on plant assets?

a)

Cost

b)

Estimated useful life

c)

Cash needed to replace the plant asset

d)

Salvage value

101.

The balance in the Accumulated Depreciation account represents the       

a)

amount charged to expense since the acquisition of the plant asset

b)

cash fund to be used to replace plant assets.

c)

amount to be deducted from the cost of the plant asset to arrive at its fair market value.

d)

amount charged to expense in the current period.

102.

Intangible assets are the rights and privileges that result from ownership of long-lived assets that

a)

do not have physical substance.

b)

have been exchanged at a gain.

c)

are depreciated over their useful life.

d)

must be generated internally.

103.

Plant assets are ordinarily presented in the balance sheet 

a)

at replacement costs.

b)

in a separate section along with intangible assets.

c)

at current market values.

d)

at cost less accumulated depreciation.

104.

A loss on disposal of a plant asset is reported in the financial statements

a)

in the Other Expenses and Losses section of the income statement.

b)

in the Other Revenues and Gains section of the income statement.

c)

as a direct increase to the capital account on the balance sheet

d)

 as a direct decrease to the capital account on the balance sheet

105.

Cost allocation of an intangible asset is referred to as

a)

amortization.

b)

depreciation

c)

capitalization

d)

rationalization

106.

The four subdivisions of plant assets are

a)

land, land improvements, buildings, and equipment.

b)

property, plant, equipment, and land

c)

furnishings and fixtures, land, buildings, and equipment.

d)

intangibles, land, buildings, and equipment.

107.

A gain or loss on disposal of a plant asset is determined by comparing the

a)

book value of the asset with the proceeds received from its sale.

b)

original cost of the asset with the proceeds received from its sale.

c)

book value of the asset with the asset's original cost

d)

replacement cost of the asset with the asset's original cost.

108.

The book value of an asset is equal to the

a)

asset's cost less accumulated depreciation

b)

replacement cost of the asset.

c)

asset's fair value less its historical cost.

d)

blue book value relied on by secondary markets.

109.

As interest is recorded on an interest-bearing note, the Interest Expense account is

a)

increased; the Notes Payable account is increased

b)

increased; the Interest Payable account is increased

c)

increased; the Notes Payable account is decreased

d)

decreased; the Interest Payable account is increased

110.

Liquidity ratios measure a company's

a)

operating cycle.

b)

short-term debt paying ability.

c)

long-range solvency.

d)

revenue-producing ability.

111.

A current liability is a debt that can reasonably be expected to be paid

a)

within one year, or the operating cycle, whichever is longer

b)

out of currently recognized revenues

c)

out of cash currently on hand.

d)

between 6 months and 18 months

112.

The current portion of long-term debt should

a)

be reclassified as a current liability

b)

not be separated from the long-term portion of debt.

c)

be paid immediately

d)

be classified as a long-term liability

113.

A measure of a company's solvency is the

a)

asset turnover ratio.

b)

current ratio

c)

acid-test ratio.

d)

debt to asset ratio

114.

Unearned Rent Revenue is  

a)

debited when rent is received in advance

b)

a revenue account.

c)

 reported as a current liability.

d)

a contra account to Rent Revenue.

115.

Failure to record a liability will probably

a)

have no effect on net income

b)

result in overstated total assets

c)

result in overstated total liabilities and owner's equity

d)

result in an overstated net income

116.

A retailer that collects sales taxes is acting as an agent for the

a)

taxing authority.

b)

customer.

c)

wholesaler.

d)

chamber of commerce.

117.

Interest expense on an interest-bearing note is

a)

always equal to zero

b)

only recorded at maturity when the note is paid

c)

only recorded at the time the note is issued.

d)

accrued over the life of the note

118.

The amount of sales tax collected by a retail store when making sales is

a)

a current liability.

b)

recorded as an operating expense.

c)

a miscellaneous revenue for the store.

d)

not recorded because it is a tax paid by the customer.

119.

Par value

a)

represents the original selling price for a share of stock.

b)

is the value assigned per share in the corporate charter.

c)

is established for a share of stock after it is issued.

d)

represents what a share of stock is worth

120.

The net effects on the corporation of the declaration and payment of a cash dividend are to

a)

increase stockholders' equity and decrease liabilities.

b)

decrease assets and decrease stockholders' equity.

c)

decrease liabilities and decrease stockholders' equity.

d)

increase assets and increase stockholders' equity.

121.

Which of the following is not a right or preference associated with preferred stock?

a)

Preference to corporate assets in case of liquidation.

b)

To receive dividends in arrears before common stockholders receive dividends.

c)

First claim to dividends.

d)

The right to vote.

122.

Alt Corp. issues 5,000 shares of $10 par value common stock at $14 per share. When the transaction is recorded, credits are made to:

a)

Common Stock $50,000 and Paid-in Capital in Excess of Stated Value $20,000.

b)

Common Stock $70,000.

c)

Common Stock $50,000 and Retained Earnings $20,000.

d)

Common Stock $50,000 and Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par Value $20,000.

123.

Treasury stock is    

a)

stock purchased by a corporation and held as an investment in its treasury.

b)

stock issued by the U.S. Treasury Department.

c)

a corporation's own stock, which has been reacquired and held for future use

d)

corporate stock issued by the treasurer of a company.

124.

The date on which a cash dividend becomes a binding legal obligation is on the

a)

last day of the fiscal year-end

b)

payment date.

c)

declaration date.

d)

 date of record.

125.

The amount of stock that may be issued according to the corporation's charter is referred to as the

a)

issued stock.

b)

unissued stock.

c)

authorized stock.

d)

outstanding stock.

126.

Which of the following statements about treasury stock is true?

a)

Companies acquire treasury stock to decrease earnings per share

b)

Few corporations have treasury stock.

c)

Companies acquire treasury stock to increase the number of shares outstanding.

d)

Purchasing treasury stock is done to eliminate hostile shareholder buyouts.

127.

A corporation purchases 20,000 shares of its own common stock for $35 per share. What will be the effect on total stockholders' equity?

a)

Decrease by $400,000.

b)

Decrease by $300,000.

c)

Decrease by $700,000.

d)

Increase by $700,000.

128.

On the dividend record date, 

a)

Dividends Payable is debited

b)

a dividend becomes a current obligation.

c)

an entry may be required if it is a stock dividend.

d)

no entry is required.