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FPTJetking - ICDN 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is your class ID at FPT Jetking?

a)

J1.2210.E0

b)

J1.2210.E1

c)

J0.2210.E0

d)

J0.2210.E1

2.

ARP is ....

a)

Address Routing Protocol

b)

Addess Resolution Protocol

c)

Address Resolution Protocol

d)

I don't know...

3.

Which of the following statements are true regarding the binary subnet ID, subnet broadcast address, and host IP Address values in any single subnet (3 answers)

a)

The host part of the broadcast address is all binary 0s

b)

The host part of the subnet ID is all binary 0s

c)

The host part of any usable IP address must not be all binary 0s

d)

The host part of the broadcast address is all binary 1s

4.

The company needs a maximum of 30 hosts address per subnet. Which of the subnet mask will support this request?

a)

255.255.255.192

b)

255.255.255.128

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.224

5.

In which of the following mode in Cisco's IOS, Can you issue the command: "show running-config" ?

a)

User mode

b)

Privileged mode

c)

Global Configuration Mode

d)

Line Configurtation

6.

Which of the following are not valid Class B network IDs? (2 answers)

a)

126.255.0.0

b)

113.0.0.0

c)

192.168.0.0

d)

10.0.0.0

7.

How does using the service password-encryption command on a router provide additional security?

a)

by encrypting just only enable password in the plain text configuration file.

b)

by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in the configuration of the router.

c)

by encrypting all passwords in the plain text configuration file.

d)

by requiring the entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device.

8.

What layer of the OSI model coordinates with the Transport Layer of the TCP/IP model?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Sessions

d)

Network

9.

What is Administrative Distance?

a)

administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols.

b)

administrative distance is not the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols.

10.

Please, select the best choice: Which transmission media has the highest transmission speed in a network?

a)

UTP Cable

b)

STP Cable

c)

Optical cable

d)

Coaxial cable

11.

Choose 02 pairs of devices that use a straight-through cable?

a)

PC --- Router

b)

Router --- Switch

c)

PC --- Switch

d)

HUB - Switch

12.

Which of the following are private IP networks?

a)

9.0.0.0

b)

10.0.0.0

c)

11.0.0.0

d)

12.0.0.0

13.

Which of the following are Loopback/Localhost address network?

a)

125.0.0.1

b)

126.0.0.1

c)

127.0.0.1

d)

128.0.0.1

14.

When your terminal display "Router>", you at ... mode

a)

Global Configuration

b)

Setup

c)

User

d)

Line configuration

15.

What is prefix length for subnet 255.255.255.0 ?

a)

/24

b)

/25

c)

/26

d)

/27

16.

What is the maximum number of valid subnets will have from /24 to /26?

a)

4 subnets

b)

3 subnets

c)

2 subnets

d)

1 subnet

17.

/30, how many IPs for the host do we have ?

a)

1 IP

b)

2 IPs

c)

3 IPs

d)

4 IPs

18.

How many valid hosts will have from the network 192.168.120.0 255.255.255.252?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

10

19.

You have [ 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 ] bits, please covert it to Decimal. It is ....

a)

125

b)

126

c)

127

d)

128

20.

Peer-to-Peer Communication of Layer03

a)

Segment

b)

Packet

c)

I don't know

d)

Frames

21.

What layer name manage the END-to-END connection on OSI/Model?

a)

Internet

b)

Application

c)

Transport

d)

Datalink

22.

What is Protocol & Port of HTTP?

a)

TCP/80

b)

TCP/443

c)

TCP/22

d)

TCP/23

23.

What is Protocol & Port of SSH?

a)

TCP/80

b)

TCP/443

c)

TCP/22

d)

TCP/23

24.

What is Protocol & Port of HTTPS?

a)

TCP/80

b)

TCP/443

c)

TCP/22

d)

TCP/23

25.

What is Protocol & Port of TELNET?

a)

TCP/80

b)

TCP/443

c)

TCP/22

d)

TCP/23

26.

You have UDP protocol and Port Number is 69, what is the application?

a)

TFTP

b)

FTP

c)

FTPS

d)

DNS

27.

You have UDP protocol and Port Number is 53, what is the application?

a)

TFTP

b)

FTP

c)

FTPS

d)

DNS

28.

When your terminal display "Router(config)#", you at ... mode

a)

Global Configuration

b)

User

c)

Setup

d)

Line Configuration

29.

When your terminal display "Router(config-line)#", you at ... mode

a)

Global Configuration

b)

User

c)

Setup

d)

Line Configuration

30.

Computer networks do which of the following?

a)

Allow computer hosts to communicate data between each other

b)

Drop computer hosts to communicate data between each other

c)

Deny computer hosts to communicate data between each other

d)

Provide a Graphic User Inferface to control network devices

31.

Select the best answer: Which OSI layer defines the standards for connectors and cabling?

a)

Physical

b)

Cable

c)

Internet

d)

Datalink

32.

The FCS on a frame detect that the frame is damaged. The frame is then drop. Which OSI layer did this?

a)

Layer1

b)

Layer2

c)

Layer3

d)

Layer4

33.

The operation system of the Cisco device is...

a)

IOS

b)

iOS

c)

LOS

d)

JOS

34.

If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

35.

Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two)

a)

to enable intra-enterprise communication

b)

to conserve global address space

c)

to manage routing overhead

d)

to implement NAT

36.

Which of the following are not valid Class A network IDs? (Choose two answers.)

a)

126.0.0.0

b)

127.0.0.0

c)

128.0.0.0

d)

129.0.0.0

37.

Which of the following objects is above the Transport Layer? (chose three)

a)

Segments

b)

Frames

c)

UDP

d)

Windowing

38.

Which of the following are true about IP address 172.30.15.55/16 IP network? (Select two answers.)

a)

The network ID is 172.30.0.0

b)

The default mask for the network is 255.255.0.0

c)

The default mask for the network is 255.255.128.0

d)

The network ID is 172.30.15.0

39.

Which of the following are true about IP address 192.168.100.17 255.255.255.0 IP network? (Select two answers.)

a)

The network ID is 192.168.100.10

b)

The network is a Class C network.

c)

The prefix length is /24.

d)

The number of host bits in the unsubnetted network is 16.

40.

Which of the following answers lists the prefix format equivalent of 255.255.224.0?

a)

/17

b)

/18

c)

/19

d)

/20

41.

Which of the following answers lists the prefix format equivalent of 255.255.255.128?

a)

/31

b)

/27

c)

/29

d)

/25

42.

Which of the following answers lists the subnet mask equivalent of /23?

a)

255.255.255.192

b)

255.255.192.0

c)

255.255.255.240

d)

255.255.254.0

e)

255.255.255.0

43.

An engineer is thinking about the following IP address and mask using classless IP addressing logic: 172.16.0.0, 255.255.128.0. Which of the following statements are true when using classless addressing logic? (Choose two.)

a)

The network part’s size is 10 bits.

b)

The prefix length is 16 bits.

c)

The host part’s size is 16 bits.

d)

The prefix length is 17 bits.

e)

The host part’s size is 15 bits.

44.

Which of the following is the resident subnet ID for IP address 10.11.12.13/16?

a)

10.0.0.0

b)

10.11.0.0

c)

10.11.12.0

d)

10.11.12.13

45.

Which of the following answers lists the subnet mask equivalent of /20?

a)

255.255.240.0

b)

255.255.192.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.252

e)

255.256.255.0

46.

Which of the following is the subnet broadcast address for the subnet in which IP address 172.31.77.201/25 resides?

a)

172.31.77.255

b)

172.31.77.0

c)

172.31.77.127

d)

172.31.77.128

47.

You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all two web servers to be on the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and subnet mask meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

a)

192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252

b)

192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252

c)

192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248

d)

192.168.252.8 255.255.255.254

48.

Given an IP address 172.16.31.252 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the correct network address?

a)

172.16.16.0

b)

172.16.32.0

c)

172.16.31.0

d)

172.16.0.0

49.

What does the flash memory on a Cisco router store?

a)

The startup configuration of a Cisco router

b)

The Cisco Device Manager software application

c)

The image file of the Cisco IOS operating system

d)

All answers are true

50.

What command save configuration to NVRAM?

a)

copy running-config startup-config

b)

copy running-config tftp

c)

copy tftp running-config

d)

copy startup-config running-config

51.

When a packet is routed across a network, the _______ in the packet changes at every hop while the ______ does not.

a)

MAC address, IP address

b)

IP address, MAC address

c)

Port number, IP address

d)

IP address, port number

52.

At which layer of the OSI model does TELNET run?

a)

Applications

b)

Session

c)

Presentation

d)

Network

53.

Choice the correct command shows telnet/ssh connections to your router?

a)

show cdp nei

b)

show session

c)

show users

d)

show vty logins

54.

How does a DHCP server dynamically assign IP addresses to hosts?

a)

Addresses are permanently assigned so that the host uses the same address at all times.

b)

Addresses are assigned for a fixed period of time. At the end of the period, a new request for an address must be made to renew the lease.

c)

Addresses are leased to hosts. A host will usually periodically contacts the DHCP server to get another address after the address it using expire.

d)

Addresses are allocated after a negotiation between the server and the host to determine the length of the agreement.

55.

Which three tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform?

a)

Provide the default gateway to be used by the hosts on the network.

b)

Provide IP addresses and subnet mask to be used by the hosts on the network.

c)

Assign and renew IP address from the pool.

d)

Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server

e)

Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.

56.

What command configures a Cisco device as a DHCP client?

a)

ip address auto

b)

ip address dhcp

c)

ip address learn

d)

ip address dynamic

57.

What is the third step of the four steps of the DHCP process?

a)

Acknowledgement

b)

Request

c)

Offer

d)

Discover

58.

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two answers.)

a)

network or subnetwork IP address

b)

broadcast address on the network

c)

designated IP address to the DHCP server

d)

manually assigned address to the clients

e)

IP address leased to the LAN

59.

Which protocols are used by switches to prevent loops in a data link layer? (Choose two answers)

a)

802.1D

b)

STP

c)

FPT

d)

VTP

60.

What is the purpose of the DHCP server?

a)

to provide storage for email

b)

to translate URLs to IP addresses

c)

to translate IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

d)

to provide an IP configuration information to hosts

61.

Router COMPANY use dynamic routing protocol, which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static

route as a backup?

a)

Hop count

b)

Administrative Distance

c)

Link Status

d)

Link Bandwidth

62.

An engineer configures a static IPv4 route on Router R1. Which of the following pieces of information should

not be listed as a parameter in the configuration

command that creates this static IPv4 route?

a)

The destination subnet’s subnet ID

b)

The next-hop router’s IP address

c)

The next-hop router’s neighboring interface

d)

The subnet mask

63.

What is the EtherChannel mode Cisco support? (two choice)

a)

PAgP

b)

LACP

c)

Static

d)

NULL

64.

Which command creates an LACP EtherChannel with a local ID of 5?

a)

channel-group 5 mode active

b)

channel-group 5 mode desirable

c)

channel-group 5 mode lacp

d)

channel-group 5 mode enable

65.

Which command creates a PAgP EtherChannel with a local ID of 5?

a)

channel-group 5 mode active

b)

channel-group 5 mode desirable

c)

channel-group 5 mode lacp

d)

channel-group 5 mode enable

66.

What is the maximum number of interfaces that can be aggregated with EtherChannel and PAgP?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

8

d)

6

e)

10

67.

Which two steps must you perform to enable SVI on a switch? (choose two)

a)

connect the router to a trunk port

b)

config the sub interface number exactly the same as the matching VLAN

c)

config full duplex

d)

assign the access port to the vlan

68.

Switch Virtual Interface provide which function?

a)

OSI Layer 2 connectivity to switches

b)

remote switch administration

c)

traffic routing for VLANs

d)

OSI Layer 3 connectivity to switches

69.

Which case the Network administrator must enable Router on a Stick?

a)

When a router have multiple subnets on a single physical link.

b)

When a router have single subnet on multiple physical links.

c)

When a router have multiple interface on single physical links.

d)

When a router have single interface on multiple physical links.

70.

What isn't two values use to select root port in STP?

a)

path cost

b)

lowest Sender bridge ID

c)

VTP revision number

d)

highest sender port priority number

e)

lowest sender port priority number

71.

Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

a)

32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66

b)

32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77

c)

32768: 10-22-33-44-55-65

d)

32768: 10-11-44-55-66-78

72.

Which if the following is not an issue addressed by STP?

a)

Broadcast storms

b)

Gateway redundancy

c)

A device receiving multiple copies of the same frame

d)

Constant updating of the MAC filter table

73.

The RND company needs to connect to five VLANs but have only one Router with two interfaces. Using the

fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing network performance?

a)

Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.

b)

Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.

c)

Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.

d)

Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.

74.

You have connected a Dell switch to the Cisco switch you are configuring and you cannot get a trunk between

the two. What must be changed?

a)

The Dell switch must be configured to use ISL.

b)

The Cisco switch must be configured to use 802.1Q.

c)

Both switches need to have duplicated VLAN configurations.

d)

VTP needs to be configured on each of the switches.

75.

In a LAN, which of the following terms best equates to the term VLAN?

a)

Collision domain

b)

Broadcast domain

c)

Subnet

d)

Trunk

76.

Select three benefits of VLANs?

a)

A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other network

traffic

b)

A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network

infrastructure.

c)

A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network

infrastructure

d)

Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their

size

e)

VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the

same broadcast domain

77.

What happen if we set switchport trunk native vlan 2 on a switch?

a)

It creates a VLAN 2 interface.

b)

It designates VLAN 2 for untagged frames.

c)

It blocks VLAN 2 traffic from passing on the trunk.

d)

It designates VLAN 2 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.

e)

It designates VLAN 2 for tagged traffic.

78.

In a switched environment, what does the ISL standard describe?

a)

the operation of VTP

b)

a method of VLAN trunking

c)

an approach to wireless LAN communication

d)

the process for root bridge selection

79.

VLAN 20 is not created and what happens if you set the switchport access vlan 20?

a)

The command is rejected.

b)

The port turns amber.

c)

The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat

d)

The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

80.

What is the purpose of frame tagging in virtual LAN (VLAN) configurations?

a)

Inter-VLAN routing

b)

Encryption of network packets

c)

Frame identification over trunk links

d)

Frame identification over access links

81.

A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing

departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

a)

More collision domains will be created.

b)

IP address utilization will be more efficient.

c)

More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.

d)

An additional broadcast domain will be created.

82.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to ISL and 802.1q?

a)

802.1q encapsulates the frame with control information; ISL inserts an ISL field along with tag control

information.

b)

802.1q is Cisco proprietary.

c)

ISL encapsulates the frame with control information; 802.1q inserts an 802.1q field along with tag control

information.

d)

ISL is a standard.

e)

I don't know.

83.

Which vlan range can be added modified and removed on a Cisco switch by default?

a)

2 through 1001

b)

1 through 1001

c)

2 through 1002

d)

1 through 1002

84.

HTTP Application has Protocol .... / Port ...

a)

TCP / 80

b)

TCP / 443

c)

TCP/69

d)

UDP/67

85.

SSH Application has Protocol ... / Port ...

a)

TCP / 22

b)

TCP / 23

c)

TCP / 3389

d)

TCP / 443

86.

Telnet Application has Protocol .... / Port ....

a)

TCP/23

b)

UDP/23

c)

UDP/22

d)

TCP/21

87.

OSPF multicast address with Point-to-Point connection is ....

a)

224.0.0.5

b)

224.0.0.6

c)

224.0.0.7

d)

224.0.0.8

88.

OSPF multicast address sent information from DROther to DR/BDR via ...

a)

224.0.0.4

b)

224.0.0.5

c)

224.0.0.6

d)

224.0.0.7

89.

OSPF is ....

a)

Open Shortest Path First

b)

Open Sort Path First

c)

Open Shotest Path Food

d)

Open Shortest Path Fish

90.

OSPF AD number default is ...

a)

110

b)

100

c)

90

d)

80

91.

Static Route AD number default is ....

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

92.

Switch SW1 uses its Gigabit 0/1 interface to connect to switch SW2’s Gigabit 0/2 interface. SW2’s Gi0/2

interface is configured with the speed 100 and duplex full commands. SW1 uses all defaults for interface

configuration commands on its Gi0/1 interface. Which of the following are true about the link after it comes up?

(Choose two answers.)

a)

The link works at 100 Mbps.

b)

SW1 attempts to run at 10 Mbps because SW2 has effectively disabled IEEE standard autonegotiation.

c)

The link runs at 1 Gbps, but SW1 uses half-duplex and SW2 uses full-duplex.

d)

Both switches use full-duplex

e)

Both switches use half-duplex.

93.

Switch SW1 connects through an Ethernet cable to a router. Which commands could tell you information

about the IOS version on Router without Telnet, SSH?

a)

show neighbors

b)

show cdp

c)

show cdp neighbors

d)

show cdp neighbors detail

94.

A VLAN was created on another non-Cisco switch. You look at the current VLAN database, but the VLAN is not

in the VLAN database. What must be done to correct the issue?

a)

Set the correct trunking protocol between the switches.

b)

Create the VLAN manually.

c)

Configure VTP on both switches.

d)

Assign the VLAN to an interface on the other switch.

95.

You attempt to configure a VLAN on a switch of VLAN 2017. When you finish configuring the VLAN and exit the

VLAN database, you receive the error “% Failed to create VLANS 2017.” What is wrong?

a)

The VLAN database is too large and out of space.

b)

The VLAN database cannot be configured for VLAN 2017.

c)

The VTP mode must be transparent to configure VLAN 2017.

d)

The VLAN is used on interfaces already.

96.

DNS Application has Protocol .... / Port ...

a)

UDP 53

b)

TCP 53

c)

UDP 67

d)

UDP 68

97.

How does STP assign port types?

a)

According to port MAC address, bridge ID, and port-id

b)

According to port bootup order, port MAC address, and bridge ID

c)

According to STP path cost, bridge ID, and port-id

d)

According to STP path cost, port number, and MAC address

98.

When a DHCP server is configured, which two IP addresses should never be assignable to hosts? (Choose two

answers.)

a)

network or subnetwork IP address

b)

broadcast address on the network

c)

IP address leased to the LAN

d)

IP address used by the interfaces

e)

manually assigned address to the clients

99.

Which of the following are true about a LAN-connected TCP/IP host and its IP routing (forwarding) choices?

a)

The host always sends packets to its default gateway.

b)

The host never sends packets to its default gateway

c)

The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in a different subnet than the

host.

d)

The host sends packets to its default gateway if the destination IP address is in the same subnet as the

host.

100.

Which of the following are functions of a routing protocol? (Choose two answers.)

a)

Advertising known routes to neighboring routers

b)

Learning routes for subnets directly connected to the router

c)

Learning routes and putting those routes into the routing table for routes advertised to the router by its

neighboring routers

d)

Forwarding IP packets based on a packet’s destination IP address