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ES Final Exam Review

Total questions: 250

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The diagram shows a...

a)

solar eclipse

b)

lunar eclipse

c)

full moon

d)

spring tide

2.

The diagram shows a...

a)

solar eclipse

b)

lunar eclipse

c)

new moon

d)

neap tide

3.

An earth rotation happens every....

a)

24 hours

b)

365 days

c)

1 week

d)

1 month

4.

An earth revolution around the sun happens every....

a)

24 hours

b)

365 days

c)

1 week

d)

1 month

5.

What is the weathering process in which rocks are broken down into smaller pieces (sediments) and do not change the rock composition?

a)

Acid weathering

b)

Oxidation weathering

c)

Chemical weathering

d)

Mechanical weathering

6.

This underground cave most likely formed because of what?

a)

Carbonic acid dissolving the limestone bedrock

b)

Abrasion of the rock by rushing water

c)

Acid released from decaying plants and fungi

d)

Freezing and thawing of ice within the cavern

7.

These rusty nails would be an example of what?

a)

Mechanical weathering

b)

Animal weathering

c)

Plant growth

d)

Oxidation

8.

Weathering is the process of -

a)

Moving sediment from one place to another

b)

Dropping or leaving sediment in a location

c)

Breaking down rocks into sediment

9.
These rocks were made smooth by wind blowing smaller rock particles across their surface.  This is an example of:
a)
ice wedging
b)
chemical weathering
c)
acid rain
d)
abrasion
10.

What type of weathering is shown in the image?

a)

water abrasion

b)

wind abrasion

c)

carbonic acid

d)

plant growth - chemical

11.

The picture shows a sinkhole. Which of the following most likely caused the sinkhole to form?

a)

low pressure atmospheric conditions

b)

plant roots making cracks in the rock

c)

carbonic acid in karst topography

d)

mechanical weathering from a river

12.

What landforms can be found in Karst Topography?

a)

sinkholes

b)

deserts

c)

glaciers

d)

mountains

13.

What landforms can be found in Karst Topography?

a)

underground caverns

b)

beaches

c)

volcanoes

d)

subduction zones

14.

Granite boulders in the James River are rounded and smooth due to what form of weathering?

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

depostition

d)

sedimentation

15.

What is the weathering process in which rock composition is changed over time, but are often not broken down into smaller pieces (sediments)?

a)

Plant growth weathering

b)

Abrasion weathering

c)

Chemical weathering

d)

Mechanical weathering

16.

An example of chemical weathering is -

a)

Ice wedging

b)

Oxidation

c)

Animal activity

d)

Water abrasion

17.

Hot air rising and cold air air sinking due to differences in density

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Insulation

18.

Which is a cold front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

Which is a warm front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
20.

Which statement is true about warm air?

a)

Warm air rises

b)

Warm air sinks

c)

Warm air is more dense than cold air

d)

Warm air can hold less water vapor than cold air

21.

Which statement is true about warm air?

a)

Warm air is less dense than cold air

b)

Warm air sinks

c)

Warm air is more dense than cold air

d)

Warm air can hold less water vapor than cold air

22.

Which of the following statements is true about cold fronts?

a)

After the cold front passes, air is colder and less humid

b)

After the cold front passes, air is warmer and more humid

c)

Before the cold front passes, air is colder and less humid

d)

Cold Fronts do not create any signifi cant weather

23.

What air pressure system is diagrammed in the image?

a)

Low

b)

High

c)

Clockwise

d)

Counterclockwise

24.

Which of these is most likely to occur as air cools down to the dew point?

a)

the air becomes saturated

b)

the air becomes less saturated

c)

air pressure increases

d)

air pressure decreases

25.

If the temperature of the air decreased while the amount of water vapor in the air stayed the same, the relative humidity of the air would...

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

d)

be unaffected

26.

The temperature at which clouds and fog begin to form is known as the...

a)

dew point

b)

absolute humidity

c)

relative humidity

d)

condensation nuclei

27.

Each whole cylinder represents the air capacity at different temperatures, while the dark region represents the water vapor content. Which cylinder has the lowest relative humidity?

a)

5

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

e)

1

28.

Which is a stationary front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
29.

What is shown in the diagram?

a)

rapidly rising warm air along a cold front

b)

gently rising warm air along a warm front

c)

rapidly rising cold air along a warm front

d)

gently rising cold air along a cold front

30.

Which weather event is correctly matched with its type of weather?

a)

cold front - thunderstorms

b)

warm front - thunderstorms

c)

cold front - clear skies

d)

high pressure - heavy rain

31.

In the diagram, letter A best represents:

a)

Runoff

b)

Watershed

c)

Water Table

d)

Confining Layer

32.

Number 1 Represents

a)

Water table

b)

Zone of Aeration

c)

Zone of Saturation

d)

Soil Moisture

33.

Number 3 represents

a)

Soil Moisture

b)

Zone of Saturation

c)

Water Table

d)

Zone of Aeration

34.

Number 2 represents

a)

Soil Moisture

b)

Zone of Saturation

c)

Water Table

d)

Zone of Aeration

35.

If a well is over-pumped... what could happen?

a)

there will be more groundwater

b)

less groundwater + aquifers will dry out

c)

the water table does not change

36.

What is the best definition of a water table?

a)

The level to which a river rises when it floods

b)

The boundary between the land and the ocean

c)

The top of the saturated zone in an aquifer

d)

The top of the unsaturated zone in an aquifer

37.

When water vapor forms liquid water and makes a cloud.

a)

transpiration

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

precipitation

38.

When liquid or solid water falls from a cloud onto land

a)

transpiration

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

precipitation

39.

When liquid water is heated by the sun and turns to water vapor

a)

transpiration

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

precipitation

40.

When liquid water inside plant leaves turns to water vapor and exits the plant

a)

transpiration

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

infiltration

41.

When liquid water soaks into the permeable ground

a)

transpiration

b)

evaporation

c)

condensation

d)

infiltration

42.

Which Label shows a subduction zone?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

43.

Which Label shows seafloor spreading?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

44.

What is happening at point E?

a)

a fault line

b)

one tectonic plate

c)

a magma plume

d)

a volcanic air vent

45.

What is shown in the image?

a)

a fault line

b)

a river

c)

a mountain fold

d)

a volcanoe

46.

What type of plate boundary is this?

a)

Transform

b)

Convergent

c)

Divergent

47.

Name the boundary

a)

convergent boundary

b)

divergent boundary

c)

transform boundary

48.

What type of plate boundary is this?

a)

Transform

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

49.
What type of boundary forms faults and earthquakes?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
adjacent
50.

Shows that identical species used to live together, but the continents move apart over time

a)

fossil evidence

b)

geologic evidence

c)

evidence of climate change

d)

seafloor spreading

51.

Why do tectonic plates move?

a)

convection currents in the mantle

b)

conduction in the crust

c)

inner core releasing gas

d)

radiation of heat in the mantle

52.

What label is subduction zone?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

53.

What label is seafloor spreading?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

54.

What type of boundary forms subduction zones and mountain folding?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

hotspots

55.

What type of boundary forms seafloor spreading and rift valleys and mid ocean ridges?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

d)

hotspots

56.

In the diagram, which number would represent the moon's position during a full moon phase?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

In the diagram, which number would represent the moon's position during a new moon phase?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

58.

In the diagram, which number would represent the moon's position during a first quarter moon phase?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

59.

In the diagram, which number would represent the moon's position during a third quarter moon phase?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

60.

In the diagram, which numbers would represent the moon's position during a spring tide?

a)

2 and 4

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 2

d)

3 and 4

61.

In the diagram, which numbers would represent the moon's position during a neap tide?

a)

2 and 4

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 2

d)

3 and 4

62.

The image below shows the Earth and Moon illuminated during a typical lunar cycle. What type of eclipse would occur only when the Moon is in position A?

a)

Solar Eclipse

b)

Lunar Eclipse

c)

Terrestrial Eclipse

d)

Autumnal Eclipse

63.

What group is our Sun in?

a)

Main Sequence

b)

Red Giant

c)

Super Giant

d)

White Dwarf

64.

What makes the equator of Earth a higher temperature than the poles?

a)

the equatorial region of the Earth receives more direct sunlight

b)

the equatorial region of the Earth receives more plants

c)

the equatorial region of the Earth receives more land

d)

the equatorial region of the Earth receives more cloud cover

65.

The tilt of the Earth causes...

a)

seasons

b)

moon phases

c)

length of night and day

d)

duration and height of tides

66.

When does the northern hemisphere experience winter?

a)

The Northern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun in the winter.

b)

The Northern Hemisphere is closer to the Sun in the winter.

c)

The Sun moves below the horizon in the summer.

d)

The Sun burns hotter in the summer.

67.

Which diagram correctly represents the effect of the gravitational pull of the Moon on Earth's ocean tides?

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

Which diagram correctly represents the Earth, Sun, and Moon during a Full Moon phase?

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

In addition to Earth, which two other planets are shown?

a)

Mercury and Venus

b)

Venus and Mars

c)

Mars and Jupiter

d)

Jupiter and Saturn

70.

List the life stages which our sun will go through throughout its life in order.

a)

Nebula

Main Sequence

Red Giant

White Dwarf

b)

Main Sequence

Nebula

Red Giant

White Dwarf

c)

Main Sequence

Red Giant

White Dwarf

Nebula

d)

Nebula

Red Giant

Main Sequence

White Dwarf

71.

Which image shows what a new moon looks like from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
72.

Which image shows what a full moon looks like from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

Which diagram shows the correct positions of the Sun, Earth, and Moon during a Solar eclipse?

a)
b)
c)
d)
74.

What happens during a Spring Tide?

a)

High tides are at their highest

b)

High tides are at their weakest

c)

It is low tide everywhere on Earth

d)

The Sun, Earth, and Moon are not aligned

75.

The theory of how the universe began?

a)

Lorentz Force Theory

b)

Stellar Nebula Theory

c)

Big Bang Theory

d)

Big Crunch Theory

76.

in the diagram, when Earth in at position C what season is it in the northern hemisphere?

a)

Winter

b)

Summer

c)

Spring

d)

Fall

77.

A neap tide happens during which 2 moon phases?

a)

1st Quarter Moon

3rd Quarter Moon

b)

New Moon

3rd Quarter Moon

c)

1st Quarter Moon

Full Moon

d)

New Moon

Full Moon

78.

What reaction happens inside our star?

a)

Fusion

b)

Fission

c)

Quasars

d)

Burning

79.

What are the reasons for the seasons?

a)

Earth's tilted axis and rotation.

b)

Earth's rotation and revolution around the sun.

c)

Earth's tilted axis and revolution around the sun.

80.

Nuclear fusion is...

a)

2 hydrogen nuclei combine to form 1 helium nucleus

b)

2 helium nuclei combine to form 1 hydrogen nucleus

c)

1 helium nucleus splits into 2 hydrogen nuclei

d)

1 hydrogen nucleus splits into 2 helium nuclei

81.

Nuclear fusion generates energy in the Sun's...

a)

core

b)

radiative zone

c)

photosphere

d)

corona

82.

Which type of rock contains the most fossils?

a)

sedimentary

b)

metamorphic

c)

intrusive igneous

d)

extrusive igneous

83.

If the half-life of a radioactive element is 75 years, how many years have passed when the element contains 25% of the parent isotope?

a)

150 years

b)

75 years

c)

225 years

d)

37.5 years

84.

If the half-life of a radioactive element is 2000 years, how many years have passed when the element contains 25% of the parent isotope?

a)

4000 years

b)

2000 years

c)

6000 years

d)

1000 years

85.

What can be used to find the EXACT AGE of a rock or fossil?

a)

radioactive dating

b)

law of superposition

c)

fossil succession

d)

relative dating

86.

Which fossil is oldest in the image?

a)

Fossil W

b)

Fossil Y

c)

Fossil X

87.

Why is fossil X the oldest?

a)

it is inside limestone rock

b)

it is at the top of the rock layers

c)

it is at the bottom of the rock layers

d)

it is above the volcanic ash

88.

What conclusion can be made about Fossil Y?

a)

Fossil Y is older than the volcanic ash

b)

Fossil Y is younger than the volcanic ash

c)

Fossil Y is the same age as Fossil W

d)

Fossil Y and Fossil X are the same species

89.

Earth's history is broken into different Eras due to...

a)

fossil evidence and geologic events

b)

changes in climate

c)

changing tectonic plates

d)

absolute dating techniques

90.

The time it takes for the original radioactive substance to decay by half.

a)

half-life

b)

relative dating

c)

isotope

d)

fossil sucession

91.

Requirements for a fossil to be made?

a)

hard parts and buried quickly

b)

no hard parts and buried quickly

c)

no hard parts and buried slowly

d)

hard parts and buried slowly

92.

The most recent life form on Earth.

a)

humans

b)

birds

c)

dinosaurs

d)

marine creatures

e)

cyanobacteria

93.

The first life form on Earth.

a)

humans

b)

birds

c)

dinosaurs

d)

marine creatures

e)

cyanobacteria

94.

Most supported theory of how the dinosaurs went extinct.

a)

asteroid hit Earth

b)

climate change

c)

humans hunted them

d)

increasing competition with mammals

95.

Which remains are most likely to become fossils?

a)

ribs

b)

eyes

c)

skin

d)

heart

96.

Dinosaurs fossils are...

a)

older than Cenozoic mammal fossils

b)

younger than Cenozoic mammal fossils

c)

older than Paleozoic marine fossils

d)

older than Precambrian cyanobacteria

97.

Dinosaurs fossils are found from the...

a)

mesozoic era

b)

cenozoic era

c)

paleozoic era

d)

precambrian era

98.

The birthplace of stars

a)

stellar nebulae

b)

black holes

c)

supernovae

d)

red giants

99.

Which Galaxy appears the most redshifted?

a)

Top

b)

Middle

c)

Bottom

100.

The lines in the absorption spectra from the distant galaxy show that it is...

a)

moving away from us

b)

moving towards us

101.

The lines in the absorption spectra are...

a)

redshifted

b)

blueshifted

102.

The lines in the absorption spectra from the distant galaxy show that it is...

a)

moving away from us

b)

moving towards us

103.

The lines in the absorption spectra are...

a)

redshifted

b)

blueshifted

104.

As a light source moves away from the observer, the light waves become more stretched out an the color of the light appears different.

a)

Galaxy

b)

Redshift

c)

Nebula

d)

Fusion

105.

The absorption spectra of Galaxy A appears...

a)

red shifted

b)

blue shifted

106.

Which Galaxy is farther away from the observer?

a)

Galaxy B

b)

Galaxy A

107.

Which Galaxy is moving away from the observer?

a)

Galaxy B

b)

Galaxy A

108.

Which Galaxy is moving towards the observer?

a)

Galaxy B

b)

Galaxy A

109.

Which Galaxy is redshifted?

a)

Galaxy B

b)

Galaxy A

110.

Which Galaxy is blueshifted?

a)

Galaxy B

b)

Galaxy A

111.

What observation made by Edwin Hubble was used to conclude that the universe was expanding?

a)

Almost all galaxies appear redshifted

b)

Almost all galaxies appear blueshifted

c)

The Universe emits Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation

d)

The Universe emits Cosmic Radio Wave Background Radiation

112.

The atmosphere of early Earth has ________ than is does today.

a)

less oxygen

b)

more oxygen

c)

less CO2

113.

The most common gases in Earth's atmosphere today are...

a)

nitrogen and oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide and water vapor

c)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen and water vapor

114.

The atmosphere of Earth now has ________ than it did when it first formed 4.5 billion years ago.

a)

less oxygen

b)

more oxygen

c)

more CO2

115.
The variable the is changed on purpose is..
a)
Constant
b)
Control
c)
Independent Variable
d)
Dependent Variable
116.
The variable that is being tested, counted, or measured and is responding to the independent variable is known as 
a)
Control
b)
Constant
c)
Independent Variable
d)
Dependent Variable
117.
Mrs. Goodwyn wants to see if studying time affects test scores...She gives all 6 classes the same assignment but assigns different study times. What is the independent variable?
a)
Study time
b)
Test score
c)
Same assignment
118.
Mrs. Goodwyn wants to see if studying time affects test scores...She gives all 6 classes the same assignment but assigns different study times. What is the dependent variable?
a)
Study  time
b)
Test Score
c)
Same Assignment
119.
A student wants to test the hypothesis of "If salt is added to water then the boiling point of water will decrease." What is the independent variable?
a)
Amount of salt
b)
Boiling Point
c)
Amount of water
120.
A student wants to test the hypothesis of "If salt is added to water then the boiling point of water will decrease." What is the dependent variable?
a)
amount of salt
b)
boiling point
c)
same amount of water
121.

The variables that are kept the same on purpose are..

a)

Constant Variable

b)

Control Variable

c)

Independent Variable

d)

Dependent Variable

122.
What is another word for hypothesis?
a)
evidence
b)
graph
c)
investigation
d)
prediction
123.
Which is the dependent variable in Amelia's experiment?
a)
the number of bean plants in each group 
b)
the amount of water given daily to each plant 
c)
the height of each bean plant 
d)
the amount of fertilizer given to each group of bean plants
124.

Based on the graph, four different lab groups come to the following conclusions. Which group’s conclusion best describes the results shown on the graph?

a)

Group 1: The amount of stretch stays the same as weights are added.

b)

Group 2: The amount of stretch increases as more weights are added.

c)

Group 3: The amount of stretch is unaffected as more weights are added.

d)

Group 4: The amount of stretch gradually decreases as more weights are added.

125.
Ms. S set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. What is the dependent variable?
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
d)
Where the experiment took place.
126.
Ms. S set up an experiment to see how the mass of a ball affects the distance it rolls off a ramp. Identify the independent variable.
a)
Distance traveled by the ball
b)
Height of the ramp
c)
Mass of the ball
d)
Who set up the experiment (Ms. S, etc)
127.

When you put an object in a graduated cylinder of water and measure how much the water level changed what is this process called?

a)

Relative Density

b)

Displacement

c)

Density

128.
Frank has a paper clip. It has a mass of 9g and a volume of 3cm3. What is its density?
a)
3 g/cm3
b)
1/3 g/cm3
c)
27 g/cm3
d)
39 g/cm3
129.
Why do ice cubes float in a  glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
130.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
131.
What is the volume of the rock?
a)
30cm3
b)
10cm3
c)
40cm3
d)
20cm3
132.

What is the time it takes for this material to decay by half?

a)

5,000 years

b)

10,000 years

c)

15,000 years

d)

20,000 years

133.

If the half-life of a radioactive element is 75 years, how many years have passed when the element contains 50% of the parent isotope?

a)

150 years

b)

75 years

c)

225 years

d)

37.5 years

134.

If the half-life of a radioactive element is 2000 years, how many years have passed when the element contains 50% of the parent isotope?

a)

4000 years

b)

2000 years

c)

6000 years

d)

1000 years

135.

What are the coordinates of location A?

a)

75°N , 0°W

b)

30°S , 60°W

c)

0°N , 90°E

d)

15°S , 135°W

136.

What are the coordinates of location D?

a)

75°N , 0°W

b)

30°S , 60°W

c)

0°N , 90°E

d)

15°S , 135°W

137.

What are the coordinates of location E?

a)

40°N , 165°W

b)

30°S , 60°W

c)

0°N , 90°E

d)

15°S , 135°W

138.

What is the difference between latitude and longitude?

a)

Latitude shows north/south while Longitude shows east/west

b)

Longitude shows north/south while Latitude shows east/west

c)

Both Latitude and Longitude show east/west

d)

Both Latitude and Longitude show north/south

139.

What is the latitude of Richmond, VA as shown on the map?

a)

37.5°N

b)

37.5°W

c)

77°N

d)

77°W

140.

Which point is a flat area?

a)

H

b)

G

c)

F

d)

E

141.

What is the elevation of point A?

a)

310ft

b)

300ft

c)

250ft

d)

270ft

142.

What is the topography between point A and B?

a)

b)

c)

d)

143.

What map helps the reader see elevation changes in an area?

a)

topographic map

b)

Mercator projection map

c)

coordinate map

d)

globe

144.

What is the elevation of point A?

a)

1620ft

b)

1600ft

c)

1500ft

d)

1560ft

145.

What is point X?

a)

hole

b)

valley

c)

river

d)

mountain

146.

At what point is the change in elevation the steepest?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

147.

What is this a topographic map of?

a)

stream through a valley

b)

mountain plateau

c)

small hill in a field

d)

sinkhole near the ocean

148.

A disadvantage of solar panels is...?

a)

they are expensive to build

b)

they are fully reliable during the night

c)

they do not emit greenhouse gases

d)

their energy source is limited

149.

A disadvantage of solar panels is...?

a)

they are cheap to build

b)

they are not reliable during the night

c)

they do not emit greenhouse gases

d)

their energy source is limited

150.

What is an advantage of renewable energy sources?

a)

they produce little/no pollution

b)

they don't produce energy

c)

the source of energy is limited

d)

they produce CO2 as waste

151.

What is an advantage of renewable energy sources?

a)

they produce lots of pollution

b)

they don't produce energy

c)

the source of energy does not run out

d)

they produce CO2 as waste

152.

What is a disadvantage of hydroelectric dams (energy from water)?

a)

the energy supply is based on the weather (like the wind)

b)

they damage river ecosystems

c)

if it snows, it covers up the solar panels and they don't work

d)

it is made from food we need to eat

153.

What is a disadvantage of wind energy?

a)

the energy supply is based on the weather (like the wind) and is doesn't work all the time

b)

they damage river ecosystems

c)

if it snows, it covers up the solar panels and they don't work

d)

it is made from food we need to eat

154.

Which energy source releases carbon dioxide into the air?

a)

wind

b)

solar

c)

coal

d)

nuclear

155.

Most coomon mineral mined in Virginia and burned for energy production.

a)

Coal

b)

Natural Gas

c)

Quartz

d)

Aluminum

156.

Mineral used in pencils

a)

graphite

b)

sulfur

c)

iron

d)

lead

157.

The luster of the mineral in the image is...

a)

nonmetallic

b)

metallic

c)

conchoidal

d)

isometric

158.

the way a mineral breaks (cleavage/fracture) is based on...

a)

arrangement of atoms within the mineral

b)

hardness of the mineral

c)

how common the mineral is

d)

mineral exposure to water and air

159.

Quartz

a)

used in construction

b)

burned for energy

c)

made into glass

d)

made into drywall

160.

Coal

a)

used in construction

b)

burned for energy

c)

made into glass

d)

made into drywall

161.

Gypsum

a)

used in construction

b)

burned for energy

c)

made into glass

d)

made into drywall

162.

Halite

a)

used in construction

b)

burned for energy

c)

made into glass

d)

made into salt

163.

Graphite

a)

made into pencils

b)

burned for energy

c)

made into glass

d)

made into salt

164.

Sulfur

a)

made into pencils

b)

rotten egg smell

c)

made into glass

d)

made into salt

165.

how the mineral breaks apart

a)

luster

b)

cleavage / fracture

c)

streak

d)

hardness

166.

how the mineral reflects light

a)

luster

b)

cleavage / fracture

c)

streak

d)

hardness

167.

how the mineral looks as a powder

a)

luster

b)

cleavage / fracture

c)

streak

d)

hardness

168.

the ability for one mineral to scratch another

a)

luster

b)

cleavage / fracture

c)

streak

d)

hardness

169.

Which mineral are shiny and nonmagnetic?

a)

2 and 4

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

1 and 5

170.

If a mineral can scratch feldspar, but is scratched by topaz, what hardness is it?

a)

more than 6 but less than 8

b)

more than 8 but less than 6

c)

more than 8

d)

less than 5

171.

What mineral resources are mined from Virginia?

a)

Coal, Limestone, Granite

b)

Sulfur, Diamond, Lead

c)

Gold, Silver, Slate

d)

Marble, Copper, Aluminum

172.

Made from water pushing a turbine.

a)

solar

b)

nuclear

c)

natural gas

d)

hydroelectric

173.

Why are they called "fossil fuels"?"

a)

they are made of once-living organisms

b)

they formed the same time as dinosaurs

c)

they are found with fossils inside them

d)

they form from inorganic (not living) materials

174.

What is a disadvantage of nonrenewable energy sources?

a)

they do not pollute

b)

they are easy to mine and use

c)

they regenerate quickly

d)

they add to global warming

175.

What is a disadvantage of nonrenewable energy sources?

a)

they do not pollute

b)

they are easy to mine and use

c)

they take millions of years to form

d)

they do not add to global warming

176.

What is an advantage of nonrenewable energy sources?

a)

they are clean energy sources

b)

they pollute less

c)

easy to mine and use

d)

they are expensive

177.

What type of energy source formed in swamps from 200 milion years ago?

a)

wind

b)

solar

c)

coal

d)

oil

178.

What can be made into plastics?

a)

wind

b)

solar

c)

natural gas

d)

petroleum

179.

What is an example of infiltration?

a)

rain water soaking into the ground

b)

water leaving from inside plant leaves

c)

liquid water turning into water vapor

d)

water vapor cooling and becoming liquid water

180.

Ground that water can flow through.

a)

permeable

b)

impermeable

181.

Which Virginia province is closest to the Atlantic Ocean?

a)

Coastal Plain

b)

Piedmont

c)

Blue Ridge

d)

Valley and Ridge

182.

The location underground where pores between soil particles contain lots of water.

a)

zone of saturation

b)

zone of aeration

c)

water table

183.

The location underground where pores between soil particles contain lots of air and little water.

a)

zone of saturation

b)

zone of aeration

c)

water table

184.

Which diagram correctly predicts the movement of the water table after pumping water from the well?

a)

b)

c)

d)

185.

Which watershed is the blue shaded section on the map?

a)

North Carolina Sounds

b)

Gulf of Mexico

c)

Chesapeake Bay

186.

Which watershed is the yellow shaded section on the map?

a)

North Carolina Sounds

b)

Gulf of Mexico

c)

Chesapeake Bay

187.

Which watershed is the green shaded section on the map?

a)

North Carolina Sounds

b)

Gulf of Mexico

c)

Chesapeake Bay

188.

Hurricanes spin because of...

a)

the earth rotating

b)

the earth revolving around the sun

c)

the orbiting moon

d)

the tilted axis of earth

189.

Hurricanes form in what part of the world?

a)

over warm oceans

b)

where cold and warm air collide

c)

over arctic sea ice

d)

where dry air mixes with moist air on land

190.

Made from crystallization of magma

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

191.

Made from compaction and cementation of sediment

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

192.

Made from heat and pressure deep underground

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

193.

Formed from "Melting and cooling liquid rock"

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

194.

Formed from "heat and pressure"

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

195.

Metamorphic rock that has bands or lines of minerals in it

a)

clastic

b)

organic

c)

foliated

d)

nonfoliated

196.

Sedimentary rock made from pieces of other rocks compacted and cemented together

a)

clastic

b)

organic

c)

chemical

197.

Igneous rock that formed on or above Earth's surface

a)

extrusive

b)

intrusive

c)

foliated

d)

nonfoliated

198.

Which statement is true?

a)

Rock A has crystals in it

b)

Rock B has crystals in it

199.

Which statement is true?

a)

Rock A cooled down very quickly

b)

Rock B cooled down very quickly

200.

Which statement is true?

a)

Rock A cooled down on Earth's surface

b)

Rock A cooled down underground

201.

Which rock is igneous

a)

Granite

b)

Limestone

c)

Slate

202.

Which rock is sedimentary

a)

Granite

b)

Limestone

c)

Marble

203.

Which rock is metamorphic

a)

Pumice

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Gneiss

204.

Made from crystallization of magma

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

205.

Made from compaction and cementation of sediment

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

206.

Made from heat and pressure deep underground

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

207.

Sedimentary rock made from the precipitation of minerals inside a body of water

a)

clastic

b)

organic

c)

chemical

208.

Formed from "Melting and cooling liquid rock"

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

209.

Formed from "weathering and erosion"

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

210.

Formed from "heat and pressure"

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

211.

Why are igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic rocks put into different categories?

a)

they have different masses and volumes

b)

that have different mineral composition

c)

they are made in different ways

d)

they have different sizes and shapes

212.

Sedimentary rock made from minerals once dissolved in water

a)

clastic

b)

organic

c)

chemical

213.

Sedimentary rock made from pieces of other rocks compacted and cemented together

a)

clastic

b)

organic

c)

chemical

214.

Metamorphic rock that has bands or lines of minerals in it

a)

clastic

b)

organic

c)

foliated

d)

nonfoliated

215.

Igneous rock that formed on or above Earth's surface

a)

extrusive

b)

intrusive

c)

foliated

d)

nonfoliated

216.

Which statement is true?

a)

Rock A has crystals in it

b)

Rock B has crystals in it

217.

Which statement is true?

a)

Rock A cooled down very quickly

b)

Rock B cooled down very quickly

218.

Which statement is true?

a)

Rock A cooled down on Earth's surface

b)

Rock A cooled down underground

219.

Which rock is igneous

a)

Granite

b)

Limestone

c)

Slate

220.

Which rock is sedimentary

a)

Granite

b)

Limestone

c)

Marble

221.

Which rock is metamorphic

a)

Granite

b)

Limestone

c)

Marble

222.

Which rock is igneous

a)

Pumice

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Gneiss

223.

Which rock is sedimentary

a)

Pumice

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Gneiss

224.

Which rock is metamorphic

a)

Pumice

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Gneiss

225.

Which rock is metamorphic

a)

Obsidian

b)

Coal

c)

Slate

226.

Which rock is sedimentary?

a)

Obsidian

b)

Coal

c)

Slate

227.

Which rock is igneous?

a)

Obsidian

b)

Coal

c)

Slate

228.

Clastic, Organic, or Chemical

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

229.

Extrusive or Intrusive

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

230.

Foliated or Nonfoliated

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

231.

Has fossils and different sizes of sediment

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

232.

Igneous rock without crystals

a)

cooled down slowly

b)

cooled down quickly

233.

The speed at which magma cools down affects the...

a)

density of the rock

b)

composition of the crystals

c)

size of the crystals

234.

Can sometimes be made with seashells

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

235.

Found near volcanoes

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

236.

Made under extreme pressure

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

237.

Which rock is sedimentary?

a)

Obsidian

b)

Coal

c)

Slate

238.

Which rock is igneous

a)

Pumice

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Gneiss

239.

Which rock is metamorphic

a)

Granite

b)

Limestone

c)

Marble

240.

Which rock is igneous?

a)

Obsidian

b)

Coal

c)

Slate

241.

Extrusive or Intrusive

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

242.

Clastic, Organic, or Chemical

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

243.

Foliated or Nonfoliated

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

244.

Has fossils and different sizes of sediment

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

245.

Igneous rock without crystals

a)

cooled down slowly

b)

cooled down quickly

246.

The speed at which magma cools down affects the...

a)

density of the rock

b)

composition of the crystals

c)

size of the crystals

247.

Can sometimes be made with seashells

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

248.

Found near volcanoes

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

249.

Made under extreme pressure

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

250.

Which rock is sedimentary

a)

Pumice

b)

Conglomerate

c)

Gneiss

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ADVANCED SCIENCE SEM1 2019

250 questions

ADVANCED SCIENCE SEM1 2019

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10th Grade