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Worksheets

MEGA Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 211

Worksheet time: 7hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the primary function of carbohydrates in your body?
a)
Speed up chemical reactions.
b)
Give immediate energy.
c)
Help to store energy.
d)
Build cell walls in plants.
2.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
3.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
4.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
5.
Monosaccharides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
6.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
7.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
8.
Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
proteins
9.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
10.
What are the monomers of DNA?
a)
glycerols
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
nucleotides
11.
Lipids can be digested into what smaller subunits?
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
glucose
12.
All polymers are made up of...
a)
monosaccharides
b)
monomers
c)
proteins
d)
None of these
13.
All organic compounds contain the element
a)
carbon
b)
nitrogen
c)
phosphorus
d)
sulfur
14.

Enzymes belong to which class of macromolecules?

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

15.

DNA belongs to which class of macromolecules?

a)

proteins

b)

nucleic acids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

lipids

16.

Sugar belongs to which class of macromolecules?

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

carbohydrates

17.
Glycerol and fatty acids combine to form...?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
18.

Glucose is an example of a

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

19.

Which is a Carbohydrate's monomer?

a)

Sugar

b)

Amino acids

c)

Monosaccharide

d)

Nucleotide

20.

The parts of a nucleotide are:

a)

nitrogen, sulfur, phosphate group

b)

DNA, RNA, ATP

c)

nitrogenous base, ATP, glucose

d)

nitrogenous base, 5-carbon sugar, phosphate group

21.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
22.
How do enzymes increase the speed of chemical reactions?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
23.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
24.

Which of the following elements are found in all macromolecules? (Select all that apply).

a)
b)
c)
d)
25.

Which macromolecule is used as our main source of energy?

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

26.

Which of the following are examples of carbohydrates? (Select all that apply).

a)

Bread

b)

Pasta

c)

Olive Oil

d)

Cheese

27.

This is one job proteins do not have in the body.

a)

structure for tissues and organs

b)

transport things through cell membranes

c)

speed up chemical reactions

d)

insulation

28.

An avocado is an example of a which macromolecule?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Lipid/Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

29.
What is the primary function of carbohydrates in your body?
a)
Speed up chemical reactions.
b)
Give immediate energy.
c)
Help to store energy.
d)
Build cell walls in plants.
30.

A macromolecule with C, H, O, and N only, is a.....

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

31.

Plants build cellulose (a polysaccharide) to makeup their parts like leaves, roots, stems, etc. What monomer do plants use to build cellulose?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

disaccharides

c)

amino acids

d)

nucleotides

32.

What cell organelle is responsible for assembling proteins?

a)

chloroplast

b)

lysosome

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

33.

What is the function of the organelle identified in the picture?

a)

movement

b)

stores the cell's DNA & controls everything

c)

houses the digestive enzyme

d)

to move proteins through the cell

34.

Which plant cell organelle is the MAIN structure that helps maintain the shape/structure of the cell?

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

vacuole

d)

cell wall

35.

What do plants cells have that facilitate photosynthesis?

a)

vacuole

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplast

d)

cell wall

36.

In prokaryotic cells, DNA is

a)

attached to ribosomes

b)

not enclosed in a nucleus

c)

attached to glucose complexes

d)

found within a nucleus

37.

Which type of cell has a large, central vacuole that stores a large amount of water?

a)

a viral cell

b)

a plant cell

c)

an animal cell

d)

a bacterial cell

38.

In the animal cell, which of the labeled organelles is the rough endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

9

d)

10

39.

Which feature do prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells share?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nuclear membrane

d)

membrane-bound organelles

40.

Animal cells contain all of the following structures EXCEPT a

a)

nucleus

b)

cell wall

c)

mitochondria

d)

golgi apparatus

41.

Where is genetic information is found in a eukaryotic cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

42.

Which statement accurately compares prokaryotic organisms and eukaryotic organisms?

a)

Both cell types have ribosomes.

b)

Both cell types are multicellular.

c)

Both cell types have mitochondria.

d)

Both cell types have membrane-bound organelles.

43.

Viruses have all of the characteristics of living things EXCEPT

a)

cells

b)

organization

c)

replication

d)

response

44.

Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?

a)

Most viruses are much smaller than bacteria.

b)

Viruses do not contain any DNA.

c)

Viruses infect all types of life forms on Earth.

d)

Viruses multiply several ways but always in a host.

45.

Viruses CANNOT

a)

be crystallized.

b)

live in bacteria.

c)

reproduce on their own.

d)

cause disease in plants.

46.

A typical phage virus has which two structures?

a)

a capsid and cytoplasm

b)

cytoplasm and DNA

c)

cellulose and DNA

d)

a capsid and DNA

47.

The random movement of oxygen molecules over time from one side of the semipermeable membrane to the other side is known as

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

plasmolysis

d)

active transport

48.

No matter what the cell type, prokaryotic or eukaryotic, plant or animal, the ____________ forms a protective barrier between the exterior environment and the interior of the cell.

a)

cell wall

b)

cytoskeleton

c)

cell membrane

d)

glycoproteins

49.

The movement of carbon dioxide out of cells and oxygen into cells can best be explained by which process?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

exocytosis

d)

active transport

50.

What is the main organelle involved in maintaining homeostasis?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cell wall

c)

cell membrane

d)

vacuole

51.

What is homeostasis?

a)

process of moving towards a balance in our internal environment

b)

process of cell removing waste materials

c)

process of cell taking in food

d)

a type of cell with a nucleoid region, cell wall, and flagellum

52.

A cell placed in this type of solution will swell or gain water

a)

distilled water

b)

isotonic solution

c)

hypotonic solution

d)

hypertonic solution

53.

A cell containing 60% water is placed in a beaker with 20% water. Which direction will the water flow?

a)

into the cell

b)

out of the cell

c)

into & out of the cell

54.

What is the difference between facilitated diffusion and membrane pumps?

a)

facilitated diffusion is the only on that uses membrane proteins

b)

membrane pumps require energy

c)

membrane pumps are a type of cellular transport

d)

facilitated diffusion helps maintain homeostasis

55.

Which type of cell may have multiple nuclei?

a)

plant

b)

animal

c)

fungal

d)

bacterial

56.

What is the type of virus that infect bacteria?

a)

bacteriophage

b)

capsid

c)

prophage

d)

protist

57.

Referring to the graph, what phase would account for about half of the time spent from a cell in the cell cycle?

a)

M phase

b)

S phase

c)

G1 phase

d)

G2 phase

58.

During which phase does the cell split in two fully?

a)

Interphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

59.

During which stage do the chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell?

a)

Metphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

60.

During which phase does the cell double its genetic material?

a)

Anaphase

b)

M phase

c)

Interphase

d)

S phase

61.

Cytokinesis is the same for plant and animal cells

a)

True

b)

False

62.

In which stage do chromosomes condense?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

63.

Which is the FIRST stage of the cell cycle?

a)

telophase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

prophase

d)

interphase

64.

Which is the LAST phase of the cell cycle?

a)

Telophase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Prophase

d)

Interphase

65.

Which of the following stages is NOT part of "mitosis"?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Metaphase

66.

In which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?

a)

prophase

b)

metapahse

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

67.

What is a stem cell?

a)

A cell that comes from a stem

b)

An unspecialized cell

c)

A cell that has already been specialized

d)

None of these

68.

What are the two types of stem cells?

a)

Child stem cells

b)

Embryonic stem cells

c)

Adult stem cells

d)

Spinal cord stem cells

69.

What can embryonic stem cells turn into?

a)

Most types of cells

b)

Nothing

c)

Any kind of cell

d)

A fetus

70.

Stem cells are beneficial for all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Regeneration of tissues

b)

Cure several diseases

c)

Replacement of damaged organs

d)

Destruction of cancerous tumors

71.

Which of these are drawbacks of stem cells?

a)

could be considered immoral or unethical

b)

unknown long term effects

c)

could lead to devastating consequences

d)

all of these

72.

What is cancer?

a)

Uncontrolled cell growth

b)

Cells exploding

c)

Cells shrinking

d)

Cells slowly dying

73.

The main difference between cancer cells and normal cells it that...

a)

Normal cells die and cancer cells die too

b)

Normal cells die and cancer cells do not

c)

Normal cells are immortal and cancer cells die

d)

Cancer cells release toxic waste, normal cells do not

74.

Cancer cells form a mass of cells known as a

a)

melanoma

b)

biopsy

c)

tumor

d)

gene

75.

Apoptosis is a process where damaged cells kill themselves. Do cancer cells perform apoptosis?

a)

No

b)

Yes

76.

The term for when cancer cells break off from a tumor and spread to other parts of the body forming secondary tumors

a)

regeneration

b)

migration

c)

cell cycling

d)

metastasis

77.

Which molecule supplies the energy for cellular functions?

a)

ATP

b)

oxygen

c)

DNA

d)

water

78.

Which of the following gases do plants take in during photosynthesis?

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon monoxide

79.

Which molecule in plant cells first captures the radiant energy from sunlight?

a)

glucose

b)

chlorophyll

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

adenosine triphosphate

80.

The first stage of photosynthesis in a chloroplast is

a)

light dependent

b)

glucose-driven

c)

temperature-dependent

d)

ATP-driven

81.

In aerobic respiration, the Krebs cycle takes place in

a)

chloroplasts

b)

nuclei

c)

lysosomes

d)

mitochondria

82.

Photosynthesis is a chemical reaction that converts

a)

light energy into chemical energy

b)

heat energy into mechanical energy

c)

light energy into electrical energy

d)

heat energy into electrical energy

83.

the process of cellular respiration occurs in

a)

plant cells only

b)

animal cells only

c)

both plant and animal cells

d)

neither plant nor animal cells

84.

Which statement best describes the process of respiration?

a)

Oxygen and sugar are used in the process that provides energy to cells; water and CO2 are waste products

b)

Water and sugar are used in the process that provides energy to cells; oxygen and CO2 are its waste products

c)

Oxygen and CO2 are used in the process that provides energy to cells; sugar and water are its waste products

d)

CO2 and sugar are used in the process that provides energy to cells; water and oxygen are its waste products

85.

In the process of photosynthesis, green plants use energy from sunlight to make which product (to be used as food)?

a)

carbon dioxide (CO2)

b)

chlorophyll

c)

DNA

d)

glucose (sugar)

86.

Plants use many gallons of water every day. Almost all of the water used by plants is absorbed through the

a)

leaves

b)

stomata

c)

roots

d)

stems

87.

Which of the following processes releases primarily oxygen into the atmosphere?

a)

combustion

b)

osmosis

c)

photosynthesis

d)

respiration

88.

Both photosynthesis and cellular respiration involve all of the following EXCEPT

a)

chlorophyll

b)

glucose

c)

oxygen

d)

water

89.

What is the main goal of cellular respiration?

a)

to break down glucose in the form of ATP

b)

to make glucose which we use for energy

c)

to create carbon dioxide for plants

d)

respiration is a byproduct of photosynthesis

90.

Which of the following organisms depend on the process of cellular respiration for survival?

a)

Animals, some algae, and phytoplankton, but not plants

b)

Only animals, since they are the only organisms that go through the process of cellular respiration

c)

Humans only

d)

All organisms that break down glucose for food; including plants and animals

91.

Identify all the products of cellular respiration

a)

Glucose and water

b)

Carbon dioxide and water

c)

Carbon dioxide, water, and ATP

d)

Oxygen, water, and glucose

92.

Evaluate which statement is accurate

a)

Oxygen is a product of photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is a product of cellular respiration

b)

Carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis, oxygen is a product of cellular respiration

c)

glucose is a product of cellular respiration, ATP is a product of photosynthesis

d)

Oxygen is a reactant of photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is a product

93.

In photosynthesis, the light dependent reactions occur in the

a)

stroma

b)

mitochondria

c)

thylakoid membrane

d)

chlorophyll

94.

In photosynthesis, the light independent reactions occur in the

a)

stroma

b)

mitochondria

c)

thylakoid membrane

d)

chlorophyll

95.

What gas do plants take into their bodies in order to perform photosynthesis?

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

methane

d)

carbon dioxide

96.

What do plants use as "food"? (what molecule produced during photosynthesis is used to store their energy?)

a)

ATP

b)

oxygen

c)

glucose/ sugar

d)

carbon dioxide

97.

What molecule acts as the final electron acceptor in the Electron Transport Chain

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP

98.

Photosynthesis turns solar energy into ______ energy

a)

global

b)

circular

c)

transitional

d)

chemical

99.

Which type of fermentation produces ethanol and carbon dioxide?

a)

alcoholic

b)

lactic acid

100.

Which type of fermentation produces lactic acid?

a)

alcoholic

b)

lactic acid

101.

Where does anaerobic respiration occur within a cell?

a)

mitochondria

b)

cytoplasm

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

102.

Glycolysis produces 4 ATP molecules, but uses 2 during the process. How many NET ATP does glycolysis produce?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

103.

Which part of aerobic respiration produces the most ATP?

a)

glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

electron transport chain

d)

fermentation

104.

aerobic respiration is different from anaerobic respiration because it requires the presence of which molecule?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

oxygen

105.

Which of the following molecules does not act as an energy carrier during cellular respiration

a)

ATP

b)

FADH

c)

NADH

d)

CO2

106.

Plants take in CO2 through pores in their leaves called

a)

stomata

b)

stems

c)

stroma

d)

chlorophyll

107.

What phase of meiosis is shown here?

a)

anaphase 1

b)

anaphase 2

c)

metaphase 1

d)

telophase 2

108.

What is a pairs of chromosomes that contain the same genetic information? One of the chromosomes comes from your mom and the other one comes from your dad.

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromatids

c)

Chromatin

d)

The X chromosome

109.

This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?

a)

segregation of sister chromatids

b)

condensation and segregation of alleles

c)

mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

d)

crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

110.

What phase is shown here?

a)

Anaphase 1

b)

Prophase 1

c)

Metaphase 2

d)

Metaphase 1

111.

What phase is shown here?

a)

Telophase 1

b)

Metaphase 2

c)

Telophase 2

d)

Anaphase 1

112.

The observable traits of an organism are known as its

a)

allele

b)

dominance

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

113.

Each parent contributes one _______ for a particular trait, each of which are a specific version of a gene.

a)

variable

b)

gamete

c)

hybrid

d)

allele

114.

T= tall and t= short

In the punnett square shown, what belongs in the missing square

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

Bb

d)

TT

115.

The color black is dominant over white in guinea pigs. The phenotypes of guinea pigs with homozygous dominant (DD) and heterozygous (Dd) genotypes are:

a)

black

b)

gray

c)

white

d)

DD is black and Dd is gray

116.

What is the percentage of homozygous recessive (yy) offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

117.

If two heterozygous individuals (Bb) were crossed, what percentage of the offspring would be homozygous dominant (BB)?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

118.

In a certain species of plants, purple flowers (B) are dominant to white flowers (b). If two heterozygous plants (Bb) are crossed, what will be the PHENOTYPE of the offspring?

a)

100% purple flowers

b)

100% white flowers

c)

75% white flowers, 25% purple flowers

d)

25% white flowers, 75% purple flowers

119.

What are pedigrees used for?

a)

To look at families

b)

To make determinations about offspring

c)

to track traits in families

d)

Nothing

120.

How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

121.

What is the genotype for person III-3?

a)

Homozygous dominant (DD)

b)

Heterozygous (Dd)

c)

Homozygous recessive (dd)

122.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What type of inheritance pattern is this?

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

sex-linked

d)

polygenic

123.

The range of human skin colors is caused by a variety of genes, each of which has at least 2 alleles.  This is an example of:

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

multiple alleles

d)

polygenic inheritance

124.

If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?

a)

sex-linked

b)

polygenic

c)

co-dominant

d)

incomplete dominance

125.

If a trait is controlled by one gene, but there are 4 possible alleles for that gene, the inheritance pattern is called...

a)

dominance

b)

sex-linked

c)

multiple alleles

d)

polygenic

126.

This is an example of

a)

co-dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

sex-linked inheritance

d)

autosomal recessive inheritance

127.

The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?

a)

anaphase 1

b)

prophase 1

c)

prophase 2

d)

telophase 1

128.

The nuclear membrane dissolves during

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

129.

What phase is shown here?

a)

Prophase 2

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Metaphase 2

d)

Prophase 1

130.

What phase is shown here?

a)

metaphase 2

b)

telophase 1

c)

telophase 2

d)

metaphase 1

131.

Transfer of chromosome segments between non-homologous chromosomes

a)

nondisjuction

b)

translocation

c)

diffusion

d)

independent assortment

132.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
133.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
134.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
135.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
136.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
137.
In a point mutation, this would have the worst effect on the function of the protein 
a)
an insertion or deletion near the end of a gene
b)
an insertion or deletion at the beginning of the gene
c)
an insertion at the middle of the gene
d)
a base substitution
138.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Translocation
b)
Inversion
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
139.
A type of substitution in which one amino acid changes is called 
a)
Nonsense
b)
Missense
c)
Silent
d)
all of the above
140.
A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called 
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
141.

A mutation is a _______________ in the nucleotide base sequence of a gene.

a)

wrinkle

b)

change

c)

bump

d)

tumor

142.

Which of the following is the template for the production of RNA within a cell?

a)

DNA

b)

ATP

c)

protein

d)

carbohydrate

143.

Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with the ones shown in the partial strand below?

ATG TGA CAG

a)

ATG TGA CAG

b)

GTA AGT GAC

c)

TAC ACT GTC

d)

CAT TCA CTG

144.

Which of the following best describes how DNA and RNA are similar?

a)

They both contain the nitrogen bases thymine and adenine

b)

They both are formed in a double helix structure

c)

They both are composed of five different nucleotides

d)

They both contain the nitrogen bases cytosine and guanine

145.

The diagram shows Rosalind Franklin's x-ray diffraction image of DNA. How did this evidence affect the work of Watson and Crick?

a)

It was used to determine the physical structure of DNA

b)

It was used to identify the four bases that make up DNA

c)

It was used to develop the theory of independent assortment

d)

It was used to show that DNA was the molecule of inheritance

146.

A strand of mRNA containing the sequence AAGAAG could code for which of the following amino acid sequences?

a)

lys-arg

b)

ser-glu

c)

ser-ser

d)

lys-lys

147.

ATCAGCGCTGGC

The above sequence of DNA is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

12

d)

20

148.

A base sequence is shown below.

ACAGTGC

What would be the complementary mRNA sequence?

a)

TGTCACG

b)

GUGACAU

c)

UGUCACG

d)

CACUGUA

149.

Semi-conservative replication of DNA refers to the idea that

a)

DNA molecules need to unwind before duplication begins

b)

each new DNA molecule contains two new single RNA strands

c)

the two strands of DNA molecules run in opposite directions

d)

each half of the original DNA molecule is joined with a new complementary DNA strand

150.

Our understanding of the shape of the DNA molecule was established with the help of experimental results from Rosalind Franklin. Franklin used x-ray crystallography to determine that the shape of the DNA molecule is -

a)

a cloverleaf

b)

a braided rope

c)

a pleated sheet

d)

a twisted ladder

151.

DNA contains the code for constructing which molecules?

a)

proteins

b)

fats

c)

starches

d)

sugars

152.

What is the relationship between DNA, genes, and chromosomes?

a)

DNA is made up of genes, genes are segments of chromosomes

b)

Genes are made up of chromosomes, DNA is a segment of a genes

c)

Chromosomes are made up of DNA, genes are segments of DNA

d)

Chromosomes are made up of genes, genes are segments of chromosomes

153.

What is the correct order of the central dogma of protein synthesis?

a)

DNA --> RNA --> Protein

b)

RNA --> Protein --> DNA

c)

Protein --> RNA --> DNA

d)

Protein --> DNA --> RNA

154.
In RNA, uracil takes the place of the DNA nitrogen base called
a)
guanine
b)
cytosine
c)
thymine
d)
adenine
155.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
156.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
157.

Which of the following DNA nucleotides are paired with the correct corresponding DNA nucleotide? (mark all that apply)

a)

Adenine with Thymine

b)

Guanine with Cytosine

c)

Thymine with Cytosine

d)

Adenine with Uracil.

e)

Uracil with Thymine

158.

A tiny ring of DNA in the cytoplasm of bacterial cell

a)

plasmid

b)

restriction enzyme

c)

recombinant DNA

d)

genome

159.

Which method of biotechnology would be most helpful in determining whether two people are related or not?

a)

DNA fingerprinting

b)

selective breeding

c)

recombinant DNA

d)

restriction enzymes

160.

A scientist took DNA from a bioluminescent eel and inserted it into the DNA of a fish which made the fish glow. What type of biotechnology did the scientist use?

a)

recombinant DNA

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

selective breeding

d)

DNA fingerprinting

161.

Which type of biotechnology is used to separate DNA segments by size?

a)

Restriction Enzymes

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Recombinant DNA

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

162.

Evolution of a single species over a short time scale

a)

microevolution

b)

macroevolution

c)

coevolution

d)

adaptive evolution

163.

Evolution over a large time scale that includes creation and destruction of species

a)

microevolution

b)

macroevolution

c)

coevolution

d)

natural selection

164.

The process of individuals that have physical or behavioral traits that better suit their environment and cause them to survive better and reproduce more is called...

a)

divergent evolution

b)

descent with modification

c)

natural selection

d)

mimicry

165.

Natural selection acts on ____, not ____.

a)

individuals, populations

b)

populations, individuals

166.

What does it mean for an individual to be "fit"?

a)

high likelihood of becoming fossilized

b)

has multiple habitats

c)

makes more healthy offspring

d)

has more mates

167.

What explains why individuals develop certain traits? (i.e. long neck in giraffes, colorful feathers in peacocks, webbed feet in ducks)

a)

they are beneficial to them and make them more fit

b)

they help them acquire more food

c)

they make them easier to fossilize

d)

they are easier to pass down to offspring

168.

A model of evolution where gradual change occurs over a long period of time

a)

gradualism

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

macroevolution

d)

microevolution

169.

Model of evolution where there are periods of rapid change followed by periods of little or no change

a)

gradualism

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

microevolution

d)

macroevolution

170.

Which of the following must be true for a population in order for Hardy-Weiberg Equilibrium to be applied? (select all that apply)

a)

large population size

b)

random mating

c)

no immigration or emigration

d)

no mutations

e)

no natural selection

171.

What is the term for the development of differences between groups of the same species, which can then become so different that they can no longer interbreed, developing a new species?

a)

convergent evolution

b)

adaptation

c)

coevolution

d)

divergent evolution

172.

When genes from one population are mixed with genes in another population

a)

genetic drift

b)

gene flow

c)

speciation

d)

bottleneck effect

173.

When a natural disaster occurs and changes the gene pool of a population

a)

genetic drift

b)

gene flow

c)

mutation

d)

non-random mating

174.

Type of genetic drift where the natural disaster results in the survivor's gene pool differing from the original population

a)

founder's effect

b)

bottleneck effect

c)

gene flow

d)

natural selection

175.

Type of genetic drift where the natural disaster separates a population, and the gene pool of the separated group differs from the original population

a)

founder's effect

b)

bottleneck effect

c)

natural selection

d)

coevolution

176.

Related structures that are inherited from a common ancestor

a)

convergent evolution

b)

mimicry

c)

vestigial structures

d)

homologous structures

177.

Structures that are present in organisms but serve no apparent purpose, though they may have served a purpose in the organism's ancestors.

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Mimicry

c)

Coevolution

d)

Vestigial structures

178.

Demonstration of similarities in early development

a)

morphology

b)

embryology

c)

anatomy

d)

paleotology

179.

The diagram shown is a phylogenetic tree. It is used to represent possible evolutionary relationships between groups of organisms. Based on the diagram, which pair of organisms would be most closely related?

a)

angel fish and platypus

b)

crocodile and frog

c)

kangaroo and elephant

d)

elephant and platypus

180.

What is the cause of ALL genetic variation?

a)

mutations

b)

evolution

c)

adaptations

d)

non-random mating

181.

Process of mating specific organisms to create offspring with desired traits

a)

natural selection

b)

random mating

c)

selective breeding

d)

evolution

182.

What type of factor has an increasing impact as the population size increases?

a)

density-independent

b)

density-dependent

c)

cohort effect

d)

survivorship factor

183.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

184.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

185.

Factors like predation can have a positive benefit to the population of prey organisms because predators tend to keep prey populations below their ___________.

a)

carrying capacity

b)

sustainibility number

c)

exponential growth point

d)

competition level

186.

As a population of a species increases within a territory, which of the following most likely also increases?

a)

Immigration

b)

Food supply

c)

Carrying capacity

d)

Competition

187.

What type of growth model is shown in image A?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

188.

What type of growth model is shown in image B?

a)

Exponential

b)

Logistic

189.

Which of the following populations is most likely to go extinct?

a)

a very small population in an unstable environment

b)

a moderate-sized population of r strategists

c)

a large population with lots of genetic variability

d)

all would be equally likely to go extinct

190.

Which population growth model most closely describes the human population in the modern age?

a)

logistic growth

b)

exponential growth

c)

upward growth

d)

tumor growth

191.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
192.
A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unharmed...
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
193.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
194.
Which symbols best describe parasitism?
a)
+,+
b)
+,-
c)
+,0
d)
-,0
195.

Aphids are tiny insects that live on and eat the leaves of plants, removing vital nutrients from the plants.

a)

Predation

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

196.

Mockingbirds will push the eggs out of a blue bird's nest and use the nest for it's own babies illustrating...

a)

commensalism

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

predation

197.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
198.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
199.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
200.
After a volcanic eruption, lava covers the land. What is the order that plants grow to repopulate the area?
a)
Lichens → Shrubs → Grasses → Trees
b)
Lichens → tree → shrubs→Grasses
c)
Grasses → Lichens → Shrubs → Trees
d)
Lichens → Grasses → Shrubs → Trees
201.
What is the correct order from oldest (happened first) to youngest (happened last) in this pond succession?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
D, C, B, A
c)
B, A, D, C
d)
C, D, A, B
202.
Reaches a climax community quicker because soil is already present
a)
primary succession 
b)
secondary succession
c)
both types of succession
203.

A group of compounds that are able to trap heat in the atmosphere, keeping the Earth's surface warmer than it would be if they were not present.

a)

CO2 emissions

b)

greenhouse gases

c)

climate change

204.
TRUE or FALSE?
All of the carbon in existence is continually recycled in the carbon cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
205.
Carbon can be found in...
a)
The atmosphere
b)
Soil
c)
Fossil fuels
d)
All of the above
206.
Which of the following is NOT a method of energy conservation?
a)
taking public transportation to work (bus, subway)
b)
riding your bike to work
c)
walking to work 
d)
driving alone in your car to work
207.
Fishermen have harvested certain fish to the point where the population of that fish is decreasing. This level of direct harvesting could cause
a)
ecosystems to be improved for future generations
b)
ecosystems to be severely damaged
c)
the restoration of environmental stability
d)
all other fish species to increase in number
208.
Biodiversity refers to
a)
extinct species
b)
the variety of species on Earth
c)
nonrenewable resources
d)
the rate of species decline
209.
1. What makes a species invasive?
a)
Moving to a new ecosystem and taking resources from natives 
b)
Not having papers
c)
Species that can't adapt
d)
Plants that take up too much space
210.

How does habitat fragmentation reduce genetic diversity in species?

a)

Habitat fragmentation makes nonnative species introduction possible.

b)

Habitat fragmentation opens migration routes.

c)

Habitat fragmentation isolates a large population into smaller groups.

d)

Habitat fragementation encourages open gene flow.

211.
The loss of a natural habitat is called?
a)
Habitat development
b)
biodiversity
c)
Pollution
d)
Habitat destruction

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9th Grade