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Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two VTP modes allow for the creation, modification, and deletion of VLANs on the local switch? (Choose two.)

a)

client

b)

master

c)

slave

d)

server

e)

transparent

2.

Which three steps should be taken before moving a Cisco switch to a new VTP management domain? (Choose three.)

a)

Configure the switch with the name of the new management domain.

b)

Reset the VTP counters to allow the switch to synchronize with the other switches in the domain.

c)

Configure the VTP server in the domain to recognize the BID of the new switch.

d)

Select the correct VTP mode and version.

e)

Reboot the switch.

3.

A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

a)

Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.

b)

Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.

c)

Link types are determined automatically.

d)

Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

4.

A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

a)

Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.

b)

Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.

c)

Link types are determined automatically.

d)

Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.

5.

Refer to the exhibit. All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)

a)

fa0/9

b)

fa0/13

c)

fa0/10

d)

fa0/20

e)

fa0/21

6.

How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

a)

It will not perform recursive lookups.

b)

Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

c)

Static routes that use an exit interface will be unnecessary.

d)

Serial point-to-point interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.

7.

Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)

a)

They improve netw​ork security.

b)

They take less time to converge when the network topology changes.

c)

They improve the efficiency of discovering neighboring networks.

d)

They use fewer router resources.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. Which route was configured as a static route to a specific network using the next-hop address?

a)

S 10.17.2.0/24 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

b)

S 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.16.2.2

c)

S 10.17.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial 0/0/0

d)

C 10.16.2.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

9.

What is the effect of entering the spanning-tree portfast configuration command on a switch?

a)

It disables an unused port.

b)

It disables all trunk ports.

c)

It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

d)

It checks the source L2 address in the Ethernet header against the sender L2 address in the ARP body.

10.

What is the IPv6 prefix that is used for link-local addresses?

a)

FF01::/8

b)

2001::/3

c)

FC00::/7

d)

FE80::/10

11.

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

a)

In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.

b)

The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.

c)

They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.

d)

They are used for point-to-multipoint links.

e)

They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

12.

Successful inter-VLAN routing has been operating on a network with multiple VLANs across multiple switches for some time. When an inter-switch trunk link fails and Spanning Tree Protocol brings up a backup trunk link, it is reported that hosts on two VLANs can access some, but not all the network resources that could be accessed previously. Hosts on all other VLANS do not have this problem. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

a)

The protected edge port function on the backup trunk interfaces has been disabled.

b)

The allowed VLANs on the backup link were not configured correctly.

c)

Dynamic Trunking Protocol on the link has failed.

d)

Inter-VLAN routing also failed when the trunk link failed.

13.

Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?

a)

interface port-channel 2

b)

channel-group 1 mode desirable

c)

interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4 – 5

d)

channel-group 2 mode auto

14.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a multicast destination MAC address?

a)

The switch will forward the frame out all ports except the incoming port.

b)

The switch forwards the frame out of the specified port.

c)

The switch adds a MAC address table entry mapping for the destination MAC address and the ingress port.

d)

The switch replaces the old entry and uses the more current port.

15.

A junior technician was adding a route to a LAN router. A traceroute to a device on the new network revealed a wrong path and unreachable status. What should be done or checked?

a)

auto

b)

default

c)

passive

d)

desirable

e)

on

16.

A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?

a)

Remove the route using the no ip route command.

b)

Change the administrative distance for that route.

c)

Change the routing metric for that route.

d)

Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.

17.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about the configuration shown on R1?

a)

R1 is configured as a DHCPv4 relay agent.

b)

R1 is operating as a DHCPv4 server.

c)

R1 will broadcast DHCPv4 requests on behalf of local DHCPv4 clients.

d)

R1 will send a message to a local DHCPv4 client to contact a DHCPv4 server at 10.10.10.8.

18.

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

a)

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

b)

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

c)

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

d)

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

19.

What two default wireless router settings can affect network security? (Choose two.)

a)

The SSID is broadcast.

b)

MAC address filtering is enabled.

c)

WEP encryption is enabled.

d)

The wireless channel is automatically selected.

e)

A well-known administrator password is set.

20.

What is the common term given to SNMP log messages that are generated by network devices and sent to the SNMP server?

a)

traps

b)

acknowledgments

c)

auditing

d)

warnings

21.

A network administrator is adding a new WLAN on a Cisco 3500 series WLC. Which tab should the administrator use to create a new VLAN interface to be used for the new WLAN?

a)

WIRELESS

b)

MANAGEMENT

c)

CONTROLLER

d)

WLANs

22.

Which two functions are performed by a WLC when using split media access control (MAC)? (Choose two.)

a)

packet acknowledgments and retransmissions

b)

frame queuing and packet prioritization

c)

beacons and probe responses

d)

frame translation to other protocols

e)

association and re-association of roaming clients

23.

On what switch ports should BPDU guard be enabled to enhance STP stability?

a)

all PortFast-enabled ports

b)

only ports that are elected as designated ports

c)

only ports that attach to a neighboring switch

d)

all trunk ports that are not root ports

24.

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has an OSPF neighbor relationship with the ISP router over the 192.168.0.32 network. The 192.168.0.36 network link should serve as a backup when the OSPF link goes down. The floating static route command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1 100 was issued on R1 and now traffic is using the backup link even when the OSPF link is up and functioning. Which change should be made to the static route command so that traffic will only use the OSPF link when it is up?​

a)

Change the administrative distance to 120.

b)

Add the next hop neighbor address of 192.168.0.36.

c)

Change the destination network to 192.168.0.34.

d)

Change the administrative distance to 1.

25.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric to forward a data packet with the IPv6 destination address 2001:DB8:ACAD:E:240:BFF:FED4:9DD2?

a)

128

b)

2170112

c)

2681856

d)

2682112

e)

3193856

26.

A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)

a)

IP address

b)

VTP domain

c)

vty lines

d)

default VLAN

e)

default gateway

27.

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement shown in the output allows router R1 to respond to stateless DHCPv6 requests?

a)

ipv6 nd other-config-flag​

b)

prefix-delegation 2001:DB8:8::/48 00030001000E84244E70​

c)

ipv6 dhcp server LAN1​

d)

ipv6 unicast-routing

e)

dns-server 2001:DB8:8::8​

28.

Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)

a)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1

(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

b)

(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1

(config-if)# no switchport

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252

c)

(config)# interface vlan 1

(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0

(config-if)# no shutdown

d)

(config)# ip routing

e)

(config)# interface fastethernet0/4(config-if)# switchport mode trunk

29.

A technician is troubleshooting a slow WLAN and decides to use the split-the-traffic approach. Which two parameters would have to be configured to do this? (Choose two.)

a)

Configure the 5 GHz band for streaming multimedia and time sensitive traffic.

b)

Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for one network and WPA2 Personal AES for the other network

c)

Configure the 2.4 GHz band for basic internet traffic that is not time sensitive.

d)

Configure the security mode to WPA Personal TKIP/AES for both networks.

e)

Configure a common SSID for both split networks.

30.

A company has just switched to a new ISP. The ISP has completed and checked the connection from its site to the company. However, employees at the company are not able to access the internet. What should be done or checked?

a)

Verify that the static route to the server is present in the routing table.

b)

Check the configuration on the floating static route and adjust the AD.

c)

Ensure that the old default route has been removed from the company edge routers.

d)

Create a floating static route to that network.

31.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?

a)

PAgP

b)

DTP

c)

LACP

d)

STP

32.

Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?

a)

floating static route

b)

default static route

c)

summary static route

d)

standard static route

33.

What action takes place when a frame entering a switch has a unicast destination MAC address appearing in the MAC address table?

a)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

b)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

c)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

d)

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

34.

What protocol or technology allows data to transmit over redundant switch links?

a)

EtherChannel

b)

DTP

c)

STP

d)

VTP

35.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

a)

Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.

b)

Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.

c)

Include a router in the topology.

d)

Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.

e)

Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.

36.

What is the effect of entering the shutdown configuration command on a switch?

a)

It disables an unused port.

b)

It enables BPDU guard on a specific port.

c)

It enables portfast on a specific switch interface.

d)

It disables DTP on a non-trunking interface.

37.

What would be the primary reason an attacker would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

a)

so that the switch stops forwarding traffic

b)

so that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address

c)

so that the attacker can see frames that are destined for other hosts

d)

so that the attacker can execute arbitrary code on the switch

38.

During the AAA process, when will authorization be implemented?

a)

Immediately after successful authentication against an AAA data source

b)

Immediately after AAA accounting and auditing receives detailed reports

c)

Immediately after an AAA client sends authentication information to a centralized server

d)

Immediately after the determination of which resources a user can access

39.

A company security policy requires that all MAC addressing be dynamically learned and added to both the MAC address table and the running configuration on each switch. Which port security configuration will accomplish this?

a)

auto secure MAC addresses

b)

dynamic secure MAC addresses

c)

static secure MAC addresses

d)

sticky secure MAC addresses

40.

Which three Wi-Fi standards operate in the 2.4GHz range of frequencies? (Choose three.)

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11b

c)

802.11g

d)

802.11n

e)

802.11ac

41.

To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

a)

The root bridge BID.

b)

The role of the ports in all VLANs.

c)

The status of native VLAN ports.

d)

The number of broadcasts received on each root port.

e)

The IP address of the management VLAN interface.

42.

Refer to the exhibit. Which trunk link will not forward any traffic after the root bridge election process is complete?

a)

Trunk1

b)

Trunk2

c)

Trunk3

d)

Trunk4

43.

Which method of IPv6 prefix assignment relies on the prefix contained in RA messages?

a)

EUI-64

b)

SLAAC

c)

static

d)

stateful DHCPv6

44.

Which two protocols are used to provide server-based AAA authentication? (Choose two.)

a)

802.1x

b)

SSH

c)

SNMP

d)

TACACS+

e)

RADIUS

45.

A network administrator is configuring a WLAN. Why would the administrator disable the broadcast feature for the SSID?

a)

to eliminate outsiders scanning for available SSIDs in the area

b)

to reduce the risk of interference by external devices such as microwave ovens

c)

to reduce the risk of unauthorized APs being added to the network

d)

to provide privacy and integrity to wireless traffic by using encryption

46.

Which mitigation technique would prevent rogue servers from providing false IP configuration parameters to clients?

a)

implementing port security

b)

turning on DHCP snooping

c)

disabling CDP on edge ports

d)

implementing port-security on edge ports

47.

A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?

a)

shutdown

b)

restrict

c)

warning

d)

protect

48.

Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?

a)

There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.

b)

RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.

c)

Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.

d)

The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.

49.

Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

a)

access - trunk

b)

dynamic desirable - trunk

c)

access - dynamic auto

d)

dynamic desirable - dynamic desirable

e)

dynamic desirable - dynamic auto

50.

A technician is configuring a router for a small company with multiple WLANs and doesn’t need the complexity of a dynamic routing protocol. What should be done or checked?

a)

Verify that there is not a default route in any of the edge router routing tables.

b)

Create static routes to all internal networks and a default route to the internet.

c)

Create extra static routes to the same location with an AD of 1.

d)

Check the statistics on the default route for oversaturation.