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HEMA2LECP2F

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If the DNA nucleotide sequence is 59-ATTAGC-39, then the mRNA sequence transcribed from this template is:

a)

59-GCUAAU-39

b)

59-AUUAGC-39

c)

59-TAATCG-39

d)

59-UAAUCG-39

2.

Cells with damaged DNA and mutated or nonfunctioning cell cycle regulatory proteins:

a)

Are arrested in G1 and the DNA is repaired

b)

Continue to divide, which leads to tumor progression

c)

Divide normally, producing identical daughter cells

d)

Go through apoptosis

3.

To start DNA replication, DNA polymerase requires an available 39 hydroxyl group found on the:

a)

Leading strand

b)

mRNA

c)

Parent strand

d)

Primer

4.

Ligase joins Okazaki fragments of the:

a)

59 to 39 template strand

b)

Lagging strand

c)

Leading strand

d)

Primer fragments

5.

A 40-year-old patient enters the hospital with a rare form of cancer caused by faulty cell division regulation. This cancer localized in the patient’s spleen. An ambitious laboratory developed a molecular test to verify the type of cancer present. This molecular test would require patient specimens taken from which two tissues?

a)

Abnormal growths found on the skin and in the bone marrow

b)

Normal splenic tissue and cancerous tissue

c)

Cancerous tissue in spleen and bone marrow

d)

Peripheral blood and cancerous tissue in the spleen

6.

One main difference between PCR and reverse transcriptase PCR is that:

a)

PCR requires primer

b)

PCR uses reverse transcriptase to elongate the primers

c)

Reverse transcriptase PCR uses cDNA as a template

d)

Reverse transcriptase PCR requires liase to amplify the target DNA

7.

Which one of the following statements about gel electrophoresis is FALSE?

a)

The gel is oriented in the chamber with the wells at the positive terminal

b)

A buffer solution is required to maintain the electrical current

c)

The matrix of a polyacrylamide gel is tighter than that of an agarose gel

d)

The larger DNA fragments will be closest to the wells of the gel

8.

In which of the following applications would it be most appropriate to use NGS technology?

a)

Testing for a point mutation in the FV gene

b)

Testing for the BCR-ABL1 translocation in CML

c)

Sequencing a B cell lymphoma genome

d)

Determining the karyotype in AML

9.

One major difference between endpoint PCR and real time is that:

a)

End-point PCR requires thermostavle DNA polymerase, deoxynucleotides, and primers

b)

End-point PCR requires a separate step to detect the amplicons formed in the reaction

c)

Real-time PCR uses capillary gel electrophoresis to detect amplicons during PCR cycling

d)

Real-time PCR detects and quantifies amplicons using cleavage based signal amplification

10.

Which of the following statements about minimal residual disease is TRUE?

a)

Clinical remission of hematologic cancers is determined by molecular techniques such as PCR and flow cytometry.

b)

Real-time quantitative PCR-determined copy number of BCR-ABL1 transcripts will always be lower in molecular remission than in clinical remission.

c)

Qualitative PCR that uses a known copy number of a target sequence is of use in determining minimal residual disease levels

d)

Minimal residual disease assessment can aid physicians in making treatment decisions but does not yet offer insights into prognosis.

11.

G-banding refers to the technique of staining chromosomes:

a)

To isolate those in the G group (ie. chromosome 21 and 22)

b)

In the G0 or resting stage

c)

Using Giemsa stain

d)

To emphasize areas in high in guanine residues

12.

Which of the following compounds is used to halt mitosis in metaphase for chromosome analyses?

a)

Imatinib

b)

Fluorescein

c)

Trypsin

d)

Colchicine

13.

One arm of a chromosome has 30 bands. Which band would be nearest the centromere?

a)

Band 1

b)

Band 15

c)

Band 30

d)

Band 45

14.

Which of the following types of mutations would likely not be detectable with cytogenetic banding techniques

a)

Point mutation resulting in a single amino acid substitution

b)

Transfer of genetic material from one chromosome to another

c)

Loss of genetic material from a chromosome that does not appear on any other chromosome

d)

Duplication of a chromosome resulting in 3n of that genetic material

15.

Which of the following describes a chromosomal deletion

a)

Point mutation resulting in a single amino substitution

b)

Transfer of genetic material from one chromosome to another

c)

Loss of genetic material from a chromosome that does not appear on any other chromosome

d)

Duplication of a chromosome resulting in 3n n that genetic material

16.

The chromosome analysis perfomed on a patient's leukemic cells is reported as 47,XY,14 del(5)(q31)[20]

The patient's cells have which of the following mutations?

a)

Loss of the entire 31 chromosome

b)

Loss of the entire 5 chromosome

c)

Loss of a portion of the short arm of chromosome 4

d)

Loss of a portion of the long arm of chromosome 5

17.

The chromosome analysis perfomed on a patient's leukemic cells is reported as 47,XY,14 del(5)(q31)[20]

What other mutation is present in this patient's cells?

a)

Polypoidy

b)

Tetraploidy

c)

An extra chromosome 4

d)

Four copies of chromosome 5

18.

The chromosome analysis perfomed on a patient's leukemic cells is reported as 47,XY,14 del(5)(q31)[20]

This patient's leukemic cells demonstrate:

a)

Structural chromosomal defects only

b)

Numeric chromosomal defects only

c)

Both structural and numeric chromosomal defects

d)

Neither structural and numeric chromosomal defects

19.

The chromosome analysis perfomed on a patient's leukemic cells is reported as 47,XY,14 del(5)(q31)[20]

Aneuploidy describes the total chromosome number:

a)

That is multiple pf the haploid number

b)

That reflects a loss or gain of a single chromosome

c)

That is diploid but has a balanced deletion and duplication of whole chromosomes

d)

In gametes; diploid is the number in somatic cells

20.

According to the WHO classification, except in leukemias with specific genetic anomalies, the minimal percentage of blasts necessary for a diagnosis of acute leukemia is:

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

50%

21.

A 20-year-old patient has an elevated WBC count with 70% blasts, 4% neutrophils, 5% lymphocytes, and 21% monocytes in the peripheral blood. Eosinophils with dysplastic changes are seen in the bone marrow. AML with which of the following karyotypes would be most likely to be seen?

a)

AML with t(8;21)(q22;q22)

b)

AML with t(16;16)(p13;q22)

c)

APL with PML-RARA

d)

AML with t(9;11)(p22;q23)

22.

Which of the following would be considered a sign of potentially favorable prognosis in children with ALL?

a)

Hyperdiploidy

b)

Presence of CD19 and CD20

c)

Absence of trisomy 8

d)

Presence of BCR/ABL gene

23.

Signs and symptoms of cerebral infiltration with blasts are more commonly seen in:

a)

AML with recurrent cytogenetic abnormalities

b)

Therapy related myeloid neoplasms

c)

AML with myelodysplasia related changes

d)

ALL

24.

An oncology patient exhibiting signs of renal failure with seizures after initial chemotherapy may potentially develop

a)

Hyperleukocytosis

b)

Tumor lysis syndrome

c)

Acute leukemia secondary to chemotherapy

d)

Myeloodysplasia

25.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation is more often seen in association with leukemia characterized by which of the following mutations?

a)

t(12;21)(p13;q22)

b)

t(9;22)(q34;q11.2)

c)

inv(16)(p13;q22)

d)

t(15;17)(q22;q12)

26.

Which of the following leukemias affects primarily children, is characterized by an increase in monoblasts and monocytes, and often is associated with gingival and skin involvement?

a)

Pre B lymphoblasic leukemia

b)

Pure erythroid leukemia

c)

AML with t(9;11)(p22; q23)

d)

APL with PML-RARA

27.

A 20-year-old patient presents with fatigue, pallor, easy bruising, and swollen gums. Bone marrow examination reveals 82% cells with delicate chromatin and prominent nucleoli that are CD141, CD41, CD11b1, and CD361. Which of the following acute leukemias is likely?

a)

Minimally differentiated lleukemia

b)

Leukemia of ambigous llineage

c)

Acute monoblastic/ monocytic leukemia

d)

Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia

28.

Pure erythroid leukemia is a disorder involving:

a)

Pronormoblasts only

b)

Pronormoblasts and basophilic normoblasts

c)

All forms of developing RBC precursors

d)

Equal numbers of pronormoblasts and myloblasts

29.

A patient with normal chromosomes has a WBC count of 3.0 x 109 /L and dysplasia in all cell lines. There are 60% blasts of varying sizes. The blasts stain positive for CD61. The most likely type of leukemia is:

a)

Acute lymphoblastic

b)

Acute megakaryoblastic

c)

Acute monoblastic

d)

APL with PML-RARA

30.

SBB stains which of the following component of cells?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Lipids

c)

Structural proteins

d)

Enzymes

31.

The cytochemical stain a-naphthyl butyrate is a nonspecific esterase stain that shows diffuse positivity in cells of which lineage?

a)

Erythroid

b)

Monocytic

c)

Granukicytic

d)

Lymphoid