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ELC1

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Material that electricity can easily flow through
a)
Insulators
b)
Rubber
c)
Conductor
d)
Wood
2.
Identify the Converter type?
a)
1Φ Dual Converter
b)
3Φ Single Converter
c)
3Φ Dual Converter
d)
1Φ Single Converter
3.
A fully controlled converter uses
a)
 diodes only
b)
 thyristors only
c)
 both diodes and thyristors
d)
Noe of them
4.
In the single-pulse width modulation method, the output voltage waveform is symmetrical about __________ ?
a)
π
b)
c)
 π/2
d)
π/4
5.
For an SCR in the forward blocking mode (practically)
a)
leakage current does not flow
b)
leakage current flows from anode to cathode
c)
leakage current flows from cathode to anode
d)
leakage current flows from gate to anode
6.
 A dual converters has
a)
 two full converters in series
b)
 two half converters in series
c)
two full converters in anti-parallel
d)
two half converters in anti-parallel
7.
The four quadrant operation of dual converters can be obtained by
a)
changing the firing angle value
b)
moving the mechanical lever
c)
adding inductance to the circuit
d)
none of the mentioned
8.
 The shape of the output voltage waveform in a single PWM is
a)
 square wave
b)
triangular wave
c)
quasi-square wave
d)
sine wave
9.
dv/dt protection is provided to the SCR by
a)
connecting a capacitor in parallel with the load
b)
connecting an inductor in series with the load
c)
connecting a capacitor & resister in parallel with the device
d)
connecting an inductor & resister in parallel with the device
10.
The time constant of a series RC circuit (τ) is given by
a)
R/C
b)
C/R
c)
RC
d)
1/RC
11.

Gate of MOSFET is insulated with layer of...?

a)

SiO2

b)

O2

c)

Si

d)

None

12.

What is the full form of IGBT...?

a)

Insulation gate bipolar transistor

b)

Insulation gate bidirectional transistor

c)

Insulated gate bipolar transistor

d)

Insulated gate bidirectional transistor

13.

PWM in voltage source inverter can control ----------------------- of the voltage output ?

a)

Frequency

b)

Magnitude

c)

Both Frequency & Magnitude

d)

None

14.

Static UPS requires...?

a)

Only Rectifier

b)

Only Inverter

c)

Both Rectifier & Inverter

d)

None

15.

Which device can be used in a chopper circuit?

a)

GTO

b)

IGBT

c)

MOSFET

d)

ALL

16.

Generally for a pure Inductive load what is the impedance angle φ?

a)

120 degree

b)

90 degree

c)

180 degree

d)

270 degree

17.

Which device can be used in a chopper circuit?

a)

GTO

b)

IGBT

c)

MOSFET

d)

ALL

18.

Which device can be used in a chopper circuit?

a)

GTO

b)

IGBT

c)

MOSFET

d)

ALL

19.

A silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is a-----------

a)

Unijunction device

b)

Device with three junction

c)

Device with four junction

d)

None of the above

20.

A thyristor is basically

a)

PNPN device

b)

A combination of diac and triac

c)

A set of SCRs

d)

A set of SCR, diac and a triac

21.

Which semiconductor power device out of the following, is not a current triggering device?

a)

Thyristor

b)

Triac

c)

G.T.O

d)

MOSFET

22.

Which of the following device incorporates a terminal for synchronizing purposes?

a)

Diac

b)

Triac

c)

Silicon Unilateral Switch (SUS)

d)

None of the above

23.

The advantages of SCS over SCR is

a)

Slow switching time and large VH

b)

Slow switching time and smaller VH

c)

Faster switching time and smaller VH

d)

Faster switching time and large VH

24.

A thyristor equivalent of a thyratron tube is a

a)

Diac

b)

Triac

c)

Silicon controlled rectifier

d)

None of the above

25.

A triac is a

a)

2 terminal switch

b)

2 terminal bilateral switch

c)

3 terminal bilateral switch

d)

3 terminal bidirectional switch

26.

The fig. above represents a

a)

Triac thyristor

b)

Diac trigger

c)

Diode rectifier

d)

None of the above

27.

A device that cannot be triggered with low voltage of either polarity is

a)

Diac

b)

Triac

c)

SCS

d)

All of the above

28.

The fig. given above represents

a)

Silicon controlled rectifier

b)

Field effect transistor

c)

Photoemissive diode

d)

Tunnel diode

29.

The given fig. represents

a)

Triac thyristor

b)

Diac thyristor

c)

Capacitive Diode

d)

None of the above

30.

A device that does not exhibit negative resistance characteristics is

a)

FET

b)

UJT

c)

Tunnel diode

d)

SCR

31.

A triac

a)

Conducts when not triggered

b)

Conducts when not triggered in both direction

c)

Conducts when triggered in one direction

d)

None of the above

32.

For a thyristor shown is

a)

All the 3 junctions are forward Biased

b)

J1, J2 are forward biased and j3 reversed biased

c)

J1 is forward biased, J2, J3 reversed biased

d)

J1, J2 are reversed biased J3 is forward biased

33.

The thyristor is turned -off when the anode current falls below_____

a)

Forward current

b)

Latching current

c)

Holding current

d)

Breakover current

34.

In a thyristor circuit, the angle of conduction is changed by changing______

a)

Anode voltage

b)

Gate current

c)

Forward current

d)

Anode current

35.

The VI characteristics of UJT is

a)

Similar to CE with a linear and saturation region

b)

Similar to FET with a linear and pinch off region

c)

Similar to tunnel diode in some respects

d)

Similar to PN junction diode in some respects

36.

UJT when used for triggering an SCR, has the waveform

a)

Sine wave

b)

Square Wave

c)

Sawtooth wave

d)

Trapezoidal

37.

A resistor connected across the gate and cathode of a thyristor increase its

a)

Turn off time

b)

di/dt rating

c)

Noise immunity

d)

Holding current

38.

P-side emitter in UJT is

a)

Not doped

b)

Feebly doped

c)

Heavily doped

d)

Moderately doped

39.

Inverter converts

a)

DC to AC

b)

AC to DC

c)

DC to DC

d)

AC to AC

40.

When thyristor and transistor as a switch are compared, the true statement is

a)

Thyristor requires turns off circuit while transistor does not

b)

The voltage drop of the thyristor is less than transistor

c)

Thyristor requires a continuous gate current

d)

Transistor does not draw continuously base current

41.

When emitter terminal of a UJT is open then the resistance of the base terminal is

a)

Very high

b)

Very low

c)

Moderate

d)

Any finite value

42.

If the firing angle in an SCR rectifier is decreased, the output is

a)

Increased

b)

Maximum

c)

Decreased

d)

Remain Unaffected

43.

A SCR is a ________ switch

a)

One directional

b)

Two directional

c)

Three directional

d)

Four Directional

44.

Comparing a triac & SCR

a)

Both are unidirectional devices

b)

An SCR has less time for turn off than Triac

c)

Both are bidirectional devices

d)

All of the above

45.

Which of the following statement is true about Thyristor

a)

The turn off time of a thyristor is less than the turn-on time

b)

The turn-on time is less than the turn-off time

c)

The turn-off time for the line commutation is less than the forced commutation

d)

None of the above

46.

The figure represents

a)

Zener diode

b)

Silicon controlled rectifier

c)

Junction field effect transistor

d)

Tunnel diode

47.

Among this alternative, PIV rating of which diode is lower than that of equivalent vacuum diode?

a)

PN Junction Diode

b)

Crystal Diode

c)

Tunnel Diode

d)

Small single Diode

48.

A forward bias PN junction will act as a/an:

a)

Amplifier

b)

Open switch

c)

Closed Switch

d)

Attenuator

49.

What type of Machine Learning Algorithm is suitable for predicting the continuous dependent variable?

a)

Logistic Regression

b)

Linear Regression

c)

Decision Tree Classifier

d)

KNN Classifier

50.

What type of Machine Learning Algorithm is suitable for predicting the dependent variable with two different values?

a)

Logistic Regression

b)

Linear Regression

c)

Multiple Linear Regression

d)

Polynomial Regression

51.

The correlation in between mobile usage and exam score of a person found to be -2.2. What is your inference from the above statement.

a)

Mobile usage is positively correlated with exam score

b)

Mobile usage is negatively correlated with exam score

c)

None of the mentioned

d)

Need some other information

52.

The residual is the difference in between ________________

a)

actual value of y and the estimated value of y

b)

actual value of x and the estimated value of x

c)

actual value of y and the estimated value of x

d)

actual value of x and the estimated value of y

53.

Suitable evaluation metric for measuring the performance of a given regression model is

a)

Mean Absolute Error

b)

Root Mean Square Error

c)

Precision

d)

Recall

54.

If we decrease the input variable by one unit in a simple linear regression model. How many units of the output variable will change?

a)

reduced by Intercept

b)

increased by Intercept

c)

increased by Slope

d)

reduced by Slope

55.

Appropriate chart for visualizing the linear relationship between two variables is _________________

a)

Scatter plot

b)

Barchart

c)

Histograms

d)

None of Mentioned

56.

The Number of coefficients required to estimate a simple linear regression?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

0

d)

3

57.

KNN Algorithm can be used for

a)

Only for Classification

b)

Only for Regression

c)

Both Classification and Regression

d)

None of the Mentioned

58.

KNN is ___________ algorithm

a)

Non-parametric and Lazy Learning

b)

Parametric and Lazy Learning

c)

Parametric and Eager Learning

d)

Non-parametric and Eager Learning

59.

What kind of distance metric(s) are suitable for categorical variables to finding the closest neighbors

a)

Euclidean Distance

b)

Manhattan distance

c)

Minkowski distance

d)

Hamming distance

60.

What kind of distance metric(s) are suitable for continuous variables to find the closest neighbors

a)

Euclidean Distance

b)

Manhattan distance

c)

Minkowski distance

d)

Hamming distance

61.

KNN algorithm appropriate for

a)

Lower number of features

b)

Large number of features

c)

No such restriction on number of features

d)

None of the Mentioned

62.

KNN algorithm requires

a)

More time for training

b)

More time for testing

c)

Equal time for training and testing

d)

None of the Mentioned

63.

The entropy of a given dataset is zero. This statement implies what?

a)

further splitting is required

b)

no further splitting is required

c)

Need some other information to decide splitting

d)

None of the Mentioned

64.

If the given dataset contains 100 observations out of 50 belongs to class1 and other 50 belongs to class2. What will be the entropy of the given dataset?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

-1

d)

0.5

65.

How do you choose the root node while constructing a Decision Tree?

a)

An attribute having high entropy

b)

An attribute having largest information gain

c)

An attribute having high entropy and Information gain

d)

None of the Mentioned

66.

Chose the correct criterion for Decision Tree Classifier in sklearn package

a)

Gini

b)

Entropy

c)

Information Gain

d)

Random

67.

In a Decision Tree Leaf Node represents_____________

a)

One of the Class Label

b)

One of the complete observation

c)

One of the attribute

d)

None of the Mentioned

68.

Consider the above Confusion Matrix of a classifier and choose the correct statements

a)

Accuracy is 84%

b)

Misclassification Rate is 16%

c)

Type-I Error is 6

d)

Type-II Error is 10

69.

According to Tom Mitchell, what is the requirement for the computer system to learn

a)

Data set

b)

Task

c)

Performance measure

d)

Knowledge

70.

Select a possible application of the machine learning

a)

Fraud detection

b)

Recognising a happy face

c)

Differentiate X-ray image

d)

Recognise your lecturer's hand writing

71.

To recognise the face as an object, the image of face is breakdown into combination of edges, edges, and pixel.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What is the implication of "false positive" increase to the precision measure

a)

increase precision

b)

decrease precision

c)

doesn't has any effect to precision

73.

What is the implication of decreasing "false negative" to the recall measure

a)

decreasing recall

b)

increasing recall

c)

doesn't have any effect to recall

74.

In the case of pregnancy prediction, if the predictor output is always "pregnant" what is the recall value?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

0.1

d)

Undefined

75.

In the case of pregnancy prediction, if the predictor output is always "not pregnant" what is the precision value?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

0.5

d)

Undefined

76.

The unsupervised learning is better used for prediction

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Artificial neural network consists of following fundamental components

a)

Neurons as nodes

b)

Synapses as weight

c)

Neurons as weight

d)

Synapses as nodes

78.

Supervised learning used rewards, training data, and desired output

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Suppose your email program watches which emails you do or do not mark as spam, and based on that learns how to better filter spam. What is the task T in this setting?

a)

Classifying emails as spam or not spam

b)

Watching you label emails as spam or not spam

c)

The number of emails correctly classified as spam/not spam

d)

None of the above

80.

You are running a company and you want to develop learning algorithms to address each of two problems.

Problems 1: you have a large inventory of identical items. you want to predict how many of these items will sell over the next 3 months.

Problem 2: you would like software to examine individual customer accounts and for each account decide if it has been hacked/compromised.

Should you treat these as classification or as regression problems?

a)

Treat both as classification problems

b)

Treat problem 1 as classification and problem 2 as regression

c)

Treat problem 1 as regression and problem 2 as classification

d)

Treat both as regression problems

81.

Of the following examples, which would you address using an unsupervised learning algorithm? check all that apply

a)

Given email labeled as spam/not spam, learn a spam filter

b)

Given a set of news articles found on the web, group them into set of articles about the same story

c)

Given a database of customer data, automatically discover market segments and group customers into different market segments

d)

Given a dataset of patients diagnosed as either having diabetes or not, learn to classify new patients as having diabetes or not

82.

In the "model representation", Andrew Ng uses variable "m" to represent

a)

number of training example

b)

input variable

c)

output variable

d)

feature

83.

Machine learning is mostly used when

a)

Human expertise doesn't exist

b)

Model must be customised to personal need

c)

Model use huge amount of data

d)

Interpreting the insight from descriptive data such as mean, median etc

84.

In serial communication data is send as-------bit at a time

a)

8

b)

2

c)

1

d)

16

85.

Most reliable Data communication

a)

serial

b)

parallel

86.

Which one is quick data transfer method

a)

Serial

b)

Parallel

87.

Expensive data communication method

a)

Synchronous

b)

Asynchronous

88.

The 2 pins used for data communication in MC 8051

(a)  

89.

Format of data in digital data transmission

(a)  

90.

In which data transmission method multiple data bits are transmitted over multiple channels

a)

serial

b)

parallel

91.

Example of asynchronous communication

a)

UART

b)

USART

92.

In which data communication method the events are referenced to clock

a)

asynchronous

b)

synchronous

93.

In which serial communication method the bytes are separated by START & STOP bits

a)

Asynchronous

b)

Synchronous

94.

List two Special function registers used for Serial communication in MC8051

(a)  

95.

Give the full form of SBUF Register

(a)  

96.

The size of SCON register

a)

8 bit

b)

16 bit

c)

2 bit

d)

1 bit

97.

Which is multiprocessor communication bit in SCON

a)

SM0

b)

SM1

c)

SMOD

d)

SM2

98.

Which Interrupt flag is set to indicate completed data transfer

a)

RI

b)

TI

99.

Which Interrupt flag is set to indicate completed data Reception

a)

RI

b)

TI

100.

Which is serial communication baud rate modify bit

a)

PD

b)

SM2

c)

SMOD

101.

Which is the power control register in MC8051

a)

SCON

b)

PCON

c)

SBUF

102.

How many modes are there in the serial data communication in MC8051

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

103.

Which pin provides clock in Mode0

a)

TXD

b)

RXD

c)

INT0

104.

Which mode is half duplex communication

a)

0

b)

2

c)

1

105.

Data format in mode 2

a)

8

b)

10

c)

11

106.

Data format in mode0

a)

8

b)

10

c)

11

107.

Data format in mode1

a)

8

b)

11

c)

10

108.

whenSM2=1 in mode2 slaves will consider received byte as

a)

address

b)

data

109.

To increase damping of pair of complex roots compensator used is

a)

Phase lag

b)

Phase lead

c)

Phase lag lead

d)

One with 60° lead circuit

110.

If poles of system are lying on the imaginary axis in s-plane, the system will be

a)

Unstable

b)

Marginally stable

c)

Conditionally stable

d)

Unstable

111.

Which system conveniently see the impact of poles and zeros on phase and gain margin?

a)

Root locus

b)

Nyquist plot

c)

Routh-Hurwitz criterion

d)

Bode plot

112.

To study time delay of the system which of the following is used?

a)

Nyquist plot

b)

Bode plot

c)

Routh Hurwitz method

d)

Nicholas chart

113.

Closed loop poles are

a)

Zeros of 1+G(S). H(s)

b)

Zeros of G(s) H(s)

c)

Poles of G(s) H(s)

d)

Poles of 1 + G(s) H(s)

114.

Feed back control system are basically

a)

Low pass filter

b)

High pass filter

c)

Band pass filter

d)

Band stop filter

115.

Plot of the constant gain loci of the system is

a)

Asymptote

b)

Circle with centre at the origin

c)

Parabola

d)

Ellipse

116.

Frequency response means

a)

Transient response of a system to a sinusoidal input

b)

Steady state response of a system to a sinusoidal input

c)

Oscillatory response of a system to a sinusoidal input

d)

None of these

117.

Gain margin expressed in decibels is

a)

Positive if Kg greater than 1 and negative for Kg less than 1

b)

Negative if Kg greater than 1 and negative for Kg less than 1

c)

Always zero

d)

Infinity for Kg equal to 1

118.

In Nyquist criterion roots of the characteristic equation are given by

a)

Zeros of open loop transfer function

b)

Zeros of closed loop transfer function

c)

Poles of closed loop transfer function

d)

Poles of open loop transfer function

119.

For relative stability of the system which of the following is sufficient?

a)

Gain margin

b)

Phase margin

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

None of these

120.

For G(S) F(S) = (k(S+z))/(S+p), (z < p) the plot is

a)

One pole on the imaginary axis

b)

One zero on the right-hand side of the plane

c)

2 poles and 2 zeros on the left-hand side of plane

d)

One pole and one zero on the left-hand side of plane

121.

Bode analysis method can be applied

a)

If transfer function has no poles and zeros on R.H. of s-plane

b)

If transfer function has no poles on R.H. of s-plane

c)

If transfer function has no zero on R.H. of s-plane

d)

To all transfer functions

122.

Cut off is the slope of log-magnitude curve

a)

At the start of curve

b)

At the end of curve

c)

None of these

d)

Near the cut off frequency

123.

Slope in Bode plot is expressed as

a)

– 6 db/decade

b)

– 6 db/octave

c)

– 7 db/octave

d)

– 8 db/octave

124.

Polar plots for+ve and –ve frequencies

a)

Are always symmetrical

b)

Can never be symmetrical

c)

May be symmetrical

d)

None of these

125.

According to the property of state transition method, e0 is equal to _____

a)

I

b)

A

c)

e-At

d)

-eAt

126.

Which mechanism in control engineering implies an ability to measure the state by taking measurements at output?

a)

Controllability

b)

Observability

c)

Differentiability

d)

Adaptability

127.

State model representation is possible using _________

a)

Physical variables

b)

Phase variables


c)

Canonical state variables

d)

All of the above

128.

State space analysis is applicable even if the initial conditions are _____

a)

Zero

b)

Non equal

c)

Equal

d)

Not zero