wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

LEB QUIZ

Total questions: 32

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

A tort is the breach of a non-contractual legal duty owed by one person to another.

b)

Tort law provides a remedy for people for harm that they have suffered.

c)

Tort law is used when there is a direct contractual link between the claimant and the person who caused the loss/injury /harm/damage.

d)

Tort law requires taking reasonable care not to negligently or intentionally cause harm.

2.

To succeed in an action for negligence it is necessary for a claimant to prove:

a)

The defendant owed the claimant a duty of care

b)

The defendant breached that duty of care

c)

A reasonably foreseeable damage was caused by the breach of duty

d)

All of the above

3.

The duty of care is breached if:

a)

The defendant has failed to take reasonable care (i.e. has been careless)

b)

There is causation (a causal link between the failure to take reasonable care and the injury suffered)

c)

Both of the above are necessary for a breach in the duty of care

d)

A High Court judge so orders

4.

Which of the following are the most common defences to a claim of negligence?

a)

Illegality, consent, contributory negligence, necessity

b)

Illegality, consent, contributory negligence, duty of care

c)

Illegality, contributory negligence, duty of care, necessity

d)

All of the above

5.

Regarding the Consumer Protection Act 1987, which of the following is incorrect?

a)

It places strict liability (proof of fault not required) on any defendants.

b)

The claimant must show beyond reasonable doubt that the defective product wholly or partly caused the damage suffered.

c)

A claim must be for an amount greater than £275 – which does not include the damage to the product itself. 

d)

  Any action against the defendant must be taken within three years of the defect.

6.

An employer is vicariously liable for:

a)

An employee acting negligently in a duty which they were authorised to do with care

b)

An employee acting in a wrongful way that was not authorised by the employer

c)

All torts committed by employees in their main place of work

d)

All of the above

7.

Where a supplier supplies services in the course of a business, which of the following are implied into the contract?

a)

The supplier will carry out the service with reasonable care and skill.

b)

If no time is fixed, the work will be carried out within a reasonable time.

c)

If no price is fixed, the price charged will be reasonable.

d)

All of the above

8.

What are the rights of consumers, when buying at a distance or off-premises, to change their minds and cancel orders (the cooling-off periods)?

a)

The consumer has a 7-day cooling-off period during which he can change his mind and cancel the contract with the trader

b)

The consumer has a 14-day cooling-off period during which he can change his mind and cancel the contract with the trader

c)

The consumer has a 28-day cooling-off period during which he can change his mind and cancel the contract with the trader

d)

The Courts will decide the reasonable cooling-off period based on the individual merits of each case

9.

Which of the following types of contracts are not excluded from cancellation rights?

a)

customised goods that are built-to-order

b)

goods which by nature will perish or damage rapidly

c)

contracts of service where the service has not yet been performed

d)

     sealed software or sealed audio-visual products which have been unsealed

10.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The contra proferentem rule states that where there is doubt about the meaning of the contract, the words will be construed against the person who put them forward.

b)

The contra proferentem rule states that where there is doubt about the meaning of the contract, the words will be construed for the person who put them forward.

c)

The contra proferentem rule states that where there is doubt about the meaning of the contract, the court will interpret the meaning of the words that are in dispute.

d)

The contra proferentem rule states that where there is doubt about the meaning of the contract, the parties are able to terminate the contract and walk away without loss.

 

11.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

Under the Limitation Act 1980, an action under a simple contract must be made within six years form the date when the right to the action arose.

b)

There is no statutory provision for time limits to claim under the equitable remedies – however, being equitable, they must be sought within a reasonable time.

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

12.

Which of the following is not a basic element of a contract?

a)

offer and acceptance (agreement)

b)

consideration (what each party does in return for the other party)

c)

intention to create binding relations

d)

uncertainty of terms

13.

A unilateral contract…

  

a)

is one where a party promises to perform some action in return for a specific act, although the other party is not promising to take any action

b)

  exists where one of the parties offers to do something in return for an action by the other party – they exchange promises

c)

  is not recognised as valid by English law

d)

is one where the terms are uncertain

14.

. The newspaper advertisement in the Carlill v Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893) case was:

a)

an invitation to treat

b)

a unilateral contract

c)

  a bilateral contract

d)

an offer

15.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

In commercial agreements, the presumption is that legal relations exist, unless the parties expressly state an agreement to the contrary

b)

Social agreements, such as between husband and wife, are presumed not to intend to create legal relations

c)

Legal obligations are always presumed to exist in all commercial and social agreements

d)

The parties must intend for their agreement to establish legal relations in order to create an enforceable contract

16.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

An invitation to treat is a step in the negotiations which leads up to the making of an offer – it can be considered as a pre-contract negotiation

b)

A promise of a gift made by parents to their child can be enforced in a court of law

c)

The offeror can revoke the offer at any time until acceptance takes place, but this must be communicated to, and received by, the offeree

d)

  Silence does not constitute valid acceptance

17.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Sources of English law include, but are not limited to, Acts of Parliament (statute law) and Common Law.

b)

Law may be administered through courts and also tribunals.

c)

Sources of English law are limited to Acts of Parliament (statute law) and Common Law.

d)

The law provides remedies for wrongs and, where necessary, sanctions for transgressions.

18.

Which of the following statements are true?

a)

Public law is primarily concerned with the State and its interaction with individuals (constitutional law, human rights, criminal law).

b)

Private law generally refers to situations involving disputes between private parties (contracts, property, torts etc.).

c)

Business Law mainly deals with private law (civil) issues – although there may be some criminal elements involved in company law such as bribery, insider dealing and fraudulent trading.

d)

All of the above

19.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Cases heard in civil courts are determined on the balance of probabilities.

b)

Cases heard in criminal courts are based on proving the defendant was guilty beyond reasonable doubt, not a mere balance of probability.

c)

Judges are free to use their expertise in deciding the cases before them based on any legal criteria they personally see fit.

d)

In both civil and criminal cases, judges must act within the constrains of statute law and the common law.

20.

Which fundamental human rights protection does the Human Rights Act 1998 blatantly ignore?

a)

The right to an effective remedy.

b)

The right to family life.

c)

The right to a fair trial.

d)

Freedom from discrimination.

21.

What are the four fundamental freedoms at the core of the EU project?

a)

Free movement of goods, capital and people, and freedom from border tariffs.

b)

Free movement of goods, capital, services and people.

c)

  Free movement of goods, services and people and freedom from border tariffs.

d)

Free movement of goods and people, plus freedom from tariffs and double taxation on goods.

22.

The ratio decidendi is...

a)

   The reason for the decision made by the court.

b)

Things a judge says by the way of judgement and is not legally binding.

c)

Another word for the system of precedent established by the Common Law.

d)

None of the above.

23.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

    Parliament’s main role is to legislate (make laws)

b)

Acts of Parliament are supreme (above the common law and equity) because Parliament is the supreme law-making body.

c)

If in conflict with the common law, an equitable principle or any other rule, the Act of Parliament always overrides the conflicting law.

d)

Laws made by Executive bodies, under the authority of Parliament, are known as primary legislation.

24.

Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of the civil courts (from top to bottom)?

a)

   Supreme Court, High Court (Queens Bench, Chancery and Family Divisions), Court of Appeal (Civil Division), County Court

b)

Supreme Court, Court of Appeal (Civil Division), High Court (Queens Bench, Chancery and Family Divisions), County Court, Magistrates’ Court

c)

Supreme Court, Court of Appeal (Civil Division), High Court (Queens Bench, Chancery and Family Divisions), County Court

d)

    Supreme Court, High Court (Queens Bench, Chancery and Family Divisions), County Court, Magistrates’ Court

25.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Civil cases are assigned to a 'track' depending upon the views of the judge, the value of the claim, and the time assessed for disposal of the case.

b)

Courts expect the parties to have considered the use of ADR (alternative dispute resolution) rather than simply having decided to take their dispute to court.

c)

ADR focuses on an adversarial approach to resolve disputes.

d)

Advantages of tribunals over the traditional court structure include the speed at which cases are resolved, reduction in costs, and reduction in the workload of the courts.

26.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Injunctions, specific performance, rectification and rescission are based on EU Law

b)

Injunctions, specific performance, rectification and rescission are statutory remedies.

c)

Injunctions, specific performance, rectification and rescission are common law remedies.

·      

d)

Injunctions, specific performance, rectification and rescission are equitable remedies.

27.

Which of the following is not a type of misrepresentation?

a)

Fraudulent

b)

Negligent

c)

Voidable

d)

Innocent

28.

. Which of the following is not a type of mistake?

a)

Unilateral

b)

Bilateral

c)

Common

d)

Mutual

29.

Terms may be implied by…

a)

Courts

b)

Statue Law

c)

Courts, statute law and trade custom

d)

Courts and trade custom

30.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

A condition is a vital/fundamental term that goes to the root of the contract

b)

A warrantee is a minor or incidental term that is secondary to the main aim of the contract

c)

An innominate term is a term which the parties are not likely to have intended to be either a condition or a warranty when the contract was formed; it is a term that may be broken in a serious or trivial way, so the remedy should depend on the severity of the breach

d)

All of the above

31.

Which of the following statements is correct?

·      

a)

A contract of partnership with a minor is valid

b)

A contract of partnership with a minor is voidable

c)

A contract of partnership with a minor is void

d)

A contract of partnership with a minor illegal

32.

The remedy for a breach of a warrantee is…

a)

Claiming damages only

b)

Terminating the contract and claiming damages

c)

Decided by judges based on their preference

d)

None of the above