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WorksheetsCCNA Block 3
Total questions: 94
Worksheet time: 2hrs 34mins
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor
The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage
Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch
The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
platform-as-a-service
software-as-a-service
network-as-a-service
infrastructure-as-a-service
Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement?
Cisco ACI
cloud services
APIC-EM
data center
What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (Choose two)
The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic
It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network
It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server
It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network
It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
control and distribution of physical resources
software-as-a-service
services as a hardware controller
infrastructure-as-a-service
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
infrastructure-as-a-service
software-as-a-service
platform-as-a-service
business process as service to support different types of service
Refer to the exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected?
There is a native VLAN mismatch
Access mode is configured on the switch ports.
The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN
All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
The link is in a downstate.
The link is in an error disables stale
The link is becomes an access port
The link becomes a trunkport
Refer to exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status
The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain
The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link
The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
switchport access vlan 67
switchport trunk allowed vlan 67
switchport private-vlan association host 67
switchport trunk native vlan 67
Refer to the exhibit.
A frame from VLAN1 of switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame received on VLAN2. What causes this behavior?
trunk mode mismatches
VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
native vlan mismatches
allowing only vlan 2 on the destination
Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
The frame is processed in VLAN 5
The frame is processed in VLAN 11
The frame is processed in VLAN 1
The frame is dropped
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthernet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport mode trunk
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs
Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table
Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port
Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?
The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity.
The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.
The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected.
The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1 (config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1 (config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
R1 (config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two)
EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel
STP does not block EtherChannel links
You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports
EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail
EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
active
auto
mode on
passive
Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)
interface port-channel 10
switchport
switchport mode trunk
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode active
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode on
interface port-channel 10
no switchport
ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
channel-group 10 mode auto
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two)
interface range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode auto
interface range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode desirable
interface range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode on
interface range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode active
interface range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode passive
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
desirable
on
active
auto
Refer to the exhibit. When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2
source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1
source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?
It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route
It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed
It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1
It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost
It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance
It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix: inclusive of the destination address
It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address
Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?
192.168.16.0/27
192.168.16.0/21
192.168 26.0/26
192.168.16.0/24
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
default route
network route
floating static route
host route
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?
administrative distance
dual algorithm
metric
hop count
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router 1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 1
router1(config)#ip route 1 192.168.201.1 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
router1(config)#ip route 5 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2
Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true?
Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected
Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol
Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected
Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route falls?
The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup
The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup
The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary
The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table
Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for Internet traffic?
209.165.200.0/27
10.10.13.0/24
10.10.10.0/28
0.0.0.0/0
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
110
115
90
20
Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? (Choose two)
EIGRP
BGP
RIP
OSPF
IS-IS
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
10.10.10.0/28
10.10.13.208/29
10.10.13.0/25
10.10.13.144/28
Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
3184439
0
110
38443
Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?
exchanging link-state advertisements
electing the designated router
establishing neighbor adjacencies
injecting the default route
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
10.0.1.4
10.0.1.50
10.0.1.3
Loopback 0
Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?
Router R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Router R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.
Router R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
modify hello interval
modify process ID
modify priority
modify network type
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3. The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168.1.0/30 subnet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two)
configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process
configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides
configure the same router ID on both routing processes
configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides
configure both interfaces with the same area ID
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
OSPF area
OSPF MD5 authentication key
OSPF stub flag
IPv6 address
OSPF process ID
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size
R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0
R2 should have its network command in area 1
R2 is using the passive-interface default command
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured
Router2 is using the default hello timer
The OSPF router IDs are mismatched
The OSPF process IDs are mismatched
Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP server?
ntp authenticate
ntp server
ntp master
ntp peer
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two)
whether the NTP peer is statically configured
the NTP version number of the peer
the configured NTP servers
whether the clock is synchronized
the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
Verify the time zone
Enable NTP authentication
Specify the IP address of the NTP server
Disable NTP broadcasts
Set the NTP server private key
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127
R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255
R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any
R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
config t
ip access-list extended wwwblock
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
permit ip any any
int vlan 20
ip access-group wwwblock in
config t
ip access-list extended wwwblock
permit ip any any
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
int vlan 30
ip access-group wwwblock in
onfig t
ip access-list extended wwwblock
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
int vlan 20
ip access-group wwwblock in
config t
ip access-list extended wwwblock
deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80
int vlan 100
ip access-group wwwblock in
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5:
Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?
outbound on router B Fa0/0
inbound on router B Fa0/1outbound on router A Fa0/1
outbound on router A Fa0/1
inbound on router A Fa0/0
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22
access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22
no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)
The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101
The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1
Add a “permit ip any any” statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic
The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2
Add a “permit ip any any” statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic
Refer to the exhibit. What configuration on R1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any R1 interface and allows all other traffic?
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
access-list 100 permit ip any any
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23
access-list 100 permit ip any any
line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in
line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23
access-list 100 permit ip any any
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip access-group 100 in
access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
access-list 100 permit ip any any
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip access-group 100 in
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
A matching deny statement is too high in the access list
A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
A matching permit statement is too high in the access list
The packets fail to match any permit statement
The ACL is empty
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs
Enable dynamic ARP inspection
Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs
Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
FireSIGHT
Firepower
ASA
WSA
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
switch
access point
wireless controller
firewall
Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
worm
DDoS
man-in-the-middle
malware
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
MAC Authentication Bypass
802.1x
802.11n
IP Source Guard
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
The application requires an administrator password to reactivated after a configured interval.
The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.
The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.
The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closet? (Choose two)
configure static ARP entries
implement port-based authentication
configure ports to a fixed speed
shut down unused ports
enable the PortFast feature on ports
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using local username and password?
1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#login local
R1(config)#username admin
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234
R1(config-line)#transport input telnet
R1(config)#username admin
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234
R1(config)#username admin secret p@ss1234
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#login local
R1(config)#enable secret p@ss1234
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
SNMP
syslog
NTP
DNS lookup
How does a router behave when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
initiates a ping request to the URL.
attempts to query a DNS server on the network.
prompts the user to specify the desired IP address.
continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled.
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose two)
improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
encrypts network traffic as it travels across a WAN by default
builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations
allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address
enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address
Which command must be present in a Cisco Device configuration to enable the device to resolve an FQDN?
ip domain-lookup
ip name-server
ip domain-name
ip host
What is a design element when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.
allocating non overlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
The EtherChannel must be configured in “mode active”
One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured
When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
autonomous
bridge
mobility express
lightweight
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method
Central AP management requires more complex configurations
It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually
It supports autonomous and lightweight APs
Which 802.11 frame type is association response?
control
protected frame
action
management
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?
AES-256
RC4
TKIP with RC4
AES-128
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
Silver
Platinum
Gold
Bronze
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
TACACS
RADIUS
Flex ACL
CPU ACL
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
TKIP
WEP
RC4
AES
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
management interface settings
QoS settings
SSID
ip address of one or more access points
Profile name
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
local
flex connect
sniffer
mesh
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two)
5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.
5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.
For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.
Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
hexadecimal
binary
decimal
base64
ASCII
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs
It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment
It is designed primarily to provide network assurance
It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller
The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller
Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller
Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)
modular design that is upgradable as needed
adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software
SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively
customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management
Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options
Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management
Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode
It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration
It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization
It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a green field deployment.
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
faster changes with more reliable results
reduced hardware footprint
reduced operational costs
fewer network failures
increased network security
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
[“key”, “value”]
{“key”: “value”}
{“key”, “value”}
(“key”: “value”)
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
SGML
SGML
XML
JSON
EBCDIC
What is a characteristic of the REST API?
most widely used API for web services
considered slow, complex, and rigid
used for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP
evolved into what became SOAP
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
Puppet
JSON
Ansible
Chef
Which option about JSON is true?
uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text
used for storing information
used to describe structured data that includes arrays
similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
{
“response”:{
“taskId”,{};
“url”,”string”
};
“version”; “string”
}
{
“response”,{
“taskId”,{};
“url”,”string”
};
“version”, “string”
}
{
“response”- {
“taskId”- {};
“url”-“string”
},
“version”-“string”
}
{
“response”:{
“taskId”:{},
“url”:”string”
},
“version”: “string”
}
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Puppet
Chef
Ansible
Python
Which option best describes an API?
an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications
communication often uses either Java scripting, Python, XML, or simple HTTP
a stateless client-server model
request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data
Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?
public
partner
open
private
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
update
replace
create
read
