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PS5/IPA5 Quiz 5-6

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Quiz 5: Which of the following describe allopurinol?

a)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

b)

Skeletal muscle relaxant

c)

Used to treat gout

d)

Prevents kidney stones

2.

Quiz 5: What is important to counsel a patient on when starting Zyloprim?

a)

May take 2 - 6 weeks to start working

b)

Make sure to get adequate fluids

c)

Take on an empty stomach

d)

Take at onset of acute gouty flare (used PRN)

3.

Quiz 5: Which of the following side effects of colchicine is considered "dose limiting"?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Headache

d)

Shivering

4.

Quiz 5: What are important considerations for patients before starting allopurinol?

a)

HLA testing (can cause severe dermatitis)

b)

Renal function

c)

Bone health

d)

Thyroid health

5.

Quiz 5: Which of the following is available both orally and as an injectable?

a)

Baclofen

b)

Carisoprodol

c)

Allopurinol

d)

Diclofenac

6.

Quiz 5: What is baclofen's pharmacologic category

a)

Skeletal muscle relaxant

b)

NSAID

c)

Alpha-2 agonist

d)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

7.

Quiz 5: What is important to mention to a patient starting Lioresal?

a)

Do not combine with alcohol

b)

Commonly causes sedation

c)

Do not stop abruptly (can lead to seizure/death)

d)

Commonly causes diarrhea (take with food)

8.

Quiz 5: Which condition is colchicine typically prescribed for?

a)

Gout

b)

Urinary spasms

c)

Hyponatremia

d)

Muscle pain

9.

Quiz 5: What should be considered when patients are prescribed colchicine?

a)

Renal impairment (clearance decreased)

b)

Hepatic impairment (clearance decreased)

c)

Concomitant P-gp inhibitors (ex: amiodarone)

d)

Concomitant CYP3A4 inhibitors (ex: diltiazem)

10.

Quiz 5: Which of the following is structurally related to tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline (and thus has similar anticholinergic side effects)

a)

Flexeril

b)

Voltaren

c)

Colchrys

d)

Soma

11.

Quiz 5: Which of the following are considered potentially inappropriate medications per Beers Criteria?

a)

Cyclobenazprine

b)

Diclofenac

c)

Febuxostat

d)

Methocarbamol

e)

Carisoprodol

12.

Quiz 5: What pharmacologic category is febuxostat?

a)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

b)

Urinary antispasmodic

c)

Urinary analgesic

d)

Procoagulant

13.

Quiz 5: What should be considered/monitored in patients prescribed Uloric?

a)

CV disease (increased risk of death)

b)

Liver function (may increase LFTs - should monitor)

c)

History of rash from allopurinol

d)

Use of NSAIDs (contraindicated together)

e)

Shellfish allergy (contains chitin)

14.

Quiz 5: Which of the following is only available orally?

a)

Febuxostat

b)

Metaxalone

c)

Celecoxib

d)

Diclofenac

e)

Tolvaptan

15.

Quiz 5: Which of the following has weak MAOI properties, thus should be used with caution with medications that could interact (i.e. SSRIs, tramadol)?

a)

Metaxalone

b)

Carisoprodol

c)

Baclofen

d)

Celecoxib

16.

Quiz 5: Which of the following should not be combined with CNS depressants or sedatives (additive effects)?

a)

Skelaxin

b)

Lioresal

c)

Celebrex

d)

Voltaren

e)

Samsca

17.

Quiz 5: Which of the following is a C-IV scheduled medication?

a)

Carisoprodol

b)

Metaxalone

c)

Tizanidine

d)

Colchicine

18.

Quiz 5: Which of the following correctly describes carisoprodol?

a)

Avoid taking with CNS depressants (i.e. opioids)

b)

Caution for falls (dizziness, sedation)

c)

Cannot be combined with NSAIDs

d)

Can be given as a topical gel

e)

Affected by renal and hepatic impairment

19.

Quiz 5: Which are important things to monitor for an inpatient receiving parenteral methocarbamol?

a)

Pulse/EKG (can cause bradycardia)

b)

Seizure activity (not recommended in patients with seizure disorder)

c)

Risk of falls (drowsiness, dizziness)

d)

Renal function (contains polyethylene glycol which can accumulate)

e)

Signs of infection (immunosuppressant effects)

20.

Quiz 5: Which class of drugs should be used with caution or even avoided in patients on Robaxin?

a)

Central-acting muscle relaxants

b)

Strong CYP substrates

c)

P-glycoprotein inhibitors

d)

NSAIDs

e)

CNS depressants

21.

Quiz 5: Which of the following has a potentially deadly drug interaction with ciprofloxacin due to increased toxicity?

a)

Tizanidine

b)

Allopurinol

c)

Methocarbamol

d)

Meloxicam

22.

Quiz 5: Which of the following correctly describes celecoxib?

a)

NSAID (non-selective)

b)

NSAID (COX 2 selective)

c)

Centrally-acting skeletal muscle relaxant

d)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

23.

Quiz 5: Which of the following correctly describes diclofenac?

a)

NSAID (non-selective)

b)

NSAID (COX 2 selective)

c)

Centrally-acting skeletal muscle relaxant

d)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

24.

Quiz 5: Which of the following correctly describes meloxicam?

a)

NSAID (non-selective)

b)

NSAID (COX 2 selective)

c)

Centrally-acting skeletal muscle relaxant

d)

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

25.

Quiz 5: Which patients should not receive Celebrex?

a)

Those with aspirin allergy

b)

Those with sulfonamide allergy

c)

Those with renal failure

d)

Those with significant CV disease

26.

Quiz 5: What are some reasonable counseling points for celecoxib?

a)

Take with food to minimize GI effects

b)

Can lead to fluid retention / weight gain

c)

Make sure skin is dry before applying the gel

d)

Best taken before bed (sedating)

27.

Quiz 5: Which is available as an OTC gel formulation?

a)

Diclofenac

b)

Celecoxib

c)

Meloxicam

d)

Methocarbamol

28.

Quiz 5: In general, what are some important considerations / precautions with NSAIDs?

a)

Pregnancy

b)

Renal function

c)

GI issues (i.e. GERD, risk of ulcers)

d)

Conditions sensitive to fluid overload (i.e. HTN, heart failure)

e)

Concomitant blood thinners

29.

Quiz 5: In general, patients on chronic NSAIDs (especially geriatric) should be monitored for which of the following?

a)

Possible GI bleeding

b)

Renal function

c)

HbA1c

d)

Blood pressure / fluid status (i.e. swelling)

30.

Quiz 5: Which is available by mouth only?

a)

Diclofenac

b)

Celecoxib

c)

Meloxicam

d)

Tolvaptan

31.

Quiz 5: What are expected side effects of tolvaptan?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Thirst

c)

Nausea

d)

Sedation

e)

Scaly skin

32.

Quiz 5: Which of the following are FDA-approved indications for tolvaptan

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone)

d)

Gout

e)

Muscle spasms

33.

Quiz 5: Which of the following formulations are methocarbamol available in?

a)

Oral

b)

Injectable

c)

Suppository

d)

Topical gel

34.

Quiz 5: How does Samsca work?

a)

Vasopressin receptor (V2) inhibitor

b)

Synthetic ADH

c)

Skeletal muscle relaxant

d)

NSAID

35.

Quiz 5: What is important to monitor closely in patients on Samsca?

a)

Sodium level

b)

Potassium level

c)

Calcium level

d)

Vitamin B12 level

36.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is available OTC?

a)

Adapalene

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Risedronate

d)

Clobetasol

37.

Quiz 6: Which of the following are important counseling points for patients using Differin?

a)

Use sunscreen / avoid excess sunlight

b)

May dry skin, be sure to adequately moisturize

c)

Should notice a reduction in itching within a week

d)

Take with food

38.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is FDA-approved for acne?

a)

Adapalene

b)

Clotrimazole / betamethasone

c)

Crisaborole

d)

Timolol

39.

Quiz 6: Which of the following are bisphosphonates?

a)

Fosamax

b)

Actonel

c)

Temovate

d)

Eucrisa

40.

Quiz 6: Which of the following are available orally?

a)

Alendronate

b)

Adapalene

c)

Latanoprost

d)

Risedronate

41.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is used for both treatment and prevention of osteoporosis?

a)

Fosamax

b)

Actonel

c)

Lotemox

d)

Temovate

42.

Quiz 6: Which are important counseling points for patients on oral bisphosphonates?

a)

Sit upright for at least 30 min after taking

b)

Take on empty stomach

c)

Ensure adquate calcium / vitamin D supplementation (separated of course)

d)

Take at bedtime

e)

Take with full glass of water

43.

Quiz 6: Which are ophthalamic products?

a)

Lumigan

b)

Lumify

c)

Xalatan

d)

Timoptic

e)

Travatan-Z

44.

Quiz 6: Which of the following should be dose adjusted for patients with renal impairment?

a)

Fosamax

b)

Actonel

c)

Timoptic

d)

Eucrisa

45.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is a side effect of bimatoprost, which is now also an indication?

a)

Eyelash growth

b)

White eyes

c)

Improvement of under eye bags

d)

Loss of "crows feet" next to eyes

46.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is used in glaucoma?

a)

Bimatoprost

b)

Brimonidine

c)

Latanoprost

d)

Timolol

e)

Travoprost

47.

Quiz 6: What class of drug is Lumigan?

a)

Synthetic prostaglandin analog

b)

Prostaglandin antagonist

c)

Alpha-2 agonist

d)

Beta-blocker

e)

Corticosteroid

48.

Quiz 6: What class of drug is brimonidine?

a)

Synthetic prostaglandin analog

b)

Prostaglandin antagonist

c)

Alpha-2 agonist

d)

Beta-blocker

e)

Corticosteroid

49.

Quiz 6: What class of drug is Xalatan?

a)

Synthetic prostaglandin analog

b)

Prostaglandin antagonist

c)

Alpha-2 agonist

d)

Beta-blocker

e)

Corticosteroid

50.

Quiz 6: What would Lumify be used for?

a)

Red eyes

b)

Conjunctivitis

c)

Itchy eyes

d)

Eyelash growth

51.

Quiz 6: What class of drug is Timoptic?

a)

Synthetic prostaglandin analog

b)

Prostaglandin antagonist

c)

Alpha-2 agonist

d)

Beta-blocker

e)

Corticosteroid

52.

Quiz 6: What class of drug is Travatan-Z?

a)

Synthetic prostaglandin analog

b)

Prostaglandin antagonist

c)

Alpha-2 agonist

d)

Beta-blocker

e)

Corticosteroid

53.

Quiz 6: How is clobetasol available?

a)

Topical cream

b)

Topical gel

c)

Shampoo

d)

Oral

e)

Injectable

54.

Quiz 6: Which are/contain corticosteroids?

a)

Temovate

b)

Lotrisone

c)

Lotemax

d)

Restasis

e)

Eucrisa

55.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is a combination product used to manage fungal infections (i.e. "tineas")

a)

Lotrisone

b)

Lotemax

c)

Lumigan

d)

Latisse

56.

Quiz 6: What pharmacologic category is crisaborole?

a)

PDE4 inhibitor

b)

Corticosteroid

c)

Alpha blocker

d)

Vitamin A derivative

57.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is correct regarding crisaborole?

a)

Topical product

b)

Used to manage atopic dermatitis

c)

Not associated with cancer risk

d)

Cannot be used in children

58.

Quiz 6: Which of the following is used to manage low tear production due to autoimmune issues?

a)

Restasis

b)

Xalatan

c)

Timoptic

d)

Lumify

59.

Quiz 6: What are correct counseling points for cyclosporine opthalmic?

a)

Can cause burning sensation

b)

Can cause some blurry vision

c)

Single-use packs (dispose after)

d)

Can cause dry eye

60.

Quiz 6: Who might receive a prescription for Lotemax?

a)

Conjunctivitis

b)

Inflammatory condition of the eye

c)

Osteoporosis prevention

d)

Eyelash growth

e)

Acne

61.

Quiz 6: What are some adverse effects to monitor for in patients on loteprednol?

a)

Burning sensation

b)

Photophobia

c)

Increased intraocular pressure (if concomitant glaucoma)

d)

Thrush

62.

Quiz 6: Which is true regarding timolol?

a)

Available as both solution and gel

b)

Indicated for ocular HTN and glaucoma

c)

Can be systemically absorbed

d)

Avoid in patients with COPD/asthma, cardiac failure

e)

Take with full glass of water

63.

Quiz 6: Which are pertinent counseling points for patients on travoprost?

a)

Can discolor eyelid

b)

Apply topical cream to itchy areas

c)

Wash mouth after use

d)

Wait at least 5 min before administering another product

e)

Remove contact lenses prior to administration

64.

Quiz 6: Which would be an appropriate recommendation to manage a patient with irritated skin from psoriasis?

a)

Temovate

b)

Eucrisa

c)

Diferin

d)

Lotrisone

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