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EPA 608 - CORE PRACTICE

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which exams does a technician need to pass in order to obtain a universal certification?

a)

Core +Type II

b)

Type I + Type II + Type III

c)

Core + Type I + Type II +Type III

d)

Core + Type I

2.

A technician with a Type III certification can repair what type of appliances?

a)

Small appliances such as window AC units

b)

High pressure appliances such as heat pumps

c)

Low pressure appliances such as chillers

3.

Can you work under someone else's certification?

a)

NO

b)

YES

4.

A technician with a Type II certification can repair what type of appliances?

a)

Small appliances such as window AC units

b)

Low pressure appliances such as chillers

c)

High pressure appliances such as heat pumps

5.

ODP stands for Ozone Depletion Potential which measures a substance's ability to:

a)

Destroy ozone molecules in the stratosphere.

b)

Destroy chlorine monoxide in the atmosphere.

c)

Destroy chlorine atoms.

6.

The ozone molecule is made up of:

a)

3 oxygen atoms.

b)

2 oxygen atoms.

c)

4 oxygen atoms.

7.

The purpose of the stratospheric ozone layer is to protect the earth from:

a)

Space debris.

b)

Asteroids.

c)

The sun's ultraviolet radiation.

8.

True or False: Chlorine is the part of a refrigerant that causes ozone depletion.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

When a chlorine atom takes 1 of an ozone molecule's oxygen atoms what compound is formed?

a)

Fluorine

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Chlorine monoxide

10.

What type of refrigerant is R-12?

a)

CFC

b)

HFO

c)

HFC

d)

HCFC

11.

What do CFCs contain?

a)

Hydrogen, fluorine, and carbon

b)

Hydrogen, chlorine, and fluorine

c)

Chlorine, fluorine, and carbon

12.

Which type of refrigerant has the highest ODP?

a)

CFCs

b)

HCFCs

c)

HFOs

d)

HFCs

13.

Which refrigerant is an example of an HFC?

a)

R-22

b)

R-11

c)

R-134a

d)

R-12

14.

Which refrigerants do not contain chlorine and have zero ODP?

a)

HFCs and HFOs

b)

CFCs and HCFCs

15.

What two points in the refrigeration system divides the low-pressure side and the high-pressure side?

a)

The compressor and the evaporator

b)

The compressor and the liquid receiver

c)

The compressor and the metering device

d)

The condenser and the evaporator

16.

What state does the refrigerant enter the compressor as?

a)

A high-pressure, high-temperature superheated vapor

b)

A high-pressure, low-temperature liquid

c)

A high-pressure subcooled liquid

d)

A low-pressure, low-temperature superheated vapor

17.

The blue gauge on a gauge manifold set is the:

a)

Evacuation gauge

b)

Low-pressure compound gauge

c)

Recovery gauge

d)

High pressure gauge

18.

Where in the refrigeration cycle is the pressure reduced, causing a small percentage of the refrigerant to flash to a vapor (flash-gas)?

a)

The metering device

b)

The liquid receiver

c)

The compressor

d)

The condenser

19.

What component follows the condenser on a refrigeration system with a thermostatic expansion valve?

a)

accumulator

b)

dip tube

c)

liquid receiver

d)

oil separator

20.

What component may be installed in the suction line, before the compressor, to prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor?

a)

accumulator

b)

head pressure control valve

c)

liquid receiver

d)

oil separator

21.

Never___________ a discharge service valve when a system is in operation.

a)

back seat

b)

front seat

c)

take the service cap off

22.

What must be done prior to removing gauge hoses from the service valves?

a)

mid position service valves

b)

front seat service valves

c)

back seat service valves

23.

What is a de-minimis release of refrigerant?

a)

a minor release of refrigerant such as removing hoses

b)

refrigerant released through a purge unit as a result of adding nitrogen to a charged system

c)

refrigerant released from an old refrigerant cylinder

d)

a major release of refrigerant that must be reported

24.

The center port and hose of a gauge manifold is used for which of the following?

a)

charging

b)

all answers are correct

c)

recovery

d)

evacuation

25.

What is the maximum penalty for violating the Clean Air Act?

a)

$44,539 per day, per violation

b)

$4000 per day, per violation

c)

$4400 per violation

d)

$400 per day

26.

What international agreement addresses the protection of stratospheric ozone by phasing out production of ozone-depleting substances?

a)

Montreal Protocol

b)

Significant New Alternatives Policy (SNAP)

c)

Clean Air Act

d)

AHRI Standards

27.

Which of the following constitutes a violation of Section 608 of the Clean Air Act?

a)

Using recovery equipment that meets EPA standards

b)

Knowingly releasing or venting ozone depleting substances and substitute refrigerants

c)

Having a recovery device that is equipped with low loss fittings

d)

Keeping accurate records

28.

What year will all HCFCs be phased out by?

a)

2040

b)

2025

c)

2050

d)

2030

29.

What was the first group of refrigerants to get phased out under the Montreal Protocol?

a)

HCs

b)

CFCs

c)

HFOs

d)

HFCs

30.

What is the purpose of the Significant New Alternatives Policy (SNAP) program?

a)

To recover appliances

b)

To eliminate substitute refrigerants

c)

To restrict sales

d)

To identify, evaluate, and approve substitute refrigerants

31.

If a substance Has not been approved by the SNAP program can it be used to retrofit an existing system?

a)

NO

b)

YES

32.

CFCs and HCFCs can be:

a)

Used to service a system that contains those refrigerants

b)

Used in new equipment

c)

Easily purchased

33.

Which of the following is a good 'drop-in' replacement?

a)

There are no 'drop-in' replacements.

b)

R-12

c)

R-22

d)

R-1234yf

34.

What type of oil found in HFCs and HFOs cannot be mixed with oils in older systems?

a)

Alkylbenzene oils

b)

Polyolester (POE) oils

35.

What type of oil does an HCFC-based blend use?

a)

Ester-based oil

b)

POE oil

c)

Alkylbenzene oil

36.

HFC refrigerant blends use:

a)

Slkylbenzene oil

b)

Polyolester (POE) oil

c)

Synthetic alkylbenzene oil

37.

Which type of refrigerant blend acts like a single refrigerant with no temperature glide or fractionation?

a)

Non-azeotropic

b)

Zeotropic blends

c)

Azeotropic blends

38.

When is bubble point used?

a)

When charging by the condenser subcooling method

b)

When charging by the superheat method

c)

When finding the evaporator temperature

39.

What does fractionation mean?

a)

It refers to the range of temperatures a blend will evaporate and condense at

b)

The refrigerant is azeotropic

c)

The refrigerant is in two different containers

d)

The individual refrigerants in the blend may leak at different rates

40.

Refrigerants that evaporate and condense at a range of temperatures at a given pressure is the definition of:

a)

pressure ranging

b)

blend fractionation

c)

blend decomposition

d)

temperature glide

41.

When converting low side pressure to evaporator temperature, with an R400 series blend refrigerant, the technician should use which pressure value on the temperature pressure chart

a)

bubble point

b)

dew point

c)

take the average of the bubble and dew point values

42.

What is the most effective way to determine the general area of a leak?

a)

Use a recovery unit

b)

Use an electronic or ultrasonic leak detector

c)

Use a vacuum pump

d)

Nitrogen leak test

43.

After determining the general area of a leak, what can be used to pinpoint it?

a)

Laser

b)

Soap bubbles

c)

Vacuum pump

d)

Recovery unit

44.

What is the first issue a technician can look for when inspecting a refrigeration system known to be leaking?

a)

Excessive condensation

b)

Traces of oil around fittings

c)

Dust or dirt inside the machine

d)

Rat droppings

45.

Which process is defined as removing refrigerant (in any condition) and storing it in an external container to be put back in the same system?

a)

Reclaim

b)

Recover

c)

Recycle

46.

Which process is defined as cleaning the refrigerant by oil separation and passing it through one or more filter-driers?

a)

Recycle

b)

Recover

c)

Reclaim

47.

Which recovery device uses an active recovery unit to draw refrigerant from the appliance?

a)

Self contained

b)

System dependent

48.

Which process involves chemical analysis to determine if the refrigerant is back to new product specifications?

a)

Recover

b)

Reclaim

c)

Recycle

49.

Can all recovered refrigerants be mixed into the same container?

a)

YES

b)

NO

50.

Recovery efficiency will be dependent on which of the following?

a)

All of these

b)

Ambient temperature

c)

Size of the appliance

d)

Amount of moisture

51.

What will using long hoses during the recovery process result in?

a)

Increased pressure drop, decreased recovery time

b)

Decrease pressure drop, decreased recovery time

c)

Increased pressure drop, increased recovery time, and increased emissions

52.

Recovered refrigerant that is contaminated must be recovered into:

a)

A tank with other types of refrigerant in it

b)

A separate tank

c)

The same tank as the refrigerant that isn't contaminated

53.

What is the purpose of evacuation and dehydration?

a)

To improve the vacuum pump

b)

To add water and water vapor to the system

c)

To remove non condensibles (air) and water vapor

d)

To cause hydrofluoric acids to form

54.

The final system vacuum measurement should be done with:

a)

A multimeter

b)

The vacuum pump turned on

c)

The vacuum pump turned off

55.

What can form if water or water vapor is left in the system?

a)

hydrochloric and hydrofluoric acid

b)

ester-based oil

c)

hydrogen

d)

hydrocarbon

56.

How many microns should a system be evacuated to?

a)

50,000 microns

b)

5000 microns

c)

900 microns

d)

500 microns or lower

57.

What factors have an impact on evacuation speed and efficiency?

a)

Ambient temperature and the amount of moisture in the system

b)

All of these

c)

The size of the pump and pump intake pipe

d)

The size and extent of piping and coils

58.

A recovery cylinder should never be filled more than what percentage of its capacity by weight?

a)

90%

b)

80%

c)

95%

d)

100%

59.

Overfilling a recovery cylinder may result in...

a)

The transportation of too much refrigerant

b)

An explosion

c)

An overflow of liquid

d)

The tank becoming too heavy

60.

How often does a reusable container for refrigerant need to be hydrostatically tested?

a)

every 10 years

b)

every year

c)

every 8 years

d)

every 5 years

61.

What does an approved refrigerant recovery cylinder look like?

a)

It has a grey-colored top and a blue body.

b)

It has a green-colored top and a yellow body.

c)

It has a yellow-colored top and a purple body.

d)

It has a yellow-colored top and a grey body.

62.

How should refrigerant cylinders be transported?

a)

On their side and strapped into something

b)

Horizontally with a DOT classification tag

c)

Upside down with a DOT classification tag

d)

In an upright position with a DOT classification tag

63.

What protective equipment should a technician wear when filling refrigerant cylinders or using recovery equipment?

a)

Just safety glasses

b)

Safety glasses and protective gloves

c)

A protective outfit without gloves

d)

Rubber surgical gloves

64.

When checking for a leak what should a technician use to pressurize the system?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Compressed air

c)

Oxygen

65.

How should a pressure relief valve be installed on a nitrogen line, when using more than one?

a)

Always upside down

b)

Never parallel, always in series to each other

c)

Only parallel, never in series to each other

66.

When should a technician use a pressure regulator and a relief valve?

a)

When using nitrogen to check for leaks in a system

b)

When using water to check for leaks in a system

c)

When using compressed air to check for leaks in a system

d)

When using oxygen to check for leaks in a system

67.

What can refrigerants cause if inhaled in high concentrations?

a)

Asphyxia (suffocation)

b)

All of these

c)

Heart irregularities

d)

Unconsciousness

e)

Death

68.

In the event of a large release of refrigerant into a confined space, why should technicians (and everyone else) IMMEDIATELY vacate and ventilate the area?

a)

Because refrigerant will displace oxygen, causing suffocation

b)

Because refrigerant smells terrible

c)

Because refrigerant causes ozone depletion

69.

In the event of a large release of refrigerant into a confined space, what personal protective equipment (PPE) is required?

a)

A towel

b)

A mask designed to keep dust out

c)

Waterproof goggles

d)

A self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)