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JMC Foundation Course Test - 28/07/2023

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The circle that divides the day from night on the globe is called

a)

Orbital Plane

b)

Equator

c)

Circle of Illumination

d)

Axis

2.

The earth experiences both day and night at a time due to the

a)

Revolution of the earth

b)

Rotation of the earth

c)

Revolution of the moon

d)

Non of these

3.

What are the motions does earth have

a)

Rotation

b)

Revolution

c)

Both Rotation and Revolution

d)

None of the above

4.

If both the poles are not tilted towards the sun, then the sunlight falls directly above which latitude.

a)

Equator

b)

North Pole

c)

Tropic of Cancer

d)

Antarctic circle

5.

The earth moves around the sun in an/a

a)

Circular Orbit

b)

Rectangular Orbit

c)

Triangular Path

d)

Elliptical Orbit

6.

Full form of IST is

a)

Indian Special Time

b)

Indian Space Time

c)

Indian Standard Time

d)

International Standard Time

7.

Which zone lies near the poles?

a)

Temperate zone

b)

Frigid zone

c)

Torrid zone

d)

Equatorial zone

8.

The latitude which lies in 66.5° South is

a)

Arctic circle

b)

Tropic of cancer

c)

south pole

d)

Antarctic circle

9.

Which line divides the earth into Western Hemisphere and Eastern Hemisphere?

a)

Standard Meridian

b)

Equator

c)

Prime Meridian

d)

International Date Line

10.

Through which continent all the three important latitudes (Tropic of Cancer, Equator, Tropic of capricorn) passes through ( you can make use of atlas)

a)

Asia

b)

Africa

c)

South America

d)

Europe

11.

Grid is a network of

a)

Parallel of latitudes and Meridians of Longitudes

b)

The Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn

c)

The north pole and the south pole

12.

Which among the following is not the important parallels of latitudes?

a)

Antarctic Circle

b)

Tropic of Cancer

c)

Tropic of Cape town

d)

Arctic Circle

13.

The following imaginary lines represents

a)

Latitudes

b)

Longitudes

c)

Grid

d)

Globe

14.

The 66 12\frac{1}{2} Degree South represents which of the following latitudes?

a)

Tropic of Cancer

b)

Arctic Circle

c)

Antarctic Circle

d)

Equator

15.

What is the approximate time difference between the two extreme(west and east)boundaries of the Indian Country?

a)

1 Hour

b)

2 Hour

c)

3 Hour

d)

4 Hour

16.

One morning Udai and Vishal were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Vishal's shadow was exactly to the left of Udai, which direction was Vishal facing?

a)

South

b)

North

c)

West

d)

East

17.

Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z,   

     then in which direction of Y, is P?

a)

North  

b)

South  

c)

South-East  

d)

None of the given options

18.

A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After  

    walking 3 km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which  

    direction is he from the starting place?

a)

West  

b)

South  

c)

North-East

d)

South-West

19.

Rahul put his timepiece on the table in such a way that at 6 P.M.

    hour hand points to North. In which direction the hour hand will

    point at 9.15 P.M.?

a)

East

b)

South  

c)

North  

d)

West

20.

Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30m.

    Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m.  

    Finally, he turns left and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many

    metres is he from the starting position?

a)

15 m West

b)

30 m East

c)

30 m West

d)

45 m East

21.

Two cars start from the opposite places of a main road, 150 km apart. First   

    car runs for 25 km and takes a right turn and then runs 15 km. It then

    turns left and then runs for another 25 km and then takes the direction

    back to reach the main road. In the meantime, due to minor break down

    the other car has run only 35 km along the main road. What would be the

    distance between two cars at this point?

a)

65 km

b)

75 km

c)

80 km

d)

85 km

22.

Starting from the point X, Jayant walked 15 m towards west. He turned

     left and walked 20 m. He then turned left and walked 15 m. After this

     he turned to his right and walked 12 m. How far and in which

     directions is now Jayant from X?

a)

32 m, South

b)

47 m, East

c)

42 m, North

d)

27 m, South

23.

K is 40 m South-West of L. If M is 40 m South-East of L, then K is in

    which direction of M?

a)

East  

b)

West  

c)

North-East

d)

South

24.

A man walks 2 km towards North. Then he turns to East and walks 10km.

    After this he turns to North and walks 3 km. Again, he turns towards East

   and walks 2 km. How far is he from the starting point?

a)

10 km

b)

13 km

c)

15 km

d)

None of the given options

25.

The length and breadth of a room are 8 m and 6 m respectively. A cat runs

      along all the four walls and finally along a diagonal order to catch a rat.

      How much total distance is covered by the cat?

a)

10

b)

14

c)

38

d)

48

26.

From his house, Lokesh went 15 km to the North. Then he turned west and

      covered 10 km. Then he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to

      the east, he covered 10 km. In which direction is he from his house?

a)

East  

b)

West  

c)

North  

d)

South

27.

Sachin walks 20 km towards North. He turns left and walks 40 km. He

      again turns left and walks 20km. Finally, he moves 20 km after turning to

      the left. How far is he from his starting position?

a)

20 km

b)

30 km

c)

50 km

d)

60 km

28.

Sundar runs 20 m towards East and turns to right and runs 10 m. Then he

      turns to the right and runs 9 m. Again, he turns to right and runs 5 m. After

      this he turns to left and runs 12 m and finally, he turns to right and 6 m.

      Now to which direction is Sundar facing?

a)

East  

b)

West  

c)

North  

d)

South

29.

Radha moves towards South-East a distance of 7 km, then she moves

       towards West and travels a distance of 14 km. From here she moves

       towards North-West a distance of 7 km and finally she moves a distance

       of 4 km towards east. How far is she now from the starting point?

a)

3 km

b)

4 km

c)

10 km

d)

11 km

30.

Village Q is to the North of the village P. The village R is in the East of

       Village Q. The village S is to the left of the village P. In which direction is

       the village S with respect to village R?

 

a)

West  

b)

South-West

c)

South

d)

North-West

31.

Who was the Nawab of bengal during the year 1756 AD?

a)

Shuja-ud-daulah

b)

Shah Alam II

c)

Mir Jafar

d)

Siraj-ud-daullah

32.

French East India company started to build a fort at ___________ in bengal, which was stopped by the nawab of bengal.

a)

Calcutta

b)

Hoogly

c)

Chandranagar

d)

Odisha

33.

Who was the commander in chief of bengal in 1756 who was lured and bribed by the British East India Company?

a)

Mir Jafar

b)

Mir Qasim

c)

Shuja-ud-daula

d)

Siraj-ud-daulah

34.

Battle of Plassey took place in the year

a)

1756

b)

1757

c)

1764

d)

1760

35.

After making Mir Jafar as the nawab of bengal, british authority acquired a permanent control over which region ?

a)

26 -Pargana

b)

24 - Pargana

c)

23 - Pargana

d)

20 - Pargana

36.

Mir Qasim was replaced by the position of Mir Jafar as the Nawab of Bengal?

Mir Qasim was __________ of Mir jafar.

a)

Son

b)

Son in law

c)

Grandson

d)

Uncle

37.

Who was not the part of Battle of Buxar?

a)

Shuja ud daulah

b)

Siraj ud daulah

c)

Shah Alam II

d)

Mir Qasim

38.

Which among the following was not given to british by Mir Qasim after becoming Nawab of Bengal?

a)

Burdwan

b)

Midnapore

c)

Chittagong

d)

Chennai

39.

Who was the British officer who led the forces during the Battle of Buxar?

a)

Sir Robert Clive

b)

Major Hector Munro

c)

Major Patrick Lawrence

d)

Lord Wellesley

40.

Battle of Buxar end with the treaty of

a)

Allahabad

b)

Versallies

c)

Midnapore

d)

Tarain

41.

British East India Company took away _______ from Shuja-ud-daulah after the defeat in the battle of buxar?

a)

Bihar

b)

Allahabad

c)

Bengal

d)

Sikkim

42.

In 1765 Nizam-ud-daullah succeeded as the nawab of Bengal.

Who was the son of _________

a)

Mir Jafar

b)

Mir Qasim

c)

Siraj-ud-daulah

d)

Tippu Sultan

43.

Ruling of two authorities simultaneously over a same province is known as

a)

Double Ruling

b)

Dual Government

c)

Double jeopardy

d)

Multi Government

44.

Through which act Governor General of Bengal was introduced?

a)

Regulating Act 1770

b)

Regulating Act 1773

c)

Regulating Act 1883

d)

Regulating Act 1775

45.

British acquired Diwani Rights from Shah Alam II over which regions?

a)

Complete India

b)

Bihar, Bengal and Odisha

c)

Bihar, Bengal and Delhi

d)

Delhi, Bombay and Kolkata

46.

Which among the following is not a state?

a)

Goa

b)

Sikkim

c)

Delhi

d)

Manipur

47.

Identify the Personality.

a)

Rajnath Singh

b)

Amit Shah

c)

Piyush Goyal

d)

Jagdeep Dhankar

48.

Identify the personality.

a)

Udhayanidhi

b)

Arulnithi

c)

Kalanithi

d)

Anbil Mahesh

49.

Identify the location.

a)

Vekkaliamman Temple

b)

Brihadeeswara Temple

c)

Srirangam Temple

d)

Gangai konda Cholapuram Temple

50.

If a land is surrounded by water on all the sides then it is reffered as

a)

Island

b)

Peninsula

c)

Strait

d)

Bay

51.

What is the place value of 6 in 65489203?

a)

6 x 10510^5

b)

6 x 10410^4

c)

6 x 10710^7

d)

6 x 10810^8

52.

What is the face value of 7 in 942756?

a)

7

b)

700

c)

70

d)

7000

53.

Find the difference of the face values of 7 and 2
     in 210978.

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

5

54.

Find the sum of place value of 6 and face value
    of 9 in 927653.

a)

608

b)

508

c)

609

d)

501

55.

When 121011 is divided by 12, the remainder is

a)

0

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

56.

Which of the following is a prime Number?

a)

35

b)

53

c)

123

d)

90

57.

Find the remainder when 54 is divided by 17.

a)

5

b)

3

c)

2

d)

7

58.

What is the remainder in the expression 29 1526\frac{15}{26}

a)

29

b)

26

c)

15

d)

41

59.

The sum of the four consecutive even numbers
       is 284. What would be the smallest number?

a)

72

b)

74

c)

68

d)

66

60.

What number should be added to 231228 to
       make it exactly divisible by 33?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

61.

Find the dividend from the expression 41 519\frac{5}{19} .

a)

783

b)

784

c)

883

d)

894

62.

Find the dividend when divisor is 13, quotient is 30 and remainder is 10?

a)

402

b)

400

c)

410

d)

390

63.

25 ÷\div 5 x 5 + 5 - 5 =

a)

35

b)

30

c)

20

d)

25

64.

1331 ÷\div 11 + 7 x 8 - 2 =

a)

175

b)

120

c)

155

d)

177

65.

(90 x 10) ÷\div (10 x 90) + (2 x 2) 10010^0 =

a)

4

b)

5

c)

1

d)

0

66.

One who hates women is

a)

Misanthrope

b)

Misogamist

c)

Misogynist

d)

Ascetic

67.

If a person leads a simple life then he can be referred as

a)

Ascetic

b)

Philanthrope

c)

Egoist

d)

Altruist

68.

One who volunteers himself in helping others is referred as

a)

Ascetic

b)

Altruist

c)

Misanthrope

d)

Egotist

69.

Does an introvert pay much attention to himself?

a)

Yes

b)

No

70.

Are most normal people ambiverts?

a)

Yes

b)

No

71.

Who is supremely selfish?

a)

Egoist

b)

Egotist

c)

Altruist

d)

Ascetic

72.

Identify the degree.

Giraffe is the tallest animal in the world.

a)

Positive degree

b)

Comparative Degree

c)

Superlative Degree

d)

None of the given options

73.

Identify the degree.

Very few girls in the class are as short as Simran.

a)

Positive Degree

b)

Comparative Degree

c)

Superlative Degree

d)

None of the given options

74.

Convert into Positive degree.

Elephant is not bigger than Whale.

a)

Whale is not as big as Elephant.

b)

Whale is as big as Elephant.

c)

Whale is as bigger as elephant

d)

Whale is the biggest than the Elephant

75.

Identify the degree.

Reshma is taller than many other girls in the class.

a)

Positive degree

b)

Comparative Degree

c)

Superlative Degree

d)

None of the given options

76.

What is the meaning  of collective identity?

a)

Same ideas together

b)

Different ideas together

c)

Same ideas together & Different ideas together

d)

None of the given options

77.

_________ is the supreme law of land.

a)

Polity

b)

Constitution

c)

Parliament

d)

None of the given options

78.

Constitution  is  a _______ of basic rules and regulation for the people and the government.

a)

Book

b)

Note

c)

Document

d)

Copy

79.

Who are called as the people to make law? 

a)

Executive

b)

Legislature

c)

Judiciary

d)

Supreme court

80.

Sovereign is the

a)

Brotherhood

b)

Separation of state and religion

c)

Deciding for our own problem

d)

Legitimate power

81.

Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic and republic are the _______ of the Indian Polity.

a)

Objective

b)

Power

c)

Source

d)

Nature

82.

____________ can be created only within the limitations in constitution.

a)

Republic

b)

Law

c)

Parties

d)

None of the given options

83.

___________ is permanent and _____________ is temporary.

   

a)

State, law

b)

Government, law

c)

Government, state

d)

State, government

84.

Which of the following is correct

a)

Executive – to interrogate law

b)

Judiciary – to interrogate law

c)

Legislature – to implement law

d)

Legislature – to interrogate law

85.

Which of the following body is independent that the government cannot interfere?

a)

Statutory body

b)

Constitutional body

c)

Non-statutory body

d)

None of the given options

86.

What is the date of adoption of the constitution?  

a)

24th nov, 1949

b)

26th nov, 1946

c)

26th nov, 1949

d)

24th nov, 1946

87.

Republic meaning 

a)

Head of the state is hereditary

b)

Head of the state is not hereditary

c)

Independent of the state

d)

None of the above

88.

Fraternity meaning

a)

Fatherhood

b)

Motherhood

c)

Brotherhood

d)

None of the given options

89.

_____________ is the absence of constraint from the state. 

a)

Freedom

b)

Dignity

c)

Liberty

d)

Equality

90.

    
Unity is the _____________ of uniformity.

a)

Definition

b)

Opposite

c)

Meaning

d)

None of the given options

91.

A 'closed economy' is an economy, in which

a)

the money supply is fully controlled

b)

deficit financing takes place

c)

only export takes place

d)

neither export nor import take place

92.

Mixed economy means an economy where

a)

both agriculture and industry are equally promoted by the state

b)

there is co-existence of private sector along with the public sector

c)

there is importance of small scale industries along with heavy industries

d)

economy is controlled by military as well as civilian rules

93.

Consider the following statements regarding tertiary sector.

  1. 1. In the advanced developed economies, the tertiary sector is the largest in terms of production and employment.

  2. 2. Quaternary and quinary are not a parts of service sector.

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 2

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

94.

Which of the following statements regarding capitalist economy is not true?

a)

Capitalism is the economic system based on private or corporate ownership

b)

Capitalists favour the government interference in the economy

c)

Capitalism is characterized by competition in the market

d)

In capitalist economy, Market is free.

95.

Which one of the following statements regarding socialist economy is not correct?

a)

In this system, means of production is socially owned

b)

Socialist economy favours cooperative society

c)

It predominates in USA and Cuba

d)

It emphasised on meeting human needs instead of to create profits.

96.

Consider the following statements regarding macro economics

  1. 1. It is concerned with the overall economy works.

  2. 2. It studies employments, gross domestic product and inflation.

  3. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)

Only 1

b)

Only 2

c)

Both 1 and 2

d)

Neither 1 nor 2

97.

In which of the following types of economy, the resources of production are completely under control?

a)

Mixed economy

b)

Open economy

c)

Closed economy

d)

Command economy

98.

In which type of economy, resources for production are under private ownership and they make their decisions with the desire to maximize profits?

a)

Command economy

b)

Capitalist economy

c)

Free Market economy

d)

Mixed Economy

99.

In which type of economy, the consumers get everything within the economic borders and government acts as the arbitrator?

a)

Closed economy

b)

Open economy

c)

Capitalist economy

d)

Mixed economy

100.

An economy is said to be open economy if

a)

it has trade with other economies

b)

it has no trade area with other economies

c)

it has basically incorporates governmental involvement.

d)

none of the given options