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Nokia NRS I

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When configuring a static route on router R2, what next hop address should be used to reach a host on 192.168.1.0/27?

a)

10.1.1.1

b)

10.1.1.2

c)

10.2.3.2

d)

10.2.3.3

2.

What information is part of the encapsulation done at the
network interface layer?

a)

source and destination mac address

b)

source and destination port numbers

c)

source and destination ip address

d)

source and destination email address

3.

Which of the following is the physical infrastructure that
provides interconnections between ISPs?

a)

Demarcation

b)

Central Office

c)

Internet Exchange Point

d)

Point of Presence

4.

Which of the following is not a recommended usage
of the compact flashes on an Nokia 7750 SR?

a)

Using CF1 to store debug logs

b)

Using CF3 to store accounting logs

c)

Using CF2 to store debug logs

d)

Using CF3 to store system files

5.

Which of the following provides physical separation
between service provider and customer responsibilities?

a)

Provider edge router

b)

Demarcation Point

c)

Internet Exchange Point

d)

Point of Presence

6.

Which TCP/IP layer is responsible for path determination
and end-to-end forwarding of datagrams?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network Interface

7.

Which of the following shows a typical data packet flow
when egressing an Nokia 7750 SR?

a)

SF/CPM->MDA->IOM->SFP

b)

SF/CPM -> IOM -> MDA -> SFP

c)

Using CF 2 to store debug logs.

d)


Using CF 3 to store system files.

8.

Which of the following displays a hierarchical CLI command
structure at the current context level?

a)

show

b)

tree

c)

info

d)

help

9.

Which of the following is NOT a valid log destination in
an Nokia 7750 SR?

a)

Main

b)

Syslog

c)

Session

d)

Console

10.

Which one of the following log-IDs is typically reserved
for Network Management on an Nokia 7750 SR

a)

0

b)

99

c)

98

d)

100

11.

Which of the following is NOT a type of Layer 2 network?

a)

Point-to-point network

b)

Virtual private routed network

c)

Circuit-based network

d)

Shared network

12.

Which of the following is the physical infrastructure that
provides interconnections between ISPs?

a)

Demarcation point

b)

Internet Exchange Point

c)

Central Office

d)

Point of Presence

13.

Which of the following statements about SONET/SDH is
FALSE?

a)

SONET/SDH is a Layer-1 technology.

b)

SDH is used primarily in North America.

c)

The basic SONET frame is the STS-1.

d)

An STS-1 frame is exactly one third of an STM-1 frame.

14.

Which Ethernet frame field is found in the Ethernet
II frame header but NOT in the Ethernet 802.3 frame
header?

a)

Preamble

b)

Start Frame Delimiter

c)

Source address

d)

Type

15.

Which address type is used to send frames to all devices
in a Local Area Network?

a)

Anycast

b)

Multicast

c)

Broadcast

d)

Unicast

16.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a hub?

a)

It performs signal amplification.

b)

It replicates Ethernet frames across all ports except
the receiving port.

c)

It inspects Layer 2 frame headers.

d)

It operates in half-duplex mode.

17.

After all PCs in the below network have communicated
with each other, which interface will switch D populate in
its MAC FDB for PC1?

a)

1/1/1

b)

1/1/2

c)

1/1/3

d)

1/1/4

e)

1/1/6

18.

What happens when a switch receives an Ethernet frame
with an unknown source MAC address and a destination
MAC address of ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff?

a)

The destination MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB,
and the frame is discarded.

b)

The destination MAC address is saved in the MAC
FDB, and the frame is flooded to all ports except the
receiving port.

c)

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and
the frame is discarded.

d)

The source MAC address is saved in the MAC FDB, and the
frame is flooded to all ports except the receiving port.

19.

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the
components shown in the diagram. How many broadcast
and collision domains are on this LAN?

a)

2 broadcast domains, 7 collision domains

b)

2 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains

c)

3 broadcast domains, 7 collision domains

d)

3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains

e)

7 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains

20.

Which of the following statements about LAG is FALSE?

a)

It aggregates physical links between devices.

b)

It improves performance by increasing bandwidth between devices

c)

It provides point-to-point redundancy between
devices.

d)

It supports auto-negotiation on ports in the LAG.


21.

Which of the following protocols is used to prevent loops
in Ethernet networks?

a)

LAG

b)


STP

c)

ARP

d)

ICMP

22.

An 8-port Ethernet switch is configured with VLAN 100
on ports 1-4, and VLAN 200 on ports 5-8. What happens
when the switch receives a frame with an unknown
destination address on port 1?

a)

The switch will flood the frames on ports 1 to 4

b)

The switch will flood the frames on ports 2 to 4

c)

The switch will flood the frames on ports 5 to 8

d)

The switch will flood the frames on ports 2 to 8

23.

Which of the following statements about VLAN stacking is
FALSE?

a)

It allows a service provider to support customers that
use overlapping VLAN IDs.

b)

It increases the number of VLANs a service provider
can support.

c)

It increases the size of the VLAN ID field in the
Ethernet header.

d)

It allows a service provider to add another VLAN tag to
traffic.

24.

Which of the following is used to connect multiple
broadcast domains?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Router

d)

Repeater

25.

Which of the following IP header fields is used to
distinguish IPv4 from IPv6 traffic?

a)

Type of Service

b)

Version

c)

Identification

d)

Protocol

26.

Which of the following is NOT a Regional Internet Registry?

a)

ARIN

b)

IANA

c)

RIPE NCC

d)

AfriNIC

27.

Which of the following is a unicast address that is
assigned to two or more devices on the same network?

a)

Network

b)

Broadcast

c)

Anycast

d)

Multicast

28.

Which of the following about hierarchical IPv4 addressing
is FALSE?

a)

It cre ates a two-level address hierarchy.

b)

It increases the number of IP addresses available in
the Internet.

c)

It supports route summarization to reduce routing
table size.

d)

It supports subnetting to divide a network into smaller
networks.

29.

A network has an address of 206.47.132.0 and a network
mask of 255.255.254.0. How many subnetworks can be
created if each subnet network must have at least 25 hosts?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

30.

Which of the following is the broadcast address of the
network to which host 172.16.176.135/18 belongs?

a)

172.16.176.255

b)

172.16.191.255

c)

172.16.255.255

d)

172.255.255.255

31.

How many subnets can be created from network
138.120.140.0/22 if each subnet must support 126 hosts?

a)

4

b)

8

c)

16

d)

32

32.

Which of the following statements about a system IP
address on an Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

a)

It is a loopback address.

b)

It has a fixed prefix value of /32.

c)

It is manually configured by an operator.

d)

It is associated with the management port.

33.

Which of the following is a characteristic of route
aggregation?

a)

It summarizes subnet addresses into classful
addresses.

b)

It maps multiple private IP addresses into one public
IP address.

c)

It divides a network into multiple subnets.

d)

It reduces the number of route advertisements
within a network.

34.

What is the most specific aggregate prefix for the
following 3 subnets?

a)

134.234.123.0/25

b)

134.234.123.0/24

c)

134.234.123.128/24

d)

134.234.122.0/23

35.

Which of the following is NOT part of the IP forwarding
process?

a)

Perform longest match lookup for the destination
IP address.

b)

Perform MAC address learning.

c)

Push traffic through the switch fabric.

d)

Identify physical egress interface.

36.

Which DHCP message is used by a client to inform a
DHCP server that it accepts the assigned IP address?

a)

Discover

b)

Request

c)

OFfer

d)

Acknowledgement

37.

What type of message is an ARP response?

a)

Unicast message

b)

Broadcast message

c)

Anycast message

d)

Multicast message

38.

Which of the following statements about ICMP is TRUE?

a)

ICMP is used to resolve a MAC address for a given IP
address.

b)

ICMP messages are generated by Ethernet switches.

c)

ICMP messages are encapsulated within IP datagrams.

d)

ICMP relies on the CSMA/CD algorithm.

39.

Which of the following about the routing table on an
Nokia 7750 SR is FALSE?

a)

The routing table is maintained by the CPM.

b)

The routing table contains next-hop information.

c)

The routing table is used in the MPLS data plane.

d)

The routing table is used to construct a forwarding
table.

40.

Which of the following protocols is NOT used to build a
routing table?

a)

LPD

b)

OSPF

c)

BGP

d)

Static Routing

41.

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same
prefix. Which of the four routes will be installed in R5's
routing table?

a)

Routes learned from R1

b)

Routes learned from R2

c)

Routes learned from R3

d)

Routes learned from R4

42.

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same
prefix. Which of the four routes will be installed in R5's
routing table?

a)

Routes learned from R1

b)

Routes learned from R2

c)

Routes learned from R3

d)

Routes learned from R4

43.

Which of the following about a static route in an Nokia
7750 SR is FALSE?

a)

It is manually configured by an administrator

b)

It is preferred over dynamic protocols by default

c)

It changes dynamically if the topology changes

d)

It can be used for routing within the same
autonomous system

44.

Which of the following about an IP filter in an Nokia 7750
SR is FALSE?

a)

It is also known as an Access Control List (ACL).

b)

It is applied to all interfaces by default.

c)

It can be used to filter traffic based on IP addresses.

d)

It can be applied to egress traffic.

45.

Which of the following about the displayed IP filter on
an Nokia 7750 SR is TRUE?

a)

It discards traffic from network 1.2.3.0/24.

b)

It discards traffic to network 1.2.3.0/24.

c)

It discards all traffic except the traffic from network
1.2.3.0/24.

d)

It discards all traffic except the traffic to network
1.2.3.0/24.

46.

Which of the following about a router running a link state
routing protocol is FALSE?

a)

It uses an SPF algorithm to calculate the routing table.

b)

Route updates are driven by topology changes.

c)

It sends copies of the routing table to neighbor
routers.

d)

It has a view of the entire network topology.

47.

Which routing protocol uses hop count for path
selection?

a)

OSPF

b)

IS-IS

c)

RIPv2

d)

BGP

48.

Which of the following about the OSPF routing protocol
is TRUE?

a)

It is a distance vector protocl.

b)

It uses hop count to determine metric value.

c)

It uses SPF algorithm for route selection.

d)

It is used for routing between different autonomous
sytems.

49.

Which of the following is used by OSPF to identify the
most up-to-date routing information?

a)

Priority value in the Hello packet.

b)

Age in the Link State Advertisement.

c)

Master/slave status in the Database Description
packet.

d)

Sequence number in the Link State Advertisement

50.

Which of the following about BGP is FALSE?

a)

It is a link state Protocol

b)

It uses TCP sessions to establish BGP peering.

c)

It can be used for routing within an autonomous
sytem.

d)

It can be used for routing between autonomous
sytems.

51.

Which of the following about autonomous systems is FALSE?

a)

AS numbers can be assigned by RIRs.

b)

AS numbers can be assigned by ISPs.

c)

Private AS numbers are advertised on the Internet.

d)

eBGP is used between different autonomous systems.

52.

Which of the following is TRUE about a CE router that is
involved in a VPN service?

a)

is aware of the VPN services provided by the service
provider.

b)

It resides on the service provider premises.

c)

It connects to at least one PE router.

d)

It connects to at least one CE router.

53.

What is the function of a SAP?

a)

It provides a P device with service access.

b)

It provides a CE device with service access.

c)

It binds the service to an MPLS service tunnel.

d)

It binds the service to an MPLS transport tunnel.

54.

Which of the following about the service label is FALSE?

a)

The ingress PE device encapsulates customer data
with a service label.

b)

A service label identifies the service that data
belongs to.

c)

The egress PE device strips the service labels and
forwards unlabeled packets.

d)

A P device performs a service label swap operation.

55.

Which device adds MPLS labels to packets that enter
a service provider network?

a)

CE

b)

P

c)

ILER

d)

eLER

56.

Which device is the termination point of a Label Switched
Path (LSP)?

a)

ce

b)

p

c)

iLER

d)

eLER

57.

What operation is performed by an iLER when it receives
a packet?

a)

It pushes a new MPLS label and forwards the packet
to the next LSR.

b)

It swaps the MPLS albel and forwards the packet to
the next LSR.

c)

It forwards the packet to the next LSR without altering
the MPLS label.

d)

It pops the MPLS label and forwards the packet to
the next IP router.

58.

Which of the following devices performs a label swap
operation?

a)

LSR

b)

iLER

c)

eLER

d)

CE

59.

Which of the following about VPWS is FALSE?

a)

VPWS is a Layer 2 service.

b)

VPWS emulates a single leased line between two
locations.

c)

Each VPWS maintains a MAC FDB.

d)

VPWS customers do not have knowledge of the service provider network.

60.

Which of the following about VPLS is FALSE?

a)

VPLS is a Layer 2 service.

b)

VPLS emulates a switched Ethernet service.

c)

VPLS customers don't have knowledge of the service
provider network.

d)

Each PE maintains a VRF instance for each VPLS.

61.

What are the four layers of technology used in the TCP/IP protocol suite?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Internet

e)

Link Layer

62.

Match the following

a)

Powerful core IP/MPLS routing platform supports GE,10GE,40GE, 100GE, 400GE and 1T interfaces. Offers up to 96Tb/s capacity.

1.

7950 XRS

b)

Used for Access and Aggregatoin. Includes multiservice interfaces delivering Ethernet, TDM, ATM, Frame Relay, HDLC, and GPON

2.

7705 SAR

c)

Optimized for IP mobile transport, fixed-mobile convergence and datacenters. Well-suited for terabit-scale routing

3.

7250 IXR

d)

Powerful edge IP/MPLS routing platform supports GE, 10Ge, 40GE, 100GE and 400GE interfaces. Offers between 200 Gb/s and 288 Tb/s capacity.

4.

7750 SR

e)

Used for access, demarcation and cost-effective GE aggregation

5.

7210 SAS

63.

What are the main functions of the control plane?

a)

Support management functions

b)

Build the Forwarding Table

c)

Transmit User application traffic

d)

Handle Routing protocols messaging

64.

Select the log source that stores events not associated with any other event category​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Main
snmp
debug
change
65.

Select the log source that stores events generated due to debug commands. ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Main
snmp
debug
change
66.

How many default logs are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

67.

Match the following

a)

Contains all severity levels of events from the source main

1.

Log ID 99

b)

Typically reserved for SNMP mangement

2.

Log ID 98

c)

Pre-configured with NETCONF as the destination

3.

Log ID 101

d)

Contains events with severity levels of major or critical from the source main

4.

Log ID 100

68.

TiMOS-m.n.Yz contains the ​ software image named
according to the ​ (a)   ​ .​ (b)   .​ (c)   ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
major
minor
Type of release
version
69.

What does the bof.cfg NOT include?

a)

management address

b)

management port setting

c)

image and configuration files

d)

port configuration

70.

What types of mangement datastores does the Nokia 7750 SR have?

a)

Configuration

b)

Security

c)

System

d)

State

71.

Match the following

a)

both CLI engines are authorized, classic CLI is only allowed to read

1.

Model-driven Mode

b)

both CLI engines are authorized, either CLI engine can modify

2.

Mixed Mod

c)

Only the classic CLI engine is authorized

3.

Classic Mode

72.

What are the different configuration edit modes in MD-CLI

a)

Global

b)

Exclusive

c)

Admin

d)

Private

e)

Read-Only

73.

Which edit modes give you access to the global candidate configuration

a)

read-only

b)

exclusive

c)

private

d)

global

74.

What is FALSE about the differences between implicitly and explicitly editing?

a)

A user in implicit mode can move to a context outside the "configuration" branch

b)

A user in explicit mode must issue the quit-config command to exit configuration edit mode

c)

Both options allow users to move freely between contexts that have the "configure" command as its root

d)

A user in explicit mode can move to a context outside the "configuration" branch

75.

T/F With the configuration configure lag <lag-id> port-threshold value <threshold value> action down, if the number of available links is less than or equal to the threshold value, the LAG is declared operationally down until the number of available links is greater than the threshold value.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

T/F The cost of a LAG affects IGP and EGP cost.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

What are the functions of the Link Layer?

a)

establish a path between devices

b)

Encapsulation of upper-layer data

c)

unique addressing of physical interfaces

d)

orderly access of devices to use the physical medium

78.

What are the characteristics of Ethernet?

a)

allow collision-free transmission on point-to-point interfaces

b)

uses MAC addresses to identify devices on the networks

c)

all of the above

d)

uses a frame format including source and destination MAC address, type, upper-layer payload and frame check sequence

79.

What is CSMA/CD?

a)

Carrier sense multi access with carrier duplex

b)

Carrier sense media access with collision detection

c)

Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection

d)

Carrier sense mac address with collision deterrent

80.

When an Ethernet switch receives a packet what is added to the FDB?

a)

destination port

b)

src mac

c)

src port

d)

dest mac

e)

src and destion mac address and src and dest port

81.

What are the advantage of using VLANs in an Ethernet network?

a)

To decrease the amount of broadcast traffic and decrease network security

b)

To increase the amount of broadcast traffic and increase network administration

c)

To decrease the amount of broadcast traffic and increase network security

d)

To decrease the amount of broadcast traffic and decrease network administration

82.

What is the limit for the number of VLANs supported by a switch?

(a)  

83.

How many bits does an IPv4 address have?

(a)  

84.

Which characteristic of a distance vector protocol is FALSE?

a)

Frequent Periodic updates (slow convergence)

b)

Views the network topology from the neighbor's perspective

c)

Passes copies of routing table to neighboring routers

d)

The path with the highest hop count is the best path

85.

Two OSPF routers do not have matching MTU configurations. Which adjacency state will these routers be in?

(a)  

86.

Match the following

a)

L2 point-to-point service

1.

VPWS

b)

L2 multipoint service

2.

VPLS

c)

VPRN

3.

L3 multipoint service

87.

Which service componet on the PE router provides customer access to the service?

a)

SPD

b)

CE

c)

SAP

d)

Tunnel

88.

What type of transport tunnels are typically used to forward customer packets across the provider network?

(a)  

89.

Select the labels that are added to the customer data at the ingress PE router to support a VPN service?

a)

data

b)

headers

c)

service label

d)

transport label

90.

Which VPN service maintains a MAC FDB?

a)

VPN

b)

MPLS

c)

VPLS

d)

VPRN