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Worksheets

Honors biology Review

Total questions: 220

Worksheet time: 4hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the monomer of Carbohydrates

a)

Monosachharide

b)

Protein

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Amino Acids

2.

The building block for proteins

a)

Polysachharides

b)

Monosachharides

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Coffee

3.

Example of carbohydrates

a)

Twix

b)

Oils

c)

DNA

d)

RNA

4.

Proteins

a)

Enzymes

b)

Waxes

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Meat

5.

Which are not Lipids

a)

Candy

b)

Paper

c)

Orange

d)

Fats

6.

Examples of Nucleic Acids

a)

DNA

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

RNA

d)

Proteins

7.

Limiting Factors

a)

Water

b)

Space

c)

Predators

d)

Food

8.

Density-Depending Factors

(a)  

9.

Two Density-Independent factors are

a)
Natural disasters
b)
Human Activities
c)
Predation
d)
Parasitism
10.

What happens if the number of bleak increases?

a)

Everything stays the same

b)

Number of Perch increases

c)

Number of Perch decreases

d)

The number of Freshwater shrimp increases

11.

What is the function of amylase enzymes?

a)

Breaks down complex carbohydrates into simple sugars

b)

slows down digestion

c)

insulation

d)

stores genetic information

12.

What is carrying capacity?

a)

Increase the population

b)

Over-populate

c)

The maximum number of individuals of a particular species that the environment can support

d)

Decrease the number of species

13.

Which graph shows a 'J' curve?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Both

d)

Neither

14.
Pseudoscorpions often hitch rides on the backs of large beetles or true bugs. What is the ecological relationship?
a)
Mutualism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Parasitism
d)
Cooperation
15.

Which macromolecule is used as our main source of energy?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Nucleid Acids

c)

Lipid

d)

Protein

16.

The characteristics used to describe a population---( choose all the correct answers)

a)

geographic range

b)

population density

c)

growth rate

d)

age structure

17.

What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?

a)

1.9 million

b)

1.6 million

c)

1.25 million

d)

1.0 million

18.

This graph best represents which of the following?

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

19.

Energy pyramids describe food and energy relationships within an ecosystem. Which factor most likely limits the number of levels an energy pyramid can have?

a)

biomass of the top-level organisms

b)

predation by the top-level organisms

c)

energy loss between each level of organisms

d)

chemical energy being decomposed at each level of organisms

20.
Identify the cycle pictured.
a)
The Water cycle
b)
The Carbon cycle
c)
The Nitrogen cycle
d)
The Phosphorus cycle
21.
If the process of evaporation was unable to occur on Earth, what would we expect to happen?
a)
An increase in ocean levels and an increase in precipitation
b)
An increase in ocean levels and an decrease in precipitation
c)
An decrease in ocean levels and an increase in precipitation
d)
An decrease in ocean levels and an decrease in precipitation
22.
In what process is Carbon transformed into chemical energy?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Respiration
c)
Primary Production
d)
Secondary Production
23.
What is happening at 1?
a)
respiration: releasing CO2
b)
decomposing CO2 in the soil
c)
photosynthesis: absorbing CO2
d)
turning CO2 from the atmosphere into organic molecules
24.
All of the trees in the Amazon Rainforest are a(n)...
a)
organism
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
25.
The arrows in a food chain/web show the flow of...
a)
heat
b)
energy
c)
light
d)
strength
26.
What is the term for a 5th level consumer?
a)
secondary
b)
tertiary
c)
quaternary
d)
quinary
27.
Which of these is not considered to be abiotic?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
a diamond
c)
sand
d)
E. coli bacteria
28.
The Sahara Desert is an example of a(n)...
a)
organism
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
29.

What biome would this animal live in?

4 lines
30.
The most important abiotic factors when studying biomes are...
a)
Food and Water
b)
Water and Sunlight
c)
Temperature and Oxygen
d)
Water and Temperature 
31.

What sphere is being represented in this photo?

a)

Biosphere 

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Geosphere

d)

Atmosphere

32.

What sphere is being represented in this photo?

a)

Atmosphere

b)

Biosphere

c)

Geosphere

d)

Hyrdosphere

33.
The biome pictured is
a)
tundra
b)
desert
c)
tropical savanna
d)
temperate grassland
34.

What are the building blocks of lipids?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Glycerol

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Fatty acids

35.

What is carried on chromosomes?

a)

More chromosomes

b)

Genetic Material/DNA

c)

Enzymes

36.

T/F: All DNA replications processes have an origin

a)

Tralse

b)

True

c)

False

37.

4. The ocular lens of a microscope is another name for the

____________.

a)

eyepiece

b)

objective

c)

stage

d)

fine adjustment

38.

6. Which one of the following statements is not considered to be part of the cell theory?

a)

All living things are made up of cells.

b)

Cells only come from other cells.

c)

All cells are eukaryotic.

d)

The cell is the smallest, and basic, unit of life.

39.

5. Cells can vary in their......

a)

size.

b)

shape.

c)

function.

d)

All of the above.

40.

7. _______________ suggested that cells come from other cells.

a)

Mattias Schleiden

b)

Rudolf Virchow

c)

Walther Flemming

d)

Theodor Schwann

41.

9. ___________________ coined the term "cells" as it applies to living things.

a)

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

Mattias Schleiden

d)

Rudolf Virchow

42.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY: What structures does a plant cell have that an animal cell does not?

a)

cell wall

b)

chloroplasts

c)

mitochondria

d)

large, central vacuole

e)

nucleus

43.

Which organelle harnesses the sun's light energy and converts it into food for a cell?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

mitochondria

c)

nucleus

d)

large central vacuole

44.

Which organelle produces proteins?

a)

ribosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplasts

45.

Which organelles function is to digest and recycle old/broken down cell parts?

a)

lysosomes

b)

ribosomes

c)

mitochondria

d)

ER

46.

What are the 2 products of photosynthesis? The products are the things made in the process of photosynthesis.

a)

water, sunlight

b)

glucose, carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen, glucose

d)

sunlight, oxygen

47.

What are the 3 reactants of photosynthesis? The reactants are the things needed for photosynthesis to occur.

a)

oxygen, glucose, sunlight

b)

sunlight, oxygen, water

c)

water, oxygen, carbon dioxide

d)

carbon dioxide, sunlight, water

48.

Cellular Respiration occurs in what cell organelle?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

animal

49.
What are the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
glucose & carbon dioxide
b)
glucose & oxygen
c)
water & oxygen
d)
water & carbon dioxide
50.

Plant cells do not perform cellular respiration.

a)

True -- only animal cells perform cellular respiration

b)

False -- plant cells perform both photosynthesis and cellular respiration

51.
What is a disadvantage of fermentation as a process? 
a)
It produces too much ATP
b)
It only produces 2 ATP
c)
It occurs in the absence of oxygen
d)
It is only for quick bursts of energy
52.
Fermentation is cellular respiration without which molecule?
a)
CO2
b)
O2
c)
C6H12O6
53.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
54.

This image is an example of a phospholipid. Which part of a phospholipid is HYDROPHOBIC?

a)

the phosphate "head"

b)

the lipid "tails"

55.
When both inside and outside of a cell have the same amount of water it is said that the cell has reached a state of
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Equilibrium
56.
Small, non-polar molecules like CO2 and O2 and NO can pass through the cell membrane using what type of transport?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Facilitated Diffusion
d)
Endocytosis
57.
Facilitated diffusion is the movement of materials into and out of the cell
a)
with the use of energy
b)
with the use of proteins but no energy
c)
by moving water
d)
by using ATP
58.
Which form of transport is being shown in the diagram.
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
active transport
59.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
60.

An animal cell placed in a hypertonic solution will

a)

Stay the same

b)

Shrink- get smaller

c)

Swell- get bigger

61.
If you looked at red blood cells under a microscope and saw the blood cells exploded, what would you say happened?
a)
The cells were placed in a hypotonic solution.
b)
the solution was isotonic.
c)
The solution was hypertonic.
62.

What is a trait?

a)

an inherited feature that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its ecosystem

b)

a particular value for a character

c)

behaviors to help survive and reproduce

d)

internal, cellular responses to environment

63.

What is the primary function of photosynthesis?

a)

To convert sunlight into chemical energy

b)

To produce oxygen

c)

To convert carbon dioxide into glucose

d)

To generate heat energy

64.

Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells?

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

mitochondria

65.

What is the primary function of cellular respiration?

a)

To store energy as glucose

b)

To convert glucose into ATP

c)

To break down proteins

d)

To produce carbon dioxide

66.

Which organelle is responsible for cellular respiration in eukaryotic cells?

a)

endoplasmic reticulum

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleus

67.

What is the formula for cellular respiration?

a)

6CO2+6H2O+Light Energy-->C6H12O6+6O2

b)

6CO2+6H2O+ATP-->C6H12O6+6O2

c)

C6H12O6+6O2-->6CO2+6H2O+Light Energy

d)

C6H12O6+6O2-->6CO2+6H2O+ATP

68.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + Sugar
b)
CO2 + sugar + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + Sugar
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
69.

What is the role of animals in the carbon cycle?

a)

Animals contribute to carbon sequestration through deforestation.

b)

Animals play no role in the carbon cycle.

c)

Animals only release carbon dioxide through respiration.

d)

Animals release carbon dioxide through respiration and decomposition, and contribute to carbon sequestration through biomass formation and plant consumption.

70.

This is the cell organelle called a Mitochondria, it is commonly referred to as the powerhouse of the cell. What cells can you find it in?

a)

Animal Cells Only

b)

Plant Cells Only

c)

Both Plant and Animal Cells

d)

Bacteria Cells Only

71.

Root cells in plants have a higher need for _______ because are underground and have no access to light.

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

all of these

72.

The products of cellular respiration are

a)

Water, Carbon Dioxide, and Glucose

b)

Water, Carbon Dioxide, and ATP (energy)

c)

Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, and ATP (energy)

d)

Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, and Water

73.

Why are plants considered autotrophs

a)

They make their own food

b)

They provide food for others

74.

What two forms of energy are produced from the light-dependent reaction?

a)

Energy and water

b)

ATP and ADP

c)

ATP and NADPH

d)

NADP and NADPH

75.

Why do some leaves turn from green to red, orange, or yellow in the fall?

a)

Chlorophyll breaks down and its stored

b)

Chlorophyll production increases

c)

Chlorophyll leaks out of the leaves

d)

Chlorophyll changes colors in cool weather

76.

Why does chlorophyll make plants appear green?

a)

Reflecting all colors expect green

b)

Absorbing all colors and reflecting back green

c)

Not absorbing any colors

d)

Leaves aren't green, what do you mean?!

77.

What occurs in the Calvin Cycle of photosynthesis?

a)

nothing happens there is no energy

b)

glucose is synthesized from CO2

c)

Oxygen is being converted into sugar

78.

Where does the ETC get the resources it needs to carry out its processes? (Choose all that apply)

a)

glycolysis

b)

Krebs

c)

photosynthesis

d)

mitosis

79.

What are the high energy molecules the ETC uses as reactants? (Choose all that apply)

a)

FADH2

b)

NADH

c)

ADP

d)

ATP

80.

Each NADH produces how many ATP?

(a)  

81.

Most ATP is produced in which step?

a)

glycolysis

b)

etc

c)

Krebs

82.

What is the process that releases energy by breaking down glucose and other food molecules in the presence of oxygen?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

fermentation

c)

cellular respiration

d)

glycolosis

83.

What is a process that does not require oxygen?

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

84.

What is a process that requires oxygen?

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

85.

What is the first set of reactions in cellular respiration in which a molecule of glucose is broken into tow molecules of pyruvic acid?

a)

Krebs Cycle

b)

fermentation

c)

glycolysis

d)

electron transport chain

86.

What is the second stage of cellular respiration in which pyruvic acid is broken down into carbon dioxide in a series of energy-extracting reactions?

a)

Krebs Cycle

b)

fermentation

c)

glycolysis

d)

electron transport chain

87.

What is the third stage of cellular respiration in which high-energy electrons are carried by NADH and FADH2 to change ADP to ATP?

a)

Krebs Cycle

b)

fermentation

c)

glycolysis

d)

electron transport chain

88.

What is the process by which cells release energy in the absence of oxygen?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

fermentation

c)

cellular respiration

d)

glycolosis

89.

Which process can occur in both mitosis and meiosis?

a)

fertilization

b)

independent assortment

c)

gene mutation

d)

crossing over

90.

Gametes produced by an organism contain a combination of genes from that organism. In

every gamete, this combination is —

a)

the same because it is created from the same DNA

b)

the same because chromosomes are copied prior to meiosis

c)

different due to DNA replication prior to mitosis

d)

different due to independent assortment during meiosis

91.

Crossing-over between nonsister chromatids during meiosis is significant in heredity. This

process most likely leads to an increase in which of the following?

a)

The expression of dominant traits

b)

Number of gametes

c)

The occurrence of polyploidy

d)

Genetic variation

92.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to

ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has —

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

93.

Sexual reproduction in animals depends on the production of gametes. Which of these

processes produces gametes in animals?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Fertilization

c)

Meiosis

d)

Binary fission

94.

Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?

a)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have triple the chromosome number of the organism.

b)

It allows gametes to have twice the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

c)

It allows gametes to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

d)

It allows the zygote formed from fertilization to have half the original number of chromosomes of the organism.

95.

Which process produces the most variation within a species?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

mitosis

d)

cloning

96.

Which characteristic is present in offspring produced by sexual reproduction, but is missing in offspring produced by asexual reproduction?

a)

an identical copy of parent chromosomes

b)

twice the number of parent chromosomes

c)

only half the number of parent chromosomes

d)

an independent assortment of parent chromosomes

97.

How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different?

a)

Sexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but asexual reproduction produces offspring with traits from both parents.

b)

Asexual reproduction produces offspring identical to the parents, but sexual reproduction produces offspring with traits from both parents.

c)

Sexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but asexual reproduction only occurs in unicellular organisms.

d)

Asexual reproduction only occurs in multicellular organisms, but sexual reproduction only occurs in unicellular organisms.

98.

Which combination of alleles represents the same phenotype but different genotypes?

a)

Aa & AA

b)

Aa & aa

c)

AA & aa

d)

Aa & Aa

99.

F represents the gene for shaggy fur in dogs and f represents the gene for short fur. A breeder crosses a homozygous shaggy-haired dog with a short-haired dog. Which of the following represents the genotypes of these parents?

a)

FF x ff

b)

FF x Ff

c)

Ff x Ff

d)

Ff x ff

100.

Which inheritance pattern is displayed in this example: A white flower mates with a red flower to produce a pink flower.

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete

dominance

c)

dominance

101.

Some organisms reproduce asexually. Bacteria in soil is an example. Select the two statements that describe an advantage of asexual reproduction.

a)

Two parents are needed

b)

Only one parent is required

c)

Sex cells are formed by meiosis

d)

Offspring have identical successful traits in a stable environment

e)

Genetically diverse offspring are produced

102.

Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous?

a)

Bb

b)

BB

c)

bb

d)

B

e)

b

103.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
104.
Meiosis results in the production of
a)
2 diploid cells
b)
2 haploid cells
c)
4 haploid cells
d)
4 diploid cells
105.
Identify the phase of mitosis
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
106.
In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell ______.
a)
Grows
b)
Rests
c)
Replicates DNA
d)
Divides
107.
What phase of mitosis is occuring in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Telophase
108.
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
109.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
nondisjunction
b)
mitosis
c)
independent assortment
d)
crossing over
110.

Which phase in meiosis is where homologous chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?

a)

anaphase 1

b)

metaphase 1

c)

metaphase 2

d)

interphase

111.

Which phase of meiosis is where 4 haploid (n) daughter cells form?

a)

telophase 2

b)

prophase 1

c)

metaphase 2

d)

cytokinesis

112.

Which phase of meiosis is where sister chromatids separate from each other?

a)

metaphase 2

b)

anaphase 2

c)

telophase 2

d)

prophase 2

113.

Which phase of meiosis is where crossing-over (if any) occurs?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

prophase 1

d)

prophase 2

114.

Which phase of mitosis is where the nucleolus disappears and the nuclear envelope breaks down?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

115.

Which phase of meiosis is this? (hint: homologous chromosomes have separated and you are left with 2 haploid cells)

a)

prophase 2

b)

metaphase 2

c)

anaphase 2

d)

telophase 2

116.

This is an ATP molecule. What occurs that provides energy to an organism from this ATP molecule?

a)

a bond forms to connect a fourth phosphate to an ATP molecule

b)

a bond that connects the adenine to the ribose sugar is broken

c)

a bond forms between one ATP molecule and another one

d)

a bond that connects one of the phosphates is broken

117.

Why do cells need both tRNA and mRNA?

a)

Only mRNA can be used to repair mistakes in the DNA sequence.

b)

Only tRNA bends into a shape that can carry specific amino acids

c)

The tRNA in used on the ribosomes and the mRNA is used in the nucleus

d)

The mRNA brings information to the nucleus for the tRNA to use.

118.

Look at the cross section of a cell membrane of a eukaryotic cell. H+ ions are being pumped from

a low concentration to a high concentration.

How do you describe this type of transport across the cell membrane?

a)

Active transport

b)

Passive transport

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

d)

Co-transport

119.

How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other?

a)

sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires

only one parent

b)

asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires

only one parent

c)

mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproduction

d)

asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms

120.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

crossing over

d)

active transport

121.

What carries the instructions for making amino acids in a protein?

a)

the nitrogen base on the tRNA

b)

the hydrogen bonding between nitrogen bases

c)

the sequence of nitrogen bases on the mRNA

d)

the nitrogen base bonding on the DNA molecule

122.

Diffusion of a molecule can only occur if which statement is true?

a)

The cell has a DNA sequence that codes for that molecule

b)

There is a need for that molecule inside the cell's cyotoplasm

c)

That molecule is large and polar

d)

There is a higher concentration of that molecule on one side of the plasma membrane than the other

123.

Stage in the cell cycle where the cell’s nuclear material duplicates…

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

Synthesis

d)

Mitosis

124.

The ___________ pulls the sister chromatids apart during mitosis or meiosis 2

a)

kinetochore

b)

cell plate

c)

spindle fibres

d)

centromere

125.
The organelle that helps in cell division and produces spindle fibers.
a)
Chromosome
b)
Centriole
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Chloroplast
126.
Identify the stage of the cell cycle while looking at the picture.
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
127.

Cytokinesis is the first stage of mitosis.

a)

True

b)

False

128.
What stage is taking place?
a)
Interphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
129.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
130.
Structure B is pointing to the _____. 
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
131.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
132.

Identify letter "a" in the image.

a)

prophase

b)

G1

c)

interphase

d)

telophase

133.

Identify the following stage of the life cycle of the cell in the picture.

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

134.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
135.

Which checkpoint involves ensuring all DNA has been replicated and "no" errors exist?

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

M

d)

S

136.
Which structures are indicated by the green arrows?
a)
sister chromatids
b)
chromosomes
c)
spindle fibers
d)
centrioles
137.
Cytokinesis happens at the end of mitosis. That is when
a)
the cell membrane splits
b)
the nucleus splits again
c)
the chromosomes merge
138.

Which phase of meiosis is shown in the picture?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Telophase I

d)

Telophase II

139.

True or False: Crossing-over also happens in Meiosis II.

a)

True

b)

False

140.

What effect does crossing over has in terms of traits of offspring?

a)

Results in identical traits of offsprings.

b)

Causes variation in the traits of offsprings.

c)

It really does nothing to the traits of offspring.

141.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

142.

All sperm and egg cells are genetically identical.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

143.

The term that refers to a cell that has its full or complete number of chromosomes is

a)

diploid

b)

N

c)

gamete

d)

haplpoid

144.

How many times does a sex cell undergo mitosis?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

145.

At the end of meiosis, how many complete/operational sex cells are created for each original cell?

a)

2 for males; 2 for females

b)

1 for males; 4 for females

c)

4 for males; one for females

d)

1 for males; 1 for females

146.

How many TOTAL steps are there in the process of meiosis?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

147.

Crossing over happens when part of the genetic information of one chromosome switches places with the genetic information from another chromosome. Another term for this process is

a)

genetic recombination

b)

genetic reduction

c)

a mutation

d)

nondisjunction

148.

What is another term for body cells?

a)

somatic cells

b)

gamete

c)

stem cell

d)

neural cell

149.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
150.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
151.

The Process of creating RNA from DNA

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

152.

In RNA the base T is replaced with

a)

U

b)

G

c)

C

d)

A

153.

What combines together to make a protein?

a)

Amino Acid

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

DNA

154.

What is the order for Protein Synthesis?

a)

Transcription -> Translation -> Protein

b)

Translation - > Transcription -> Protein

c)

Protein -> Transcription -> Translation

d)

Translation -> Protein -> Transcription

155.

What organelle is the site of translation?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

156.
Which type of RNA takes the instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA polymerase
157.

Carries the amino acid used to make a protein

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

158.

What type of RNA is shown in this image?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

159.

What do we call the shape a DNA molecule takes?

a)

double-stranded

b)

double helix

c)

sugar-phosphate backbone

d)

pentagon

160.
A portion of mRNA is coded CUG. The corresponding DNA is coded
a)
GAC
b)
GTC
c)
CTG
d)
CAG
161.
This cannot leave the nucleus
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
162.

Contains the bases adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G) and cytosine (C)

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Both

163.
Deoxyribose is the sugar present in the nucleotide
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
164.

Contains the bases adenine (A), uracil (U), cytosine (C) and guanine (G)

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Both

165.

What are the three parts that make up a nucleotide?

a)

Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogenous base

b)

Sugar, phosphate, hydrogen bond

c)

Phosphate, base, hydrogen bond

d)

sugar, base, hydrogen bond

166.

Which base is NOT found in RNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Adenine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Guanine

167.

Which base is NOT found in DNA?

a)

Uracil

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

168.

According to Chargaff's Rule, Cytosine pairs with

a)

Uracil

b)

Thymine

c)

Adenine

d)

Guanine

169.

According to Chargaff's Rule, in DNA Adenine pairs with

a)

Uracil

b)

Thymine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Guanine

170.

Which enzyme is responsible for separating the strands of DNA during replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

171.

Which type of RNA determines the order of amino acids in a polypeptide?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

172.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding new bases during transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Ligase

173.

What is the purpose of a ribosome?

a)

To make more DNA

b)

To make mRNA

c)

To make amino acids

d)

To make polypeptides

174.

A codon is found on which type of RNA molecule?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

175.

An anticodon is found on which type of RNA molecule?

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

176.

All mutations are bad.

a)

True

b)

False

177.

Which type of point mutation will NOT result in a frameshift?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

Substitution

d)

Inversion

178.

All genes are turned on in all cells at all times.

a)

True

b)

False

179.

Mendel discovered the pattern of...

a)

Complete Dominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Codominance

d)

Partial Dominance

180.

A brown snake and a yellow snake are crossed, resulting in all brown offspring. Color in these snakes most likely follows which inheritance pattern?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Complete Dominance

181.

This type of dominance is ........................... because the heterozygote shows a phenotype that is .............................. .

a)

co-dominance, blended

b)

co-dominance, equal

c)

incomplete dominance, blended

d)

incomplete dominance, equal

182.

In a cross between a white and red what is the probability of a pink offspring?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100

183.

The red and white camellia flower below is an example of which type of dominance?

a)

Complete Dominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Codominance

184.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

185.

What do you call the inheritance pattern that states that neither trait is dominant and the traits appear to blend together?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete Dominance

186.

In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to white fur (b). According to the Punnett square shown, the offspring in box 4 would:

a)

be white.

b)

be heterozygous.

c)

be gray.

d)

be homozygous.

187.

In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to white fur (b). According to the Punnett square shown, how many offspring would be black?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

188.

The following items are examples of __________.

Items: eye color, hair color, height

a)

homozygous alleles

b)

genotype

c)

heterozygous alleles

d)

phenotype

189.

The physical expression of a genetic trait is called a

a)

mutation

b)

genotype

c)

crossing over

d)

phenotype

190.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
191.
 Dominant alleles are-
a)
capital
b)
lowercase
c)
both
d)
neither
192.
 Recessive alleles are-
a)
capital
b)
lowercase
c)
both
d)
neither
193.
Which of the following is a genotype?
a)
long hair
b)
blue eyes
c)
Gg
d)
tall
194.

True or False. A mutation in DNA will cause a change in the amino acid

a)

True

b)

False

195.

A mutation ____

a)

An alteration of a protein

b)

An alteration of mRNA

c)

Is a change in an organism's genetic information

d)

Causes adverse effects

196.

True or False. A mutation in DNA can occur in any type of cell.

a)

True

b)

False

197.

Point mutations can result in all of the following, except for __

a)

No Change

b)

Early Stop

c)

All amino acids change

d)

Single amino acid change

198.

The tRNA anticodon for the mRNA codon UGA is ______

a)

TGA

b)

AGT

c)

TCU

d)

ACU

199.

A trait or change in lifestyle that helps a plant or animal survive in its environment

a)

adaptation

b)

evolution

c)

homologous

d)

vestigial

200.

A sudden change in the genes of an organism. It can cause abnormal physical traits.

a)

fossil

b)

extinction

c)

mutation

201.

a trait that gives an organism an advantage in their particular environment

a)

overproduction

b)

adaptation

c)

selection

d)

variation

202.

Evolution is

a)

the change in the genetic makeup of a population over successive generations

b)

the variation in genetic makeup or alleles within a population

203.

Hunters killed elephants with tusks resulting in more tuskless elephants. The hunters were the ___ pressure changing the population

a)

Selective

b)

Unusual

c)

Usual

d)

exceptional

204.

Forces in the environment that result in a change in the population.

a)

Selective Pressure

b)

Evolution

c)

Niche Partitioning

205.
Which of the following is a factor in natural selection?
a)
Individuals of species compete with one another to survive.
b)
All species are genetically diverse.
c)
Individuals better able to adapt to changes leave more offspring.
d)
All are correct 
206.
Individuals that are better able to cope with the challenges of their environment tend to  
a)
Decrease in population over time.
b)
Leave more offspring than those less suited to the environment.
c)
Leave fewer offspring than those less suited to the environment.
207.

Scientist that presented evidence that evolution happens and gave an explanation of how it happens:

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Robert Hook

d)

James Watson

e)

Francis Crick

208.

A change in the inherited characteristics of a population (species) over time is called:

a)

evolution

b)

protein synthesis

c)

karyotyping

d)

pedigree analysis

209.

Structures that are embryologically similar, but have different functions are called:

a)

analogous structures

b)

equivalent structures

c)

dissimilar structures

d)

homologous structures

210.

Bones or organs in an animal that have no apparent function but does have a function in another similar animal (examples: snakes have tiny pelvic and limb bones and humans have a tail bone) are called:

a)

homologous structures

b)

embryonic structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

analogous structures

211.

Which process is not associated with microevolution:

a)

natural selection

b)

migration

c)

extinction

d)

mutation

212.

Biological fitness is defined as __________.

a)

the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce

b)

the average life span of an organism

c)

the amount of energy an organism can use in the environment

d)

the average life span of an organism

213.

Which of the following is NOT an example of evolution?

a)

Over many generations, wild teosinte has become corn.

b)

When the Grand Canyon formed, it geographically divided a squirrel population into two populations, which developed into distinct species.

c)

A frog begins its life as a tadpole, but becomes an amphibian.

d)

Finches in the Galapagos islands have diversified over time into many species each well-suited for eating a particular type of food.

214.

The wings of a bird and the wings of a beetle are considered __________.

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

phylogenetic structures

215.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?

a)

Without mutations, there would be no evolution

b)

Mutations create diversity among life-forms

c)

Mutations are the source of new phenotypes

d)

Mutations happen when there is a need for a new trait in a population

216.

Which of the following is evidence of a common ancestor?

a)

Vestigial structures

b)

Fossil record

c)

Similarities in the embryo

d)

All of these

217.

Which of the following is one of Charles Darwin’s theories about evolution and natural selection?

a)

The environment in which a species lives is unrelated to natural selection

b)

New species that appear in the fossil record are actually descendants of older species

c)

Natural selection is caused by human intervention 

d)

Changes to an organism occur rapidly

218.

Producing more for a larger variety of that type of organism is known as

a)

embryology

b)

overproduction

c)

competition

d)

survival of the fittest

219.

Darwin was most fascinated by the...

a)

Polynesian Archipelago

b)

Galapagos Islands

c)

Andes Mountains

d)

Congo Jungles

220.
Changes in a species over a long period of time
a)
speciation
b)
adaptation
c)
evolution
d)
fitness

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