wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MEDICAL LABORATORY TECHNICAL COURSE HOSPITAL BENTONG 2023

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The following are desired criteria for IQC material EXCEPT:

a)

Levels of IQC should span the clinically relevant concentrations of the analyte.

b)

Convenient size of aliquots/vials can be prepared.

c)

   IQC material should NOT mimic the composition of patient samples.

d)

Ready to use and require minimum preparation

2.

The following are true regarding assigning an IQC range EXCEPT:

a)

Initially, a minimum of 20 data points, ideally from 20 separate days should be used.

b)

Values should be reviewed once data from longer-term stable operation has been obtained

c)

The acceptable range of IQC values (2SD/3SD, etc) should be determined based on the required quality of the assay

d)

Failed IQC values should be excluded from the cumulative data.

3.

  The following are examples of RANDOM error EXCEPT:

a)

      Pipetting error

b)

Reagent lot bias

c)

Electrical interference

d)

Detector variation

4.

The 2015 Milan Mandated Quality Hierarchy includes which of the following:

a)

Goals based on analytical performance related to clinical outcomes

b)

  Goals based on biological variation

c)

     Expert group opinions

d)

   EQA/PT goals

5.

      What is the formula for calculating sigma metric?

a)

  (TEa/Bias) – CV

b)

(TEa – CV) / Bias

c)

    TEa / (Bias –CV)

d)

   (TEa – Bias) / CV

6.

    The sigma metric can be used to:

a)

  Identify assays that require improvement (and those that do not)

b)

Define the required quality of an assay

c)

  Determine the optimal IQC rules for an assay

d)

Provide guidance on the frequency of IQC required

7.

     The appropriate reaction to an IQC rejection should be to:

a)

stop analysis & troubleshoot the problem

b)

   correct the error

c)

document the error that occurred and the corrective actions taken

d)

document the error that occurred and the corrective actions taken

8.

     The formula for Reference Change Value (RCV) is:

a)

21/2 Z (CVA2 + CVI2)1/2

b)

   3.77 * (CVA2 + CVI2)1/2

c)

  21/2 Z (CVA12 + CVA22)1/2

d)

3.77 * (CVA12 + CVA22)1/2

9.

      The following are characteristics of Moving Average QC:

a)

Continuous QC monitoring

b)

Risk of non-commutability

c)

    Multiple QC levels

d)

Controls pre-analytical & analytical phases

10.

     The following are TRUE regarding IQC within a laboratory network:

a)

    Protocols need to be standardised, including IQC material used, frequency of IQC and how target and range values are assigned.

b)

Liaison with the manufacturer is required to coordinate reagent and IQC lot changes across sites

c)

    Variation in assay performance is completely eliminated when the same analysers and methods are used across different sites.

d)

     Regular review of assay performance across the network is required to ensure assay quality classifications remain appropriate.

 

11.

Which of the following analyte(s) is/ are affected by haemolysis? Select all that applies.

a)

Potassium

b)

Total Protein

c)

Lactate dehydrogenase

d)

Albumin

12.

What factor(s) contribute(s) to gelatinous serum in BD Vacutainer® SST™ II Advance tube? Select all that applies.

a)

Centrifugation setting at 1300g for 10 minutes

b)

Insufficient mixing of tube during blood collection

c)

Leaving the tube for 20 minutes to clot before centrifugation

d)

Physical check on the sample for complete clotting

13.

Which of the following statement(s) is/ are true regarding tube clotting time?

a)

Shorter clotting time will cause fibrin formation.

b)

If fibrin is observed in the tube, sample can be left in the tube and recentrifuged once clotting is completed.

c)

The clotting time is the same of all patients irregardless of their clinical history

d)

The clotting time is standardized across all types of tubes irregardless of presence of gel and type of additive.

14.

Which parameters will be affected by underfilled BD Vacutainer® EDTA tube?

a)

WBC B. PLT C. RBC D. MCV

b)

PLT

c)

RBC

d)

MCV

15.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding BD Vacutainer® Citrate tube?

a)

Underfilled tubes may cause prolongation in clotting time

b)

Overfilled tubes may cause shortened clotting time

c)

The acceptable fill volume according to CLSI guideline is ± 10% of nominal fill volume.

d)

The fill indicator on the tube represents the nominal fill volume. Fill volume of sample slightly below the line is acceptable.

16.

Verification / performance check frequency for micropipette?

a)

3 Months

b)

6 Months

17.

What is Calibration?

a)

is a set of operations which establish, under specified conditions , the relationship between values indicated by measuring instrument or measuring system, or value represented by a material measure, and the corresponding known values of a measurand

b)

is a set of operations which can be performed at any condition by anyone

18.

What is performance check?

a)

is a measurement of at least 5 points in a range of a measuring instrument or systemor material against a known value to confirm that it has not deviated significantly from its original calibrated value.

b)

is a measurement of at least 10 points in a range of a measuring instrument or systemor material against a known value to confirm that it has not deviated significantly from its original calibrated value.

c)

is a measurement of at least one point in a range of a measuring instrument or systemor material against a known value to confirm that it has not deviated significantly from its original calibrated value.

d)

is a measurement of at least 3 points in a range of a measuring instrument or systemor material against a known value to confirm that it has not deviated significantly from its original calibrated value.

19.

Atleast how many temperature points need to be tested for thermometer verification?

a)

1 point

b)

2 points

20.

Allowable tolerance limit for Timer is +/-5second. Yes or No?

a)

Yes

b)

No

21.

IQC for a period of time provide a realistic estimate of random or systemic error?

a)

Random

b)

Systemic

22.

A reading of 5 g/L and 8 g/L with MU of +- 3g/L. Is both results the same or significantly different?

a)

Significantly different

b)

Same

23.

A reading of 6 g/L with cutoff of 4 g/L and MU of +-4 g/L. Is the result below cutoff, above cut off or undetermine?

a)

Below cutoff

b)

Above cut off

c)

Undetermine

24.

What is the formula for standard expanded uncertainty?

a)

U = SD x 4

b)

U = SD x 3

c)

U = SD

d)

U = SD x 2

25.

Where do we get our TEa biological variation?

26.

What should you do when you failed your MU?

a)

identify components of total analytical error and assessed opportunities to minimize or consider change of step/method

b)

reduce or lower the TEa

c)

remove accepted but deviated IQC data and recalulate again

27.

WHAT IS THE FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLE ON WHICH CENTRIFUGES OPERATE?WHAT IS THE FUNDAMENTAL PRINCIPLE ON WHICH CENTRIFUGES OPERATE?

a)

Electromagnetic induction

b)

Centrifugal force

c)

    Frictional force

d)

   Magnetic attraction

28.

WHY IS IT IMPORTANT TO PROPERLY BALANCE THE SAMPLES IN A CENTRIFUGE ROTOR?

a)

    To prevent spills

b)

   To ensure accurate temperature control

c)

To avoid vibration and uneven separation

d)

    To reduce power consumption

29.

WHAT IS THE PURPOSE OF CENTRIFUGE CALIBRATION?

a)

    To clean the rotor

b)

To adjust the lighting

c)

To align the samples

d)

To ensure accurate speed and timer settings

30.

WHICH SAFETY FEATURES ARE IMPORTANT TO PREVENT ACCIDENTS DURING CENTRIFUGE OPERATION?

a)

  Built-in camera

b)

Automatic sample loading

c)

Lid locking mechanism

d)

Voice recognition system

31.

WHAT IS THE UNIT COMMONLY USED TO MEASURE ROTATIONAL SPEED IN CENTRIFUGES?

a)

   Miles per hour (mph)

b)

Hertz (Hz)

c)

Revolutions per minute (RPM)

d)

Newtons (N)

32.

DURING CENTRIFUGE VERIFICATION, WHAT ARE CONTROL SAMPLES USED FOR?

a)

     Testing the rotor balance

b)

Measuring the temperature

c)

Confirming the accuracy of the process

d)

Checking the electrical connections

33.

WHY SHOULD A TACHOMETER BE USED DURING CENTRIFUGE CALIBRATION?

a)

     To measure the sample weight

b)

To monitor the temperature

c)

To measure the rotational speed independently

d)

  To adjust the timer settings

34.

WHAT ARE THE PARTS OF THE CENTRIFUGE THAT NEED TO BE CHECKED PROPERLY TO AVOID VIBRATION AND SAMPLE SEPARATION?

a)

     Timer display

b)

Power cord

c)

Rotor balance and alignment

d)

Safety goggles

35.

WHY SHOULD SAFETY BE FOLLOWED WHEN OPERATING A CENTRIFUGE?

a)

  To prevent damage to the centrifuge

b)

To reduce the noise produced by the centrifuge

c)

To increase the speed of centrifugation

d)

To prevent accidents and ensure personal safety

36.

WHAT IS A COMMON PARAMETER THAT CAN BE ADJUSTED ON A CENTRIFUGE TO CONTROL THE SEPARATION PROCESS?

a)

   Sample color

b)

Ambient temperature

c)

Sample volume

d)

Speed setting