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Auditing and Assurance Principles

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The preface to to the Philippine Standards on Quality Control, Auditing, Other Assurance and Related Services is issued to facilitate understanding of the

I. Objectives and operating procedures of the Auditing and Assurance Standards Council (AASC).

II. Scope and authority of the documents issued by the AASC.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

Both I and II

d)

Neither I nor II

2.

Its mission is the promulgation of auditing standards, practices and procedures which shall be generally accepted by the accounting profession in the Philippines

a)

Financial Reporting Standards Council (FRSC).

b)

Auditing and Assurance Standards Council (AASC).

c)

International Federation of Accountants (IFAC).

d)

Philippine Institute of Public Accountants (PICPA).

3.

Which of the following are collectively referred to as "Engagement Standards"?

a)

PSAs and PSREs

b)

PSAs, PSREs and PSAEs

c)

PSAs, PSREs, PSAEs, PSRSs and PSRSs

d)

PSAs, PSREs, PSAEs, PSRSs and PSQCs

4.

Which of the following Philippine Standards are to be applied to compilation engagements,

engagements to apply agreed-upon procedures to information and other related services engagements as specified by the AASC?

a)

PSAs

b)

PSAEs

c)

PSRSs

d)

PSREs

5.

These are issued to provide interpretive guidance and practical assistance to professional accountants in implementing PSAs and to promote good practice.

a)

PAPSs

b)

Practical Statements

c)

PRSPSs

d)

PAEPSs

6.

I. Professional accountants should be aware of and consider Practice Statements applicable to the engagement.

II. A professional accountant who does not consider and apply the guidance included in a relevant Practice

Statement need not explain how the basic principles and essential procedures in the Engagement

Standard(s) addressed by the Practice Statement have been complied with

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

True; False

d)

False, True

7.

Which of the following statements best describes assurance services?

a)

Independent professional services that are intended to enhance the credibility of information to meet the needs of an intended user.

b)

Services designed to express an opinion on the fairness of historical financial statements based on the results of an audit.

c)

The preparation of the financial statements or the collection, classification, and

summarization of other financial information.

d)

Services designed for the improvement of operations, resulting in better outcomes.

8.

The following statements relate to the two types of assurance engagements that a practitioner is

permitted to perform: reasonable assurance engagement and limited assurance engagement.

Statement I. The objective of a reasonable assurance engagement is a reduction in assurance engagement risk to an

acceptably low level in the circumstances of the engagement as a basıs for a positive form of expression

of the practitioner's conclusion

Satement II. The objective of a limited assurance engagement is a reduction in assurance engagement risk to a level

that is acceptable in the circumstances of the engagement, but where the risk is greater than for a

reasonable assurance engagement, as the basis for a positive of expression of the practitioner's conclusion.

Staement III. The objective of a reasonable assurance engagement is a reduction in assurance engagement risk to an

acceptably low level in the circumstances of the engagement as the basis for a negative form of expression of the practitioner's conclusion.

a)

False, True, True

b)

True, False, False

c)

True, True, True

d)

False, False

9.

I. Philippine Framework for Assurance Engagements defines and describes the elements and

objectives of an assurance engagement, and identifies engagements to which PSAs, PSREs and PSAEs

apply.

II. The Philippine Framework for Assurance Engagements is not itself establish standards or provide

procedural requirements for the performance of assurance engagements

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements

c)

True; False

d)

False; True

10.

A practitioner who is engaged to perform an assurance engagement other than an audit or a review

of historical financial information should comply with which of the following standards?

a)

PSAEs

b)

PSAEs and PSAs

c)

PSAs and PSRES

d)

PSAEs, PSREs and PSAs

11.

Assurance engagements encompass the following types of services, except

a)

Attestation services

b)

Review Managements

c)

Audit of historical financial statements

d)

Management consulting

12.

Assurance services differ from consulting services in that they

I. Focus on providing advice

II. Involve monitoring of one party by another.

a)

I. only

b)

II. only

c)

Both I and II

d)

Neither I nor II

13.

Assurance engagements involve.

a)

Two separate parties: a professional accountant and an intended user.

b)

Two separate parties: a professional accountant and a responsible party.

c)

Two separate parties: a responsible party and an intended user.

d)

Three separate parties: a professional accountant, a responsible party and an intended user.

14.

An assurance engagement should have which of the following elements?

I. A three party relationship involving a practitioner, a responsible party and intended users.

II. An appropriate subject matter.

III. Suitable criteria.

IV. Sufficient appropriate evidence

V. written assurance report.

a)

I, II, and Ill only

b)

II, III, IV and V only

c)

I, Il, Ill and IV only

d)

I, II ,III, IV and V

15.

The subject matter of an assurance engagement may include

a)

Historical or prospective financial information.

b)

An entity's internal control or IT system.

c)

Compliance with regulations

d)

All of the above

16.

These are the benchmarks used to evaluate or measure the subject matter of an assurance engagement.

a)

Criteria

b)

GAAP

c)

Assertions

d)

Conclusions

17.

Suitable criteria should have which of the following characteristics, except

a)

Relevance

b)

Completeness

c)

Reliability

d)

Neutrality

e)

Comparability

18.

In an assurance engagement, the person or persons, either as individuals or representatives of an entity, responsible for the subject matter is the

a)

Intended user

b)

Responsible party

c)

Practitioner

d)

Client

19.

In an assurance engagement, the person or class of persons for whom the professional accountant

prepares the report for a specific use or purpose is the

a)

Intended user

b)

Responsible party

c)

Management

d)

Client

20.

I. An assurance engagement risk is the risk that the practitioner expresses an inappropriate conclusion

when the subject matter information is materially misstated.

II. An assurance engagement risk is the risk that the practitioner expresses an inappropriate conclusion

when the subject matter information is not materially misstated

a)

True; False

b)

Both statements are true

c)

False; True

d)

Both statements are false

21.

What level of assurance is provided by the auditor in an audit engagement?

a)

Absolute

b)

High, but not absolute

c)

Moderate

d)

No assurance

22.

What level of a assurance is provided by the auditor in a review engagement?

a)

No assurance

b)

High. but not absolute

c)

Reasonable

d)

Moderate

23.

What assurance is provided by the auditor in an agreed-upon procedures engagement?

a)

Reasonable

b)

Absolute

c)

Moderate

d)

No assurance

24.

In a compilation engagement, the accountant is engaged to use accounting expertise as opposed to

auditing expertise to collect, classify, and summarıze financial information. What type of assurance is

provided by the accountant when he/she performs this engagemen?

a)

Positive assurance

b)

Negative assurance

c)

No assurance

d)

Limited assurance

25.

The following statements relate to a review of financial statements. Which is incorrect?

a)

The objective of a review of financial statements is to enable an auditor to state whether,

on the basis of procedures which do provide all the evidence that would be required

in an audit, anything has come to the auditor's attention that causes the auditor to believe that the

financial statements are not prepared, in all all material respects, in accordance with an identified

financial reporting framework.

b)

A review comprises inquiry and analytical procedures which are designed to review the reliability of an assertion that it is the responsibility of one party for use by another party

c)

A review ordinarily involves an assessment of accounting and internal control systems, test

of records, and of responses to inquiries by obtaining corroborating evidence through inspection, observation, confirmation, and computation.

d)

The level of assurance provided in a review report is less than that given in an audit report.

26.

In an engagement to perform agreed-upon procedures, an auditor is engaged to

a)

Carry out those procedures of an audit nature to to which the auditor and the entity and any appropriate third parties have agreed and to report on factual findings.

b)

Use accounting expertise as opposed to auditing expertise to collect, classify, and summarize financial information

c)

Provide a moderate level of assurance that the information is IS free of material misstatement.

d)

Provide a high, but not absolute, level of assurance that the information is free of material misstatement.

27.

Which of the following statements concerning compilation engagement is incorrect?

a)

In a compilation engagement, the accountant is engaged to use accounting expertise as opposed

to auditing expertise to collect, classify, and summarize financial information

b)

The procedures employed in a compilation engagement enable the accountant to express a moderate level of assurance on the compiled financial information.

c)

Users of the compiled financial information derive some benefit as a result of the accountant's involvement because the service has been performed with due professional skill and care

d)

A compilation engagement ordinarily entails reducing detailed data to a manageable and understandable form without a requirement to test the assertions underlying that information.

28.

I. The auditor should conduct an audit in accordance with Philippine Standards on Auditing.

II. The auditor should plan and perform the audit with an attitude of professional skepticism.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

True; False

c)

Both statements are false.

d)

False; True

29.

The primary reason for a financial statement audit by an independent CPA is to

a)

Provide increased assurance to users as to the fairness of the financial statements

b)

Guarantee that there are no misstatements in the financial statements and ensure that any fraud

will be discovered.

c)

Satisfy governmental regulatory requirements.

d)

Relieve management of responsibility for the financial statements.

30.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor's responsibilities regarding

financial statements?

a)

An auditor's responsibilities for audited financial statements are confined to the expression of the auditor's opinion.

b)

The fair presentation of audited financial statements in conformity with GAAP is an implicit part of the auditor's responsibilities

c)

Making suggestions that are adopted about the form and content of an entity's financial statements impairs an auditor's independence.

d)

The auditor's report should provide an assurance as the future viability of the entity.

31.

What is the proper organizational role of internal auditing?

a)

To serve as an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity that adds value to operations.

b)

To assist the external auditor to reduce external audit fees

c)

To perform studies to assist in the attainment of more efficient operations

d)

To serve as the investigative arm of he of the audit committee of the board of directors.

32.

Which of the following best describes the scope of internal auditing as it has developed to date?

a)

Internal auditing involves appraising the economy and efficiency with which resources are employed.

b)

Internal auditing has evolved to verifying the existence of assets and reviewing the means of safeguarding assets.

c)

Internal auditing has evolved to more of an operational orientation from a strictly financial orientation.

d)

Internal auditing has evolved to verifying the existence of assets and reviewing the means of safeguarding assets.

33.

Which of the following is considered a primary reason for creating an internal audit department?

a)

To evaluate and improve the effectiveness of control processes.

b)

To ensure the accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of financial and operating data used in management's decision making.

c)

To relieve management of the responsibility for establishing effective controls.

d)

To safeguard resources entrusted to the organization

34.

In conducting an appraisal of the economy and efficiency with which company resources are used, an internal auditor's responsibility is to

a)

Verify the accuracy of asset valuation

b)

Review the reliability of operating information.

c)

Verify the existence of assets.

d)

Determine whether operating standards have been established.

35.

Operational audits generally have been conducted by internal and COA auditors, but may be

performed by certified public accountants. A primary purpose of an operational audit is to provide

a)

A measure of management performance in meeting organizational goals.

b)

The results of internal examinations of financial and accounting matters to a company's top-level

c)

Aid to the independent auditor, who is conducting the examination of the financial statements.

d)

A means of assurance that internal accounting controls are functioning as planned.

36.

Governmental auditing often extends beyond examinations leading to the expression of opinion on

the fairness of financial presentation and includes audits of efficiency, economy, eftectiveness, and also

a)

Accuracy

b)

Compliance

c)

Evaluation

d)

Internal Control

37.

An objective of a performance audit 1s to determine whether an entity's

a)

Operatıonal information is in accordance with government auditing standards.

b)

Specific operating units are functioning economically and efficiently

c)

Financial statements present fairly the results of operations.

d)

Internal control is adequately operating as designed.

38.

In comparison to the independent auditor, an internal auditor is more likely to be concerned with

a)

Legal and regulatory compliance.

b)

Cost accounting procedures.

c)

Operational auditing.

d)

Internal control system.

39.

A pervasive characteristics of a CPA's role in a consulting services engagement is that of being a (an)

a)

Independent practitioner.

b)

Computer expert

c)

Confidential reviewer.

d)

Objective advisor.

40.

Which of the following statements concering consulting services is false?

a)

The performance of consulting services for audit clients does not, in and of itself, impair the auditor's independence.

b)

onsulting services differ fundamentally from the CPA's function of attesting to the assertions of other parties.

c)

Consulting services ordinarily involve external reporting.

d)

Most CPAs, including those who provide audit and tax ServIces, also provide consulting services to their clients,

41.

Reyes, CPA, has been asked to perform a consulting services engagement concerning the analysıs of

a potential merger. She has little experience with the industry involved. What is his most appropriate action?

a)

Accept the engagement and perform it in accordance with PSAs.

b)

Accept the engagement and perform additional research or consult with others to obtain

sufficient competence.

c)

Accept the engagement and 1ssue a report vouching for the achievability of the results of the merger.

d)

Decline the engagement because he lacks sufficient knowledge.

42.

Which of the following statements applies to consultation services engagements?

a)

A practitioner should obtain an understanding of the internal control to assess control risk.

b)

A practitioner is not permitted to compile a financial forecast.

c)

A practitioner should obtain sufficient relevant data to complete the engagement.

d)

A practitioner is to maintain an appearance of independence.

43.

According to PSA 300, it involves establishing the overall audit strategy for the engagement and developing an audit plan in order to reduce audit risk to an acceptably low level.

a)

Reporting

b)

Planning

c)

Field work

d)

Organizing

44.

I. Obtaining knowledge of the entity's business is an important part of planning the audit work.

II. The auditor's knowledge of the entity's business assists in the identification of events.

transactions and practices which may have a material effect on the financial statements

a)

Both statements are true.

b)

Both statements are false

c)

True; False

d)

False: True

45.

Which of the following matters should be considered by the auditor in developing the overall audit strategy?

a)

Important characteristics of the entity, its business, its financial performance and its reporting requirements including including changes changes since the date of the prior audit.

b)

Conditions requiring special attention, such as the existence of related parties

c)

The setting of materiality levels for audit purposes

d)

All of the above.

46.

Audit risk has three components: inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk. Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Detection risk is a function of the efficiency of an auditing procedure

b)

Cash is more susceptible to theft than an inventory of coal because it has a greater inherent risk.

c)

The risk that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected on a timely basis by internal control can be reduced to zero by effective controls.

d)

The existing levels of inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk can be changed at the discretion of the auditor.

47.

Some account balances, such as those for retirement benefits and finance leases, are the results of

complex calculations. The susceptibility to material misstatements in these types of accounts is referred to as

a)

Audit risk

b)

Detection risk

c)

Inherent risk

d)

Control risk

48.

There is an inverse relationship that exists between the acceptable level of detection risk and the

a)

Risk of failing to discover material misstatements.

b)

Assurance provided by substantive tests.

c)

Preliminary judgments about materiality levels

d)

Risk of misapplying audit procedures

49.

It is the process designed and effected by those charged with governance, management, and other

personnel to provide reasonable assurance about the achievement of the entity's objectives

a)

Internal auditing

b)

Internal control

c)

Business strategy

d)

Accounting process

50.

This internal control component IS the foundation for all other components. It sets the tone of the organization, provides discipline and structure, and influences the control consciousness of employees.

a)

Control activities

b)

Monitoring of controls

c)

Control environment

d)

The entity's assessment process

51.

In conducting an audit in accordance with PSAs. the auditor is required to identify and assess the

risks of material misstatements at the financial statement level, and at the assertion level for classes of

transactions, account balances, and disclosures. Some of these risks, in the auditor's judgment, require special audit consideration, such those that involve fraud or complex transactions. Such risks are called

a)

Business risks

b)

Audit risks

c)

Significant risks

d)

Material risks

52.

As a result of obtaining an understanding of an entity's internal control system, the auditor may

become aware of material weaknesses in the design or implementation of internal control. The auditor is required to communicate this matter to

a)

Those charged with governance or management

b)

Chief executive officer

c)

Securities and Exchange Commission

d)

Board of Accountancy

53.

Which of the following controls most likely would provide reasonable assurance that all credit sales transactions of an entity are recorded?

a)

The accounting department supervisor controls the mailing of monthly statements to customers and investigates any differences reported by customers.

b)

he accounting department supervisor independently reconciles, on a monthly basis, the

accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the accounts receivable control account.

c)

he billing department supervisor matches prenumbered shipping documents with entries in the sales journal.

d)

The billing department supervisor sends copies of approved sales orders to the credit department for comparison to authorized credit limits and current customer account balances

54.

A sound internal control produce should require that defective merchandise returned by customers be presented initially to the

a)

Receiving clerk

b)

Accounts receivable

c)

Billing clerk

d)

Shipping department

55.

An auditor intends to perform tests of control on a client's cash disbursements procedures. If the

control procedures leave no audit trail of documentary evidence, the auditor most likely will test the procedures by

a)

Inquiry and analytical procedures

b)

Inquiry and observation.

c)

Analytical procedures and confirmation.

d)

Confirmation and observation

56.

An auditor may decide to assess control risk at the maximum level for certain assertions because the auditor believes

a)

Controls are unlikely to pertain to the assertions.

b)

The entity's control components are interrelated

c)

Sufficient appropriate audit evidence to support the assertions is likely to be available.

d)

More emphasis on tests of controls than substantive tests is warranted.

57.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor's assessment of control risk?

a)

Assessing control risk may be performed concurrently during an audit with obtaining an understanding of the entity's internal control.

b)

Evidence about the operation of controls in prior audits may not be considered during the current year's assessment of control risk.

c)

The basis for an auditor's conclusions about the assessed level of control risk need not be

documented unless control risk is assessed at the maximum level.

d)

The lower the assessed level of control risk, the less assurance the evidence must provide that the controls are operating eftectively.

58.

According to PSA 330 (The Auditor's Procedures in Response to Assessed Risks), an auditor who

plans to rely on controls that have not changed since they were last tested should test the operating effectiveness of such controls at least once every

a)

Second audit

b)

Third audit

c)

Fourth audit

d)

Fifth audit

59.

On the basis of audit evidence gathered and evaluated, an auditor decides to increase the assessed

level of control risk from that originally planned. To achieve an overall audit risk level that is substantially the same as the planned audit risk level, the auditor would

a)

Increase inherent risk.

b)

Increase materiality level.

c)

Decrease inherent risk.

d)

Decrease detection risk.

60.

When an auditor increases the planned assessed level of control risk because certain controls were

determined to to be ineffective, the auditor would most likely increase the

a)

Extent of tests of details.

b)

Level of inherent risk

c)

Extent of tests of controls.

d)

Level of detection risk.

61.

In performing tests of the operating effectiveness of an entity's controls, an auditor selects from a variety of techniques including

a)

Reperformance and observation.

b)

Inquiry and analytical procedures.

c)

Comparison and confirmation.

d)

Inspection and verification.

62.

An auditor intends to perform tests of control on a client's cash disbursement procedures. If the

control procedures leave no audit trail of documentary evidence, the auditor most likely will test the procedures by

a)

Inquiry and analytical procedures.

b)

Inquiry and observation.

c)

Analytical procedures and confirmation.

d)

Confirmation and observation.

63.

Which of the following tests of controls most likely would help assure an auditor that goods shipped are properly billed?

a)

Scan the sales journal for sequential and unusual entries

b)

Examine shipping documents for matching sales invoices.

c)

Compare the accounts receivable ledger to daily sales invoices.

d)

Inspect unused sales invoices for consecutive prenumbering.

64.

An auditor is least likely to test controls that provide for

a)

Approval of the purchase and sale of trading securities

b)

Classification of revenue and expense transactions by product line.

c)

Segregation of the functions of recording disbursements and reconciling the bank account.

d)

Comparison of receiving reports and vendor's invoices with purchase orders,

65.

An auditor uses the knowledge provided by the understanding of internal control and the final

assessed level of control risk primarily to determine the nature, timing, and extent of the

a)

Attribute tests

b)

Compliance tests

c)

Tests of controls

d)

Substantive tests

66.

Which of the following procedures would an auditor most lïkely to perform in planning a finanancial statement audit?

a)

Inquiring about the client's legal counsel concerning pending litigation.

b)

Comparing the financial statements with anticipated results.

c)

Examining computer-generated exception reports to verify the effectiveness of internal cor

d)

Searching for unauthorized transactions that may aid in directing unrecorded liabilities

67.

Management makes certain assertions that are embodied in financial statement components; for example, two such categories of assertions are completeness and valuation and allocation. Which of the following is not a broad category of management assertions?

a)

Rights and obligations

b)

Completeness

c)

Existence

d)

Errors or fraud

68.

The objective of tests of details of transactions performed as substantive tests is to

a)

Comply with generally accepted auditing standards.

b)

Attain assurance about the reliability of the accounting system.

c)

Detect material misstatements in the financial statements.

d)

Evaluate whether management's policies and procedures operated effectively.

69.

In testing the existence assertion for an asset, an auditor ordinarily works from the

a)

Financial statements to the potentially unrecorded items

b)

Potentially unrecorded items to the financial statements.

c)

Accounting records to the supporting evidence.

d)

Supporting evidence to the accounting records.

70.

In determining whether transactions have been recorded, the direction of the audit testing should be from the

a)

General ledger balances

b)

Adjusted trial balance

c)

Original source documents

d)

General journal entries

71.

An auditor most likely would review an entity's periodic accounting for the numerical sequence of shipping documents and invoices to support management's financial statement assertion of

a)

Existence

b)

Rights and obligations

c)

Valuation and allocation

d)

Completeness

72.

Which of the following might be be detected by an auditor 's review of the client's sales cut-off?

a)

Excessive goods returned for credit.

b)

Unrecorded sales discounts.

c)

Lapping of year-end accounts receivable.

d)

Inflated sales for the year.

73.

The single feature that most clearly distinguishes auditing, attestation, and assurance is

a)

Type of service.

b)

Scope of services.

c)

Training required to perform the service

d)

CPA's approach to the service

74.

It refers to the auditor's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for use by another party.

a)

Contidence

b)

Reasonableness

c)

Assurance

d)

Tolerable

75.

The three types of attestation services are:

a)

Audits, review, and compilations

b)

Audits, compilations, and other attestation services

c)

Reviews, compilations, and other attestation services

d)

Audits, reviews, and other attestation services

76.

Assurance engagement include the following, except

a)

An engagement conducted to provide a high level of assurance that the subject matter conforms in all material respects with identified suitable criteria.

b)

An engagement conducted to provide a moderate level of assurance that the subject matter is plausible inthe circumstances.

c)

An engagement in accordance with the Philippine Standard on Assurance Engagement(s) issued by the Auditing and

Assurance Standard Council as approved by the Board of AccountancylProfessional Regulation Commission

d)

An engagement to perform agreed-upon procedures

77.

Unlike con sulting services, assurance services:

a)

Make recommendations to management

b)

Report on how to use information

c)

Report on quality information

d)

Are two-party contracts

78.

The following statements are correct, except:

a)

The greater the risk of misstatement, the more evidence is likely to be required

b)

The higher the quality of evidence, the less may be required

c)

Obtaining more evidence will compensate for its poor quality

d)

The sufficiency and appropriateness of evidence are interrelated

79.

Which of the following procedures is not as a part of planning an audit engagement?

a)

Reviewing working papers of the prior year

b)

Performing analytical procedures

c)

Designing an audit program

d)

Test of controls

80.

One of the first things that the auditor will do do after accepting a new client is:

a)

Communicate with the predecessor auditor

b)

Contact the client's attorney to discover legal obligation.

c)

Study the clients's internal control structure.

d)

Tour the clients facilities.