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Worksheets

Q1Test

Total questions: 154

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

adorning fabric with metal strips, pearls, beads, quills, sequins, and laces using needles and threads/yarns of different colors

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

2.

creating fabric, usually cotton, using yarn as the medium with the help of a hook

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

3.

involves interloping a continuous yarn using special stitch patterns

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

4.

putting together three layers of cloth (or in other words, padded) into a creative and decorative design by stitching

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

5.
a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

6.

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

7.

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

8.

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

9.

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

10.

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

11.

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

12.

a)

Embroidery

b)

Crocheting

c)

Knitting

d)

Quilting

13.

It uses two needles

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

14.

It is consist of one row of stitches, done simultaneously

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

15.

Each stitch is supported by another stitch in the row, above and below

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

16.

It cannot produce fabric easily

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

17.

Most products can be accomplished by machine

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

18.

It uses one hook

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

19.

It is consist of one stitch on the hook

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

20.

The stitch is supported by other stitches on both sides

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

21.

Fabric can be easily produced by crocheting

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

22.

Most products are handmade

a)

KNITTING

b)

CROCHETING

23.

Who invented the first ever knitting machine?

a)

William Ford

b)

William Lee

c)

William Cotton

d)

William Zhang

24.

Who invented the Modern Knitting Machine?

a)

William Ford

b)

William Lee

c)

William Cotton

d)

William Zhang

25.
a)

cable needle

b)

double pointed needle

c)

knitting pin

d)

tapestry needle

26.

a)

cable needle

b)

double pointed needle

c)

knitting pin

d)

tapestry needle

27.

a)

cable needle

b)

double pointed needle

c)

knitting pin

d)

tapestry needle

28.

a)

stitch marker

b)

row counter

c)

point protector

d)

yarn bobbin

29.

a)

stitch marker

b)

row counter

c)

point protector

d)

yarn bobbin

30.

a)

stitch marker

b)

row counter

c)

point protector

d)

yarn bobbin

31.

a)

stitch marker

b)

row counter

c)

point protector

d)

yarn bobbin

32.

the total amount of vertical rows in loop of knitted fabric

a)

wale

b)

course

33.

the total amount of horizontal rows in loop of knitted fabric

a)

wale

b)

course

34.
a)

wale

b)

course

35.

a)

wale

b)

course

36.

the number of wales measured along the width or the number of courses measured along the length of fabrics

a)

count

b)

face

c)

back

d)

loop

37.

refers to the side of the fabric which contains weft knits or loops

a)

count

b)

face

c)

back

d)

loop

38.

refers to the wrong side of the fabric which contains back loops or purl

a)

count

b)

face

c)

back

d)

loop

39.

refers to the circular and oval shaped string pulled either in front or to the back

a)

count

b)

face

c)

back

d)

loop

40.

total number of loops in a certain portion of fabric

a)

stitch density

b)

stitch length

41.

Who is the princess of friendship?

a)

Twilight Sparkles

b)

Pinkie Pie

c)

Rainbow Dash

d)

None of the above

42.

What animal is discord

a)

Giraffe

b)

Elephant

c)

Dog

d)

His not an animal

43.

who is luna out of the following ?(EQUESTRIA GIRLS )

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

Why did Twilight Sparkle go to the human world in the first Equestria Girls movie?

a)

she went for a vacation

b)

to get her crown back

45.

Celestia

a)
b)
c)
d)
46.

Applejack

a)
b)
c)
d)
47.

Who is this?

a)

Princess Twilight Sparkle

b)

Berry

c)

Princess Celestia

d)

Apple Jack

48.

Who is Twilight Sparkle's assistant, since as a foal?

a)

Winona

b)

Owlicious

c)

Spike

d)

None of the above

49.

Who is this character

a)

Twilight Sparkle

b)

twilight purple

c)

Twillight Sparkle

d)

Twilight Sprkle

50.

Who is this character

a)

Ponky Pie

b)

Pinkifetty

c)

Rarity

d)

Pinky Pie

51.

What the name of Rainbow Dash's rocks band?

a)

Rainbow Rocks

b)

The Rainbooms

c)

The Rainboww

d)

Sonic Rainboom

52.

Do you think what Rainbow Dash is talking about?

a)

"Lolipops"

b)

"lazy girl"

c)

"Rainbows Lasers"

d)

"I believe I can fly..."

53.

Sunset Shimmer is jealous for what reason?

a)

because it's cold?

b)

because Twilght takes her place?

c)
d)
54.

How much percentage is Rainbow Dash need in her cooler?

a)

40 percent

b)

60 percent

c)

100 percent

d)

20 percent

55.

In the story of Friendship Games, Shadowbolts fight with which group?

a)

Wonderbolts

b)

Shadowbolts

c)

Wondercolts

d)

they not fighting anymore

56.

In the story of Friendship Games, Shadowbolts fight with which group?

a)

Wonderbolts

b)

Shadowbolts

c)

Wondercolts

d)

they not fighting anymore

57.

What's the name of this rock group?

a)

The Sazzlings

b)

The Dazzilazy

c)

The Rainbooms

d)

The Dazzlings

58.

Why Sunset Shimmer Is Mad About Everything

a)

because she love her friends

b)

because she so stress

c)

because she hate every people

d)

CLICK THIS!!!

59.

Who is this creature?

a)

Goodnight Sparkle

b)

Midnight Sparkle

c)

Twilight Sparkle

d)

Ghost Sparkle

60.

Who is this creature?

a)

Daydream Shimmer

b)

Skydream Starlight

c)

Sunset Shimmer

d)

Angel Shimmer

61.

Who is this?

a)

Fluffle Puff

b)

Fufee Putt

c)

Pinkie Pie

62.

Celestia

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

Applejack

a)
b)
c)
d)
64.

Twilight

a)
b)
c)
d)
65.

Pinkie pie

a)
b)
c)
d)
66.

Rainbow Dash

a)
b)
c)
d)
67.

Fluttershy

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

Rarity

a)
b)
c)
d)
69.

Scootaloo

a)
b)
c)
d)
70.

Shining Armor

a)
b)
c)
d)
71.

Sweetie belle

a)
b)
c)
d)
72.

Big Mac

a)
b)
c)
d)
73.

Spike

a)
b)
c)
d)
74.

Apple Bloom

a)
b)
c)
d)
75.

Cadance

a)
b)
c)
d)
76.

Who is this?

a)

Princess Twilight Sparkle

b)

Berry

c)

Princess Celestia

d)

Apple Jack

77.

Which pony hatched Spike from his egg?

a)

Pinkie Pie

b)

Apple Jack

c)

Twilight Sparkle

d)

Rainbow Dash

78.

Which pony hatched Spike from his egg?

a)

Pinkie Pie

b)

Apple Jack

c)

Twilight Sparkle

d)

Rainbow Dash

79.

Which pony is NOT a Princess?

a)

Celestia

b)

Luna

c)

Twilight Sparkle

d)

Fluttershy

80.

Which pony hatched Spike from his egg?

a)

Pinkie Pie

b)

Apple Jack

c)

Twilight Sparkle

d)

Rainbow Dash

81.

Which pony is NOT a Princess?

a)

Celestia

b)

Luna

c)

Twilight Sparkle

d)

Fluttershy

82.

What is Pinkie Pie's cutie mark?

a)

Cupcakes

b)

Balloons

c)

Mixing Bowl

d)

Smiley Face

83.

What type of Pony is Fluttershy?

a)

Earthpony

b)

Pegasus

c)

Unicorn

d)

Alicorn

84.

Queen Novo's daughter is...

a)
b)

She has no daughter.

c)
85.

Which is NOT a process of washing clothes?

a)

Soaking

b)

Washing

c)

Rinsing

d)

Filtering

86.

Which invisible allergen is NOT removed by “Allergy Protect Function” of Godrej Front Load Washing Machines?

a)

Pollens

b)

Dust mites

c)

Fungus

d)

Larva

87.

Which option is NOT available in Allure’s Customization Control Panel?

a)

Up to 12 different wash timings

b)

Up to 6 different water levels

c)

Up to 5 different rinse cycles

d)

Up to 12 different spin timings

88.

Which is the most suitable statement while explaining benefits of “Allergy Protect Function”?

a)

Allergy Protect Function removes invisible allergens and bacteria from clothes

b)

Clothes can have invisible allergens that can cause sickness

c)

All options are correct

d)

Allergy Protect Function is effective in removing 7 types of allergens and 4 types of bacteria

89.

What is the benefit of “Roller Coaster Wash” in Allure Washing Machines?

a)

Best wash quality due to 360 degree movement of clothes

b)

Electricity saving

c)

Faster wash and rinse process

d)

Water saving

90.

What is the benefit of Aquajet Pulsator?

a)

2.5 inch deep fins create high level turbulence for better wash quality

b)

It consumes more energy than other pulsators

c)

It pushes clothes downwards

d)

It is available in Front Load washing machines

91.

Which feature of Allure Washing Machine is NOT responsible for “Roller Coaster Wash”?

a)

Gravity Drum

b)

Aqualet Pulsator

c)

Cascade Waterfall

d)

In-built Heater

92.

Which is NOT a feature of Advance Control Panel of Allure Washing Machine?

a)

It is 70% water resistant

b)

It allows customers to customize wash programs

c)

It is 100% water resistant and hence water seepage is not possible

d)

The control panel has LED lit button controls

93.

Which feature is NOT available in Advance Control Panel of Allure Washing Machines?

a)

It has 6 wash program buttons

b)

It has “Only Wash” and “Only Rinse” options

c)

It has “Allergy Protect” mode

d)

It can be customized for water temperature and delay start

94.

Which is NOT possible in Allure Washing Machines using the Advance Control Panel?

a)

Saving water up to 20% by using Eco-Mode option

b)

Tub Cleaning and use of “Child Lock” option

c)

100% drying of clothes

d)

Setting up to 5 rinse cycles

95.

What is the benefit of “Tri-Roto Scrub Pulsator” in Edge Pro Washing Machines?

a)

Better scrubbing of clothes by three small rotors for excellent wash quality

b)

It increases the speed of pulsator

c)

It throws more water for better cleaning

d)

It protects pulsator from any damage during wash cycle

96.

Which is NOT a correct statement about Steel Drum in Godrej Semi-Automatic Washing Machines?

a)

It rotates at slower speed for better washing of clothes

b)

It’s India’s first Semi-Automatic Washing Machine with Steel Drum

c)

It increases the durability of wash tub

d)

It provides better wash and hygiene quality of clothes

97.

Which is a FALSE benefit of soft close toughened glass lid?

a)

Sleek design of the toughened glass lid provides better look to the product

b)

It can withstand higher load and does not break easily

c)

Protects your hands from getting hurt by accidental fall of lid

d)

It protects the control panel from dust

98.

Which combination of features and washing machines is NOT correct?

a)

WS 800 PDS – Steel Drum, Soft Close Wash Lid

b)

WS EDGE 680 CT – Tri-roto Scrub Pulsator, Micro-filters

c)

WS 650 PD – Soft Close Wash Lid, 5 Years Warranty

d)

GWS 6204 PPD – Soft Close Wash Lid, 2 Years Wash Motor Warranty

99.

Which plastic material is used for rust-free strong body of GWS 7002 PPD?

a)

Polypropylene

b)

Polyester

c)

PVC

d)

Polyethylene

100.

Which is NOT a feature of GWS 8002 PP Washing Machines?

a)

Strong toughened glass lid

b)

520 W powerful motor

c)

10 Years Wash Motor Warranty

d)

Strong rust-free body for long life of washing machine

101.

Which is a wrong combination of washing machines and their warranty period?

a)

GWS 6502 PPC – 5 Year Wash Motor Warranty

b)

GWS 6203 PPD – 2 Year Comprehensive Warranty

c)

WF EON 700 PASE – 10 Year Wash Motor Warranty

d)

WT EON Allure 700 PAHMP – 5 Year Wash Motor Warranty

102.

Which combination of feature and benefits is NOT correct?

a)

Active soak - ensures complete soaking of clothes for easy dirt removal

b)

Spin shower – sprinkles water inside the wash tub for better cleaning

c)

Cable winder – can wind cable for convenience

d)

Micro filter - collects fiber and lint for lint free wash quality

103.

Which combination of feature and benefits is NOT correct?

a)

Memory Backup – can save up to 15 wash settings for convenience

b)

Cloth load indicator – protects from damage due to overloading

c)

Eco-balance mode – Saves up to 50% water and electricity by adjusting water level as per the wash load

d)

In-built Heater – convenience of using hot water for better wash quality

104.

Which statement is FALSE about Edge Pro Washing Machines?

a)

It has Wash Tray for carrying clothes

b)

It has Detergent Box for easy access to detergent

c)

It has Stainless Steel Drum for hygienic wash quality

d)

It has Two Wheels for easy movement of machine

105.

At what temperature does Salmonella die?

a)

100°F

b)

310°F

c)

136°F

d)

Room temperature

106.

What does flour provide for cookies?

a)

Bulk

b)

Structure

c)

Spread

d)

Tenderness

107.

What can you do if the dough is too sticky?

a)

Knead it for 5 minutes

b)

Start over and make a new batch of dough

c)

Add egg white

d)

Get your hands wet

108.

Define Mise en Place. Choose those that apply.

a)

Everything in its place

b)

Start cooking, gather what you need later

c)

Gather ingredients and tools

d)

Fire up the stove

109.

What does baking soda need to make baked goods rise?

a)

An acid food

b)

Water

c)

Air

d)

Eggs

110.

Baker's percentage allows you to change the yield of the formula without changing the quality of the final product

a)

True

b)

False

111.

What does gluten do?

a)

It adds flavor

b)

It makes bread dough strong and elastic

c)

It adds the acid necessary for baking soda to rise

d)

It adds creaminess to the product

112.

Use this to control the salt in a recipe

a)

Flour

b)

Unsalted butter

c)

Oil

d)

Sugar

113.

What does too many eggs do to the cookies?

a)

It makes them crumbly

b)

It makes the cookies bitter

c)

It makes them gooey

d)

It has no effect

114.

What is a good way to get out eggshell from the cracked egg in a bowl?

a)

Use your fingers

b)

Use an emptied half eggshell

c)

Pour it out

d)

With a wooden spoon

115.

It is the process of production where you fold in pressing it down into itself.

a)

Sifting

b)

Kneading

c)

Mixing

d)

Creaming

116.

What are the two determining factors for the overall texture and look of the cookie?

a)

Butter and sugar

b)

Flour and butter

c)

Eggs and salt

d)

Butter and eggs

117.

What are crescent-shaped, flaky rolls?

a)

Pretzels

b)

Croissants

c)

Muffins

d)

Tarts

118.

Yeast is activated at what temperature?

a)

95°F is the fermentation temperature that yields the best result

b)

Always use cold water

c)

Water must be at least 140°F

d)

The temperature doesn't matter as long as you add water and sugar

119.

When determining the baker's percentage what ingredient always equals 100%?

a)

The total of all the ingredients

b)

The flour

c)

The sugar

d)

None

120.

What is a leavening agent? Choose all that apply.

a)

Air

b)

Baking powder

c)

Yeast

d)

Eggs

e)

Sugar

121.

Baking soda ________________, and baking powder ______________.

a)

rises, doesn't rise

b)

is salty, isn't salty

c)

Lasts, doesn't last

d)

Spreads, puffs

122.

How do you determine if the cookies are done? Choose all that apply

a)

You can smell when they're done!

b)

When the timer goes off

c)

Poke them with a toothpick

d)

Insert the edge of a metal spatula under the edge of a cookie. If it stays flat across the bottom and doesn't break in the middle it's ready.

123.

Yeast is a living organism

a)

True

b)

False

124.

Where do you put warm cookies to cool down?

a)

On the window sill

b)

On a cooling rack

c)

On paper towels

d)

Leave them on the baking sheet

125.

Ionic bonds form by __________.

a)

sharing electrons

b)

attraction between opposite charges

c)

delocalized electrons

d)

electron spins

126.

Is KCl an ionic or covalent bond?

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

127.

How do covalent bonds form?

a)

sharing electrons

b)

attraction between opposite charges

c)

delocalized electrons

d)

electrons spinning

128.

Name the compound.

a)

Dihelium Mononitride

b)

Dihydrogen Monoxide

c)

Monoxide Dihydrogen

d)

Mononitride Dihelium

129.

Name the compound.

a)

Sodium Monochloride

b)

Monosodium Monochloride

c)

sodium chloride

d)

sodium chlorine

130.

What is the electronegativity difference?

a)

1.98

b)

-1.98

c)

3.94

d)

-3.94

131.

Based on the electronegativity difference, what type of bond is this?

a)

nonpolar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

none of the above

132.

What is the electronegativity difference of the compound?

a)

-5.64

b)

5.64

c)

-1.24

d)

1.24

133.

Based on the electronegativity difference, what type of bond is this?

a)

nonpolar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

none of the above

134.

What is the formula for beryllium nitride?

a)

Be2N3Be_2N_3  

b)

Be6N5Be_6N_5  

c)

Be3N2Be_3N_2  

d)

BeNBeN  

135.

What formula represents the compound formed between sodium and carbonate?

a)

Na3CO2Na_3CO_2  

b)

Na2CO3Na_2CO_3  

c)

NaCONaCO_{ }  

d)

none of the above

136.

What formula represents the compound formed between magnesium and phosphate?

a)

Mg3(PO4)2Mg_3\left(PO_4\right)_2  

b)

Mg3PO8Mg_3PO_8  

c)

MgPOMgPO  

d)

Mg3PO4Mg_3PO_4  

137.

What is the name of the compound?

a)

Potassium Oxalate

b)

Potassium Chromate

c)

Potassium Oxide

d)

Potassium Perchlorate

138.

What is the name of the compound?

a)

ammonium sulfite

b)

diammonium sulfite

c)

ammonium sulfate

d)

diammonium sulfate

139.

What is the name of the compound?

a)

Iron Oxide

b)

Diiron Trioxide

c)

Iron(III) Oxide

d)

Iron Oxide(III)

140.

Addition


7+1=

(a)  

141.

Addition


9+1=

(a)  

142.

Addition


6+1=

(a)  

143.

Addition


8+2=

(a)  

144.

Adidtion


5+10=

(a)  

145.

Addition


5+8=

(a)  

146.

Addition


3+10=

(a)  

147.

Addition


9+3=

(a)  

148.

Addition


3+7=

(a)  

149.

Addition


5+7=

(a)  

150.

Addition


4+7=

(a)  

151.

Addition


2+9=

(a)  

152.

Addition


5+2=

(a)  

153.

Addition


6+1=

(a)  

154.

Addition


3+7=

(a)  

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