wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

CCNA 1a Midterm

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 6hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is is designed to be accessible only by the organization's members, employees, or others with authorization?

a)

Internet

b)

Extranet

c)

Intranet

2.

These attacks slow or crash applications and processes on a network device.

a)

Threat actor attacks

b)

Trojan horses

c)

Denial of service attacks

d)

Spyware 

3.

Which of the following defines redundancy?

a)

A network able to expand quickly to support new users and applications.


b)

The ability of a router to prioritize the flow voice traffic.


c)

Multiple paths to a destination.

d)

The number of bits that can be transmitted in a single second.

4.

Which of the following is a cloud-based application intended to be used only by a specific organization, such as the government?


a)

Public cloud

b)

Private cloud

c)

Community cloud

d)

Hybrid cloud

5.

LANs provide network infrastructure over large geographical areas.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

In a converged network data, voice, and video are delivered over the same network infrastructure.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

assures users of timely and reliable access to data services

a)

confidentiality

b)

integrity

c)

availability

8.

assures users that the information has not been altered in transmission

a)

confidentiality

b)

integrity

c)

availability

9.

only the intended and authorized recipients can access and read data

a)

confidentiality

b)

integrity

c)

availability

10.

identify fast-spreading threats, such as zero-day or zero-hour attacks


a)

Antivirus

b)

Firewall filtering

c)

Access control lists (ACL)

d)

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

e)

Virtual private networks (VPN)

11.

filter access and traffic forwarding based on IP addresses and applications


a)

Antivirus

b)

Firewall filtering

c)

Access control lists (ACL)

d)

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

e)

Virtual private networks (VPN)

12.

provide secure access into an organization for remote workers


a)

Antivirus

b)

Firewall filtering

c)

Access control lists (ACL)

d)

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

e)

Virtual private networks (VPN)

13.

blocks unauthorized access into and out of the network

a)

Antivirus

b)

Firewall filtering

c)

Access control lists (ACL)

d)

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

e)

Virtual private networks (VPN)

14.

protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software

a)

Antivirus

b)

Firewall filtering

c)

Access control lists (ACL)

d)

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

e)

Virtual private networks (VPN)

15.

Which access method would be used to do the initial configuration on a new switch?

a)

Aux

b)

Web login

c)

Telnet/SSH

d)

Console

16.

Which access method would be most appropriate if your manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to configure the switch?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

17.

Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

18.

Which access method would be the most appropriate if you call your manager to tell him you cannot access your router in another city over the internet and he provides you with the information to access the router through a telephone connection?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

Aux

19.

Which IOS mode are you in if the prompt displayed on a switch is Switch(config)#?

a)

user EXEC mode

b)

privileged EXEC mode

c)

interface subconfiguration mode

d)

global configuration mode

20.

IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length and written as a string of hexadecimal values.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?

a)

dotted-binary format

b)

dotted-decimal format

c)

dotted hexadecimal format

22.

Pressing the Space bar at the --More-- prompt displays the next screen.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

DHCP is used when manual IP addressing is required.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The running-config is stored in NVRAM.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

A switch virtual interface (SVI) is created in software and has no physical port associated with it.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Commands and keywords can be shortened to the minimum number of characters that identify a unique selection.


a)

True

b)

False

27.

Moves the cursor back one word to the left.

a)

Tab

b)

Ctrl+A

c)

Ctrl+E

d)

Up Arrow or Ctrl+P

e)

Esc B

28.

Recalls the previous command in the history buffer, beginning with the most recent command.

a)

Tab

b)

Ctrl+A

c)

Ctrl+E

d)

Up Arrow or Ctrl+P

e)

Esc B

29.

Moves the cursor to the end of command line.

a)

Tab

b)

Ctrl+A

c)

Ctrl+E

d)

Up Arrow or Ctrl+P

e)

Esc B

30.

Completes a partial command name entry.

a)

Tab

b)

Ctrl+A

c)

Ctrl+E

d)

Up Arrow or Ctrl+P

e)

Esc B

31.

Moves the cursor to the beginning of the line.

a)

Tab

b)

Ctrl+A

c)

Ctrl+E

d)

Up Arrow or Ctrl+P

e)

Esc B

32.

assigns the device name


a)

hostname

b)

enable secret class

c)

login

d)

service password-encryption

e)

banner motd

33.

secures access to privileged EXEC mode

a)

hostname

b)

enable secret class

c)

login

d)

service password-encryption

e)

banner motd

34.

enables password authentication for user EXEC mode

a)

hostname

b)

enable secret class

c)

login

d)

service password-encryption

e)

banner motd

35.

displays a message upon login

a)

hostname

b)

enable secret class

c)

login

d)

service password-encryption

e)

banner motd

36.

encrypts all plaintext passwords

a)

hostname

b)

enable secret class

c)

login

d)

service password-encryption

e)

banner motd

37.

What appropriate layer of the TCP/IP model: IPv4

a)

Application Layer

b)

Transport Layer

c)

Internet Layer

d)

Network Access Layer

38.

What appropriate layer of the TCP/IP model: Ethernet

a)

Application Layer

b)

Transport Layer

c)

Internet Layer

d)

Network Access Layer

39.

What appropriate layer of the TCP/IP model: HTTP

a)

Application Layer

b)

Transport Layer

c)

Internet Layer

d)

Network Access Layer

40.

What appropriate layer of the TCP/IP model: UDP

a)

Application Layer

b)

Transport Layer

c)

Internet Layer

d)

Network Access Layer

41.

The process used by a receiving device to remove one or more of the protocol headers is encapsulation.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses are physical.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

OSI model in the appropriate order: Data Link

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

45.

OSI model in the appropriate order: Physical

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

46.

OSI model in the appropriate order: Transport

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

47.

OSI model in the appropriate order: Network

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

48.

OSI model in the appropriate order: Application

a)

7

b)

6

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

49.

OSI model in the appropriate order: Presentation

a)

7

b)

6

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

50.

OSI model in the appropriate order: Session

a)

7

b)

6

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

51.

When two devices are on different IP networks what must happen for them to communicate?

a)

The subnet masks of the two devices must match.

b)

The devices must have the same network portion in the source and destination fields of the IP packet header

c)

The frames must first be forwarded to a default gateway.

d)

The data link address of the remote destination device must be added to the Ethernet frame header.

52.

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to all devices on the network?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Unicast

c)

Multicast

53.

Which of the following PDU's is found at the physical layer?

a)

Segment

b)

Data

c)

Packet

d)

Frame

e)

Bits

54.

Which of the following uniquely labels each transmitted segment of data and allows the receiving device to reassemble the information correctly. 


a)

Reliability

b)

Sequencing

c)

Error Detection

d)

Addressing

55.

The transfer of bits across the network media over a period of time is known as throughput.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

The physical layer receives packets from the data-link layer and converts them into frames for transmission.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Multimode fibre uses laser technology as the light source.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Wire colours for a T568A pinout

a)

Green Stripe, Green Solid, Orange Stripe, Blue Solid, Blue Stripe, Orange Solid, Brown Stripe, Brown Solid

b)

Orange Stripe, Orange Solid, Green Stripe, Blue Solid, Blue Stripe, Green Solid, Brown Stripe, Brown Solid

59.

Which of the following devices will NOT interfere with the electromagnetic signals of wireless media?

a)

Fluorescent Lights

b)

Cordless Phone

c)

Microwave Oven

d)

Toaster

60.

Which of the following connections would require a crossover cable?

a)

Connecting to a router or switch console port.

b)

To connect two hosts.

c)

To connect a host to a switch.

d)

To connect a switch to a router.

61.

What cable is needed to connect to the a Cisco router console port?

a)

straight-through

b)

coaxial

c)

crossover

d)

rollover

62.

This is a wireless personal area network (WPAN) standard.

a)

Wi-Fi

b)

WiMax

c)

Zigbee

d)

Bluetooth

63.

media to the signal type: Light Pulses

a)

Copper Cable

b)

Fibre Optic Cable

c)

Wireless Media

64.

media to the signal type: Microwave Signals

a)

Copper Cable

b)

Fibre Optic Cable

c)

Wireless Media

65.

media to the signal type: Electrical Signals

a)

Copper Cable

b)

Fibre Optic Cable

c)

Wireless Media

66.

The letter E is a valid hexadecimal digit.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

There are 16 hexadecimal digits in an IPv6 address.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

The 1's and 0's used in the binary number system are known as bytes.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 87?

a)

2F

b)

57

c)

47

d)

39

70.

How many bits are in one hextet?

a)

128

b)

16

c)

8

d)

32

71.

IPv6 and MAC addresses are represented by?

a)

Binary

b)

Decimal

c)

Octal

d)

Hexadecimal

72.

Given the binary address of 10100101 01010111 11100110 00001101, which IPv4 address does this represent?

a)

165.87.230.13

b)

165.97.60.13

c)

163.87.60.7

d)

163.97.56.7

73.

What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number 0x2A?

a)

42

b)

28

c)

52

d)

38

74.

Each hexadecimal digit can be expanded to how many binary bits?

a)

16

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

75.

What is the binary representation for the decimal number 163?

a)

10100011

b)

10110011

c)

11000011

d)

10101011

76.

27 = ?

a)

128

b)

255

c)

127

d)

256

77.

What is the definition of the following term: positional notation

a)

Looks like this: 65.87.230.4

b)

Each digit in a sequence represents a different value.

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

e)

The number of digits in a positional number system.

78.

What is the definition of the following term: dotted decimal notation

a)

Looks like this: 65.87.230.4

b)

Each digit in a sequence represents a different value.

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

e)

The number of digits in a positional number system.

79.

What is the definition of the following term: base 10

a)

A four hexadecimal character group.

b)

Contains 8 bits.

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

e)

The number of digits in a positional number system.

80.

What is the definition of the following term: base 16

a)

A four hexadecimal character group.

b)

Contains 8 bits.

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

e)

The number of digits in a positional number system.

81.

What is the definition of the following term: radix

a)

A four hexadecimal character group.

b)

Contains 8 bits.

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

e)

The number of digits in a positional number system.

82.

What is the definition of the following term: octet

a)

A four hexadecimal character group.

b)

Contains 8 bits.

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

e)

The number of digits in a positional number system.

83.

What is the definition of the following term: hextet

a)

A four hexadecimal character group.

b)

Contains 8 bits.

c)

Decimal

d)

Hexadecimal

e)

The number of digits in a positional number system.

84.

Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

a)

frame

b)

segment

c)

file

d)

packet

85.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

a)

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

b)

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

c)

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

d)

The entire command, configure terminal , must be used.

86.

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

a)

to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

b)

to enable the switch to be managed remotely

c)

to enable the switch to function as a default gateway

d)

to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs

87.

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

a DSL modem

b)

a router

c)

a firewall

d)

a web server

88.

A web client is receiving a response for a web page from a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to decode the received transmission?

a)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

b)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

c)

HTTP, Ethernet, IP, TCP

d)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

89.

Which statement is correct about network protocols?

a)

They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.

b)

Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.

c)

They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

d)

They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.

90.

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as a single layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

a)

data link

b)

physical

c)

session

d)


transport

e)

network

91.

Which statement accurately describes a TCP/IP encapsulation process when a PC is sending data to the network?

a)

Data is sent from the internet layer to the network access layer.

b)

Frames are sent from the network access layer to the internet layer.

c)

Segments are sent from the transport layer to the internet layer.

d)

Packets are sent from the network access layer to the transport layer.

92.

When IPv4 addressing is manually configured on a web server, which property of the IPv4 configuration identifies the network and host portion for an IPv4 address?

a)

DNS server address

b)

DHCP server address

c)

default gateway

d)

subnet mask

93.

Refer to the exhibit. ServerB is attempting to contact HostA. Which two statements correctly identify the addressing that ServerB will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

a)

ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.

b)

ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of HostA.

c)

ServerB will generate a packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.

d)

ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.

e)

ServerB will generate a frame with the destination MAC address of RouterB.

94.

Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

a)

frame

b)

segment

c)

file

d)

packet

95.

What process involves placing one PDU inside of another PDU?

a)


encoding

b)

encapsulation

c)

segmentation

d)

flow control

96.

What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

a)

DNS

b)

ARP

c)

PPP

d)

DHCP

e)

FTP

97.


A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

a)

adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

b)

installing antivirus software

c)

implementing a firewall

d)

implementing an intrusion detection system

98.

Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

a)

Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

b)

New "smart" electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

c)

A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.

d)

A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

99.

What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

a)

the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

b)

the number of intermediate devices installed in the network

c)

the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

d)


the cost of the end devices utilized in the network

e)


the types of data that need to be prioritized

100.


How is SSH different from Telnet?

a)

SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.

b)

SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a device from a console connection.

c)

SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.

d)

SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.

101.

After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

a)

The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.

b)

The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.

c)

The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.

d)

The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

102.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

a)

boot IOS mode

b)

privileged EXEC mode

c)

Ethernet interface

d)

console interface

e)

VTY interface

103.

What command will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file?

a)

(config)# enable secret Encrypted_Password

b)

(config)# service password-encryption

c)

(config)# enable secret Secret_Password

d)

(config-line)# password secret

e)

(config)# enable password secret

104.

A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

a)

This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.

b)

This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

c)

This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

d)

This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.

e)

This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

105.

Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

a)

the first Ethernet port interface

b)

the console port interface

c)

the switch virtual interface

d)

the AUX interface

106.

What are three characteristics of an SVI? (Choose three.)

a)

It is designed as a security protocol to protect switch ports.

b)

It is not associated with any physical interface on a switch.

c)

It is associated with VLAN1 by default.

d)


It is required to allow connectivity by any device at any location.

e)

It provides a means to remotely manage a switch.

107.

While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

a)

Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

b)

Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.

c)

Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

d)

Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

108.

Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

a)

It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.

b)

It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

c)

It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

d)

It is stored in NVRAM.

109.

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

a)

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

b)

The device prompt for this mode ends with the ">" symbol.

c)

Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.

d)

All router commands are available.

e)

Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.

110.

Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

a)

virtual terminal

b)

AUX port

c)

privileged EXEC

d)

console line

111.

When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)

a)

the hostname should begin with a letter

b)

the hostname should contain no spaces

c)

the hostname should be written in all lower case characters

d)

the hostname should end with a special character

e)

the hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

112.

What is the function of the shell in an OS?

a)

It provides dedicated firewall services.

b)

It interfaces between the users and the kernel.

c)

It interacts with the device hardware.

d)

It provides the intrusion protection services for the device.

113.

An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?

a)

Copy the information in the startup configuration file to the running configuration.

b)

Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been pressed.

c)

Copy the running configuration to the startup configuration file.

d)

Reload the device and type yes when prompted to save the configuration.

114.

Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a)

to make a changed configuration the new startup configuration

b)

to save an active configuration to NVRAM

c)

to copy an existing configuration into RAM

d)

to remove all configurations from the switch

115.

A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

a)

global configuration mode

b)

user EXEC mode

c)

setup mode

d)

privileged EXEC mode

116.


In the show running-config command, which part of the syntax is represented by running-config ?

a)

a variable

b)

the command

c)

a prompt

d)

a keyword

117.

What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

a)

It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

b)

It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

c)

It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.

d)


It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

118.

Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

a)

SwBranch799

b)

Floor(15)

c)

HO Floor 17

d)

RM-3-Switch-2A4

e)

Branch2!

119.

What command is used to verify the condition of the switch interfaces, including the status of the interfaces and a configured IP address?

a)

show ip interface brief

b)

ipconfig

c)

traceroute

d)

ping

120.

At which OSI layer is data added to a PDU during the encapsulation process?

a)

transport layer

b)

application layer

c)

data link layer

d)

network layer

121.

What term describes a type of network used by people who work from home or from a small remote office?

a)

SOHO network

b)

BYOD

c)

converged network

d)

QoS

122.

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

a)

hosts

b)

servers

c)

intermediary devices

d)

media

123.

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)

wireless

b)

fiber optic

c)

copper

124.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

hosts

b)

routers

c)

servers

d)

switches

125.

How can the following be described: NIC

a)

physically connects the end device to the network.

b)

A connector or outlet on a networking device where the media connects to an end device or another networking device.

c)

Specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks. Because routers connect networks, the ports on a router are referred to as network interfaces.

126.

How can the following be described: Physical port

a)

physically connects the end device to the network.

b)

A connector or outlet on a networking device where the media connects to an end device or another networking device.

c)

Specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks. Because routers connect networks, the ports on a router are referred to as network interfaces.

127.

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?

a)

Port

b)

NIC

c)

Interface

128.

Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used?

a)

Physical

b)

Logical

129.

Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?

a)

Physical

b)

Logical

130.

Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

Intranet

d)

Extranet

131.

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization’s data?

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

Intranet

d)

Extranet

132.

Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

Intranet

d)

Extranet

133.

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?

a)

fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

134.

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?

a)

fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

135.

With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?


a)

fault tolerance

b)

Scalability

c)

QoS

d)

Security

136.

Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

137.

Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

138.

Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?

a)

BYOD

b)

Video communications

c)

Cloud computing

139.

Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?

a)

Smart Home technology

b)

Powerline

c)

Wireless broadband

140.

Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smartphone?

a)

Smart Home technology

b)

Powerline

c)

Wireless broadband

141.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)

spyware

b)

zero day attack

c)

DoS attack

142.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

a)

intranet

b)

extranet

c)

internet

143.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)

BYOD

b)

online collaboration

c)

video conferencing

d)

cloud computing

144.

What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission?

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

145.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

a)

Formatting

b)

Encoding

c)

Encapsulation

146.

Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three.)

a)

Flow control

b)

Sequence numbers

c)

Access method

d)

Retransmit time

e)

Response Timeout

147.

BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

a)

routing

b)

service discovery

c)

network communications

d)

network security

148.

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

a)

File Transfer

b)

Routing Protocols

c)

Ethernet

d)

Internet Protocol

e)

Messaging

149.

Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Choose three.)

a)

Data link layer addresses are logical and network layer addresses are physical.

b)

Network layer addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits and data link layer addresses are decimal.

c)

Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

d)

Data link layer addresses are physical and network layer addresses are logical.

e)

Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.

150.

What is the order of the two addresses in the data link frame?

a)

source MAC, destination MAC

b)

destination MAC, source IP

c)

destination IP, source IP

d)

destination MAC, source MAC

e)

source IP, destination IP

151.

Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?

a)

bandwidth

b)

throughput

c)

goodput

152.

Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?

a)

bandwidth

b)

throughput

c)

goodput

153.

Which of these is a measure of the transfer of bits across the media?

a)

bandwidth

b)

throughput

c)

goodput

154.

What is the following wireless standard: IEEE 802.11

a)

Wi-Fi

b)

Bluetooth

c)

WiMAX

d)

Zigbee

155.

What is the following wireless standard: IEEE 802.15

a)

Wi-Fi

b)

Bluetooth

c)

WiMAX

d)

Zigbee

156.

What is the following wireless standard: IEEE 802.15.4

a)

Wi-Fi

b)

Bluetooth

c)

WiMAX

d)

Zigbee

157.

What is the following wireless standard: IEEE 802:16

a)

Wi-Fi

b)

Bluetooth

c)

WiMAX

d)

Zigbee

Similar Resources on Wayground

Test bank new

153 questions

Test bank new

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

30_Redes Locales: capa de red 1

162 questions

30_Redes Locales: capa de red 1

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Mã nguồn mở K62 VMU

153 questions

Mã nguồn mở K62 VMU

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

HIỆU NHỜ LÀM NGÀY 7 THÁNG 8

161 questions

HIỆU NHỜ LÀM NGÀY 7 THÁNG 8

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

De cuong tin hoc 11 CK2

161 questions

De cuong tin hoc 11 CK2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Ôn Tập Trắc Nghiệm CNTTCB

160 questions

Ôn Tập Trắc Nghiệm CNTTCB

quiz

Worksheet

•

University