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3.1-3.7 Aviation Test

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

a)

008 and 026 true

b)

080 and 260 true

c)

080 and 260 magnetic

2.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

a)

009 and 027 true

b)

090 and 270 true

c)

090 and 270 magnetic

3.

Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position markings?

a)

50

b)

100

c)

150

4.

The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to

a)

Identify the location of taxiing aircraft during low visibility operations

b)

Highlight an approaching runway holding position marking

c)

supplement location signs in confirming the designation of the taxiway

5.

(Refer to pic) according to the airport diagram, which statement is true

a)

Position E on runway 30 is available for landing

b)

Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway of this runway begins at position B

c)

The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B

6.

(Refer to pic) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?

a)

A may be used for taxi and takeoff; E may be used only as an overrun

b)

A may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; E may be used only as an overrun

c)

A may be used only for taxiing; E may be used for all operations except for landings

7.

(Refer to pic) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a

a)

Stabilized area

b)

Multiple heliport

c)

Closed taxiway

8.

(Refer to pic) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for

a)

Landing

b)

Taxiing and takeoff

c)

Taxiing and landing

9.

(Refer to pic) Which of the signs in this figure is a mandatory instruction sign?

a)

D

b)

G

c)

H

10.

(Refer to pic) Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway?

a)

J

b)

F

c)

K

11.

(Refer to pic) Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?

a)

D

b)

G

c)

B

12.

(Refer to pic) This sign is a visual clue that

a)

Confirms the aircraft’s location to be on a taxiway B

b)

Warns the pilot of approaching taxiway B

c)

indicates B holding area is ahead

13.

(Refer to pic) This sign confirms your position on

a)

Runway 22

b)

routing to runway 22

c)

Taxiway 22

14.

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

a)

Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway

b)

Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway

c)

Denotes intersecting runways

15.

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

a)

Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway

b)

Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located

c)

Identifies direction to take off runways

16.

When approaching a taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

a)

May continue taxiing

b)

Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

c)

Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed lines

17.

When turning into a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

a)

Indicates direction to take off runway

b)

Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

c)

Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

18.

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

a)

Provides general taxiing direction to named runway

b)

Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway

c)

Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft if located

19.

The ‘yellow demarcation bar’ making indicates

a)

Runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway

b)

A hold line from a taxiway to a runway

c)

The beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

20.

(Refer to pic) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be

a)

On a taxiway, about to enter runway zone

b)

On a runway, about to clear

c)

Near an instrument approach clearance zone

21.

(Refer to pic) which marking indicates a vehicle lane.

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

22.

A lighted heliport may be identified by a

a)

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

b)

Flashing yellow light

c)

Blue lighted square landing area

23.

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

a)

White and green alternating flashes

b)

two quick, white flashes between green flashes

c)

green, yellow, and white flashes

24.

An airports rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

a)

There are obstructions on the airport

b)

That weather at the airport located in class D airspace is below basic VFR minimums

c)

The ATC tower is not in operation

25.

How can a military airport be identified at night?

a)

Alternate white and green light flashes

b)

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

c)

White flashing lights with steady green at the same location

26.

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

a)

White directional lights

b)

Blue omnidirectional lights

c)

Arsenate red and green lights

27.

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone 7 times, and then click it

a)

One time within 4 seconds

b)

Three times within 3 seconds

c)

5 times within 5 seconds

28.

(Refer to pic) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on

a)

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right

b)

Runway 22 directly into the wind

c)

Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right

29.

(Refer to pic) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area

a)

May be only used only for taxiing

b)

Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing

c)

Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

30.

(Refer to pic) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing

a)

Left-handed traffic and Runway 18

b)

Right-handed traffic and Runway 18

c)

Left-handed traffic and Runway 22

31.

(Refer to pic) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle

a)

Right handed traffic on runway 9

b)

Right handed traffic on runway 18

c)

Left handed traffic on runway 36

32.

(Refer to pic) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is

a)

Left hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18

b)

Left hand for runway 18 and right hand for runway 36

c)

Right hand for runway 9 and left hand for runway 27

33.

(Refer to pic) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

a)

South of the airport

b)

North of the airport

c)

Southeast of the airport

34.

(Refer to pic) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on runway 26 will be with a

a)

Right quartering headwind

b)

Left quartering headwind

c)

Right quartering tailwind

35.

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non controlled airport?

a)

Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary

b)

Make all turns to the left

c)

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

36.

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is

a)

45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude

b)

To enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

c)

To cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg

37.

You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on southeast side of small lake 3/4 miles east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?

a)

Proceed with your approach to Runway 19

b)

Maneuver for an approach to runway 01

c)

Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway

38.

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall

a)

Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope atleast 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold

b)

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

c)

Remain on the glide slope and land between the two light bar

39.

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

a)

Pulsating white light

b)

Steady white light

c)

Pulsating red light

40.

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway serves by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

a)

Maintain a 3 degrees glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI

b)

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

c)

Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing

41.

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glide path of the VASI?

a)

Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR

b)

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

c)

Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown

42.

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual slope indicator (VASI) shall

a)

Maintain a 3 degree glide to the runway

b)

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

c)

Stay high off until the runway can be reached in a power off landing

43.

(Refer to pic) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is

a)

Below the glide slope

b)

On the glide slope

c)

Above the glide slope

44.

(Refer to pic) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2 bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

a)

Acid the glide path

b)

Below the glide path

c)

On the glide path

45.

(Refer to pic) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is

a)

Off course to the left

b)

Above the glide slope

c)

Below the glide slope

46.

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glide path of the VASI?

a)

Runway identification and course guidance

b)

Safe obstruction clearance approach area

c)

Lateral course guidance to the runway

47.

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

a)

Four white lights

b)

Three white lights and one red light

c)

Two white lights and two red lights

48.

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

a)

Operating at high speeds

b)

Heavily loaded

c)

Developing lift

49.

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to

a)

Sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

b)

Rise into the traffic pattern

c)

Rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway

50.

(Refer to pic) with winds reported as from 300 degrees at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner, which is departing from runway 35L. What effect would you expect from the airliner’s vortices?

a)

The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path.

b)

The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices

c)

The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.

51.

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

a)

Rise from the crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path

b)

Rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport

c)

Sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

52.

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

a)

Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft’s touchdown

b)

Below the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point

c)

Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing before the large aircraft’s touchdown point

53.

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a

a)

Light, quartering headwind

b)

Light, quartering tailwind

c)

Strong headwind

54.

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

a)

Inward, upward, and around each tip

b)

Inward, upward, and counterclockwise

c)

Outward, upward, and around each tip

55.

When the landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?

a)

Stay above its final approach flight path all the way to touchdown

b)

Stay below and to one side of its final approach flight path

c)

Stay well below its final approach flight path and land at least 2,000 feet behind

56.

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is

a)

Light, dirty, fast

b)

Heavy, dirty, fast

c)

Heavy, clean, slow

57.

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

a)

below and downwind from heavy aircraft

b)

Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

c)

Below and upwind from the heavy aircraft

58.

Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly

a)

At the same altitude as the large aircraft

b)

Below the altitude of the large aircraft

c)

Above the flight path of the large aircraft

59.

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a)

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

b)

The other aircraft is crossing to the right

c)

The other aircraft is approaching head-on

60.

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light in a flashing red light ahead and at the same attitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a)

The other aircraft is flying away from you

b)

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

c)

The other aircraft is crashing to the right

61.

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same attitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a)

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

b)

The other aircraft is flying away from you

c)

The other aircraft is approaching head on

62.

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

a)

The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate

b)

The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space

c)

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft

63.

Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should

a)

Not exceed 10° and view each other sector at least one second

b)

Be 30° and view each sector at least three seconds

c)

Use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors in utilizing off-center viewing

64.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision, avoidance, during daylight hours is to use

a)

Regularly space concentration on the 3, 9 and 12 o’clock positions

b)

A series of short, regular spaced eye-movements to search each 10° sector

c)

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

65.

Prior to each starting maneuver, pilot should

a)

Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications

b)

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

c)

Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

66.

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?

a)

Execute, gentle banks, left and right for continuous and visual scanning of the airspace

b)

Advise the nearest capital FSS of the altitude changes

c)

Fly away from the center line of the airway before changing altitude

67.

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use

a)

Regularly spaced concentration on the 3, 9, and 12 o’clock positions

b)

A series of short, regularly spaced eye-movements to search each 30° sector

c)

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

68.

Most mid air collision accidents occur during

a)

Hazy days

b)

Clear days

c)

Cloudy nights

69.

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

a)

The controlling agency

b)

All pilots

c)

ATC

70.

The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day, or night, and especially when operating

a)

In class B airspace

b)

In conditions of reduced visibility

c)

Within 15 miles of a towered airport

71.

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least

a)

50 feet or less to another aircraft

b)

500 feet or less to another aircraft

c)

1,000 feet or less to another aircraft

72.

ADS-B equipment is not required for aircraft in flight above 10,000 ft MSL

a)

Because Class A airspace begins at 18,000 feet MSL

b)

While that flight is still being conducted below 2,500 feet AGL

c)

Because the equipment is not required above this altitude

73.

Can aircraft without ADS-B Out equipment overfly Class C airspace?

a)

Yes, as long as contact with the controlling facility is maintained for the duration of the overflight

b)

Yes, if flight is maintained at or above 10,000 feet MSL

c)

Yes, but only exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment

74.

ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to pilots; however, the range of coverage for air traffic controllers is

a)

Limited, and often worse than radar

b)

Restricted in remote areas such as mountainous terrain

c)

Often better than radar, even in remote areas

75.

Any airspace that requires the use of a transponder also requires aircraft to be

a)

Equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment

b)

On a VFR flight plan with ADS-B Out in the transmit mode at all times

c)

On an IFR flight plan with ADS-B Out equipment

76.

Onboard ADS-B Out equipment is useful to pilots and ATC controllers

a)

All the time, even when aircraft are positioned on the airport surface

b)

Any time the aircraft is above 2,500 feet AGL

c)

Only during the times ATC requires it to be active

77.

When should ADS-B equipment be operated on the ground while taxiing?

a)

Only when ATC specifically requests your ADA-B equipment be activated

b)

Any time when the airport is operating under IFR conditions.

c)

Al the time when on the airport surface.