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RAD 308 - Exam #1 Review (2025)

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Antiseptic solutions are used on non-living surfaces, while disinfectant solutions are used on the skin.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Which method of transmission typically causes infections due to contaminated food and water?

a)

Contact

b)

Vehicle

c)

Airborne

d)

Vector-borne

3.

Which level of microbial dilution would disinfectants be categorized?

a)

1st level

b)

2nd level

c)

3rd level

d)

4th level

4.

Reaching across a sterile field is allowed by _____________________.

a)

non-sterile team members

b)

sterile team members

c)

only the surgeon

d)

no one as it would contaminate the sterile field.

5.

Which method of sterilization is quickest, but can only be used for items that can tolerate high heat and steam?

a)

autoclaving sterilization

b)

conventional gas sterilization

c)

gas plasma sterilization

d)

chemical sterilization

6.

The sterile corridor is the _________________________.

a)

area between the patient drape and anesthesiologist

b)

area between the patient drape and radiology equipment

c)

area between the patient drape and surgeon

d)

area between the patient drape and instrument table

7.

Packages used for invasive procedures typically include expiration dates, a list of items included, as well as ________________, which show whether the package is still considered sterile.

a)

chemical indicators

b)

sterilization legend

c)

aseptic technique indicators

d)

sterilization indicators

8.

When performing a mobile radiographic procedure in the OR, the IR should be ________________ prior to being placed against the patient for imaging.

a)

sterilized

b)

thoroughly disinfected

c)

placed by the radiographer

d)

put in a sterile cover

9.

Which of the following types of consent is typically invoked when a delay in treatment may cause serious harm or death?

a)

informed consent

b)

substituted consent

c)

simple consent

d)

implied constructive consent

10.

All of the following are sterile members of the OR team EXCEPT:

a)

Surgeon

b)

Anesthesiologist / CRNA

c)

Scrub Person

d)

Surgical Assistant

11.

An infection a patient obtains while in the hospital receiving medical care is referred to as a ____________________.

a)

staph infection

b)

nosophobial infection

c)

hospital induced infection

d)

nosocomial infection

12.

Which of the following is not true when creating a sterile field for an invasive procedure?

a)

An antiseptic solution should be applied to the patient in a circular motion starting from the center

b)

When prepping the skin, the radiographer may shave the area, if they deem necessary

c)

The sterile tray should be opened with the fold/tab away from the radiographer

d)

The radiographer should hold their arms at a 90 degree angle after surgically scrubbing them

13.

Which of the following trauma centers is typically associated with a university and has specialty surgeons/physicians available 24 hours a day?

a)

Level 1 Trauma Center

b)

Level II Trauma Center

c)

Level III Trauma Center

d)

Level IV Trauma Center

14.

Which of the following is not true regarding informed consent?

a)

requires at least one witness

b)

patient may withdraw it at any point

c)

meant to protect patient, not healthcare team

d)

meant to increase patient's comprehension of procedure

15.

When a radiographic procedure order is placed from the ED (emergency department) and labeled as "STAT", the expectation is for it to be performed within __________ by the imaging deparmtnet.

a)

30 min

b)

60 min

c)

1.5 hours

d)

2 hours

16.

A severe injury or damage to the body caused by an accident or violence is referred to as a/an __________________.

a)

trauma

b)

STAT

c)

emergency

d)

ASAP

17.

In trauma imaging of long bones, it is acceptable to include only the joint closer to the injury.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

According to the latest data in the U.S., the number one reason for most trauma related injuries occur by which of the following?

a)

firearm

b)

drinking

c)

MVA

(motor vehicle accident)

d)

falls

19.

In most trauma scenarios, which of the following is primarily utilized/performed?

a)

Chest imaging

b)

Pelvis imaging

c)

C-spine imaging

d)

CT imaging

20.

When performing trauma radiography of extremities, which of the following is most important?

a)

only the joint closest to the injury is visible on all radiographs

b)

perform obliques by angling the tube instead of the extremity

c)

the fractured extremity be handled as one unit

d)

an initial image be taken and cleared before proceeding with other images

21.

During trauma radiography, which of the following are considered basic rules?

a)

reduce time of exposure

b)

decrease collimation

c)

ignore artifacts

d)

use shielding

(based upon age)

22.

As a radiographer when performing trauma exams, speed, accuracy, and professionalism are important, but there is also an obligation to do no further harm to the patient in the process. That is referred to as _________________.

a)

beneficence

b)

respect

c)

compassion

d)

non-maleficence

23.

Which type of shock typically results from a spinal injury and often requires immediate surgery?

a)

septic shock

b)

neurogenic shock

c)

cardiogenic shock

d)

hypovolemic shock

24.

An articulation injury that is caused by a wrenching or twisting of a joint that results in a partial tearing of ligaments is referred to as a _________________.

a)

subluxation

b)

sprain

c)

strain

d)

dislocation

25.

When an anterior dislocation of the shoulder is suspected, the radiographer should look for which of the following the Y-view Shoulder image?

a)

transverse fracture of humeral head

b)

humeral head inferior to coracoid process of scapula

c)

humeral head superimposed over glenoid cavity of scapula

d)

humeral head inferior to the acromion of scapula

26.

Which of the following is described as a traumatic brain injury that results in damage in to blood vessels causing a hematoma?

a)

contusion

b)

stroke

c)

concussion

d)

syncope

27.

A fracture described as being caused due to forces applied from both ends is considered a _________________ fracture.

a)

transverse

b)

segmental

c)

impacted

d)

compression

28.

A fracture that occurs at an angle to the bone is referred to as an ____________ fracture.

a)

spiral

b)

oblique

c)

transverse

d)

Colles

29.

Informed consent should include all of the following information except which one?

a)

undesirable outcomes

b)

alternative options

c)

signature

d)

potential cost of procedure

30.

Which of the following is responsible for obtaining informed consent prior to beginning an invasive radiographic procedure?

a)

radiographer

b)

nurse

c)

registration personnel

d)

physician/

radiologist

31.

Which type of consent would an emancipated 16 year old patient be able to obtain prior to undergoing an invasive procedure?

a)

simple consent

b)

substitute consent

c)

informed consent

d)

verbal consent