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Washington state license 1

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An individual who removes the risk of losing money in the stock market by never purchasing stocks is said to be engaging in

a)

Risk reduction

b)

Risk retention

c)

Risk avoidance

d)

Risk transference

2.

Which of these factors is NOT taken into consideration when determining the cost of a long-term care policy?

a)

Health of applicant

b)

Personal income

c)

Amount of benefits provided

d)

Age of applicant

3.

When does a life insurance policy typically become effective?

a)

When the policy is issued

b)

When the completed application is signed and initial premium is collected

c)

When initial premium is collected and policy is issued

d)

When the application is completed and signed

4.

Which of the following pertains to the analysis of an applicant's personal information and determining whether insurance should be issued or declined?

a)

Adverse calculation

b)

Underwriting

c)

Risk classification

d)

Actuarial determination

5.

A closed network plan offers a primary physician copay of $25. If a subscriber chooses a primary care physician outside of the network, the subscriber will likely pay

a)

100% of the allowed amount

b)

$0

c)

$25

d)

100% of the billed amount

6.

What is the elimination period of an individual disability policy?

a)

Time period an insured must wait before coverage begins

b)

Time period a disabled person must wait before benefits are paid

c)

Time period after the policy issue date in which the provisions are still contestable

d)

The point in time when benefits are no longer payable

7.

An indemnity plan limitation that will pay the dental bills after a small amount is paid by the insured is called

a)

a managed plan

b)

stop loss

c)

coinsurance

d)

a deductible

8.

No legal action can be initiated after years from the initial time written proof of loss has been provided.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

4

d)

2

9.

The waiver of premium does NOT include which provision?

a)

All future premiums are waived if the insured recovers from the disability

b)

If the insured qualifies, the premiums are waived retroactively to the beginning of the disability

c)

The waiver of premium generally does not extend past the insured's age 60 or 65

d)

The insured must be disabled for a set period of time before benefits begin

10.

Which of these is considered to be a document that describes the critical segments of a life insurance policy?

a)

Buyer's guide

b)

Policy summary

c)

Consumer report

d)

Buyer's summary

11.

When a decreasing term policy is purchased, it contains a decreasing death benefit and

a)

increasing premiums

b)

level premiums

c)

decreasing premiums

d)

variable premiums

12.

The focus of major medical insurance is providing coverage for

a)

critical illnesses only

b)

preventative care

c)

medical and hospitalization expenses

d)

doctor's visits

13.

An insurance applicant with a below-average likelihood of loss is typically considered to be a

a)

preferred risk

b)

subpar risk

c)

declined risk

d)

standard risk

14.

A policyholder has a major medical plan with a 80%/20% coinsurance and a deductible of $75. If the insured has previously met her deductible and receives a bill for $175, how much will the insurer pay?

a)

$75

b)

$140

c)

$100

d)

$35

15.

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding disclosure regulation?

a)

It only applies to individual annuities

b)

It requires the delivery of a buyer's guide and a disclosure document to applicants

c)

It establishes maximum standards for disclosure to annuitants

d)

It is intended to protect insurers

16.

What happens to the coverage under a children's term rider when that child reaches a certain specified age?

a)
  • Coverage decreases automatically

b)
  • Coverage increases automatically

c)
  • Coverage remains as long as proof of insurability is provided

d)
  • Coverage is eliminated

17.

Which of the following would be considered an underwriting duty of an agent?

a)

Requesting medical information from the Medical

Information Bureau (MIB)

b)

Completing all applications and collecting initial premiums

c)

Accepting or declining an application

d)

Assigning a risk classification

18.

What percentage of a participant's income are group long-term disability benefit amounts typically limited to?

a)

30%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

60%

19.

Which contract element is insurable interest a component of?

a)

Competent parties

b)

Offer and acceptance

c)

Consideration

d)

Legal purpose

20.

A tax-free Section 1035 Exchange of a life insurance policy to a different policy is permitted if it occurs

a)

in the same state as the original transaction

b)

within a 12 month period

c)

from insurer to insurer and no cash is received by the policyowner

d)

from agent to agent as long as the agents are licensed in the same line

21.

Joe has a life insurance policy that has a face amount of $300,000. After a number of years, the policy's cash value accumulates to $50,000 and the face amount becomes $350,000. What kind of policy is this?

a)

Increasing Term Life policy

b)

Nonparticipating policy

c)

Modified Whole Life policy

d)

Universal Life policy

22.

Suitability is best described as

a)

converting a term policy to a whole life policy

b)

obtaining information from the applicant to determine whether an insurance or annuity product is appropriate

c)

properly applying the insurer's underwriting guidelines to an applicant

d)

delivering the Buyer's Guide and Policy

Summary to the applicant

23.

An endorsement found in an insurance plan which modifies the provisions of the policy is called a(n)

a)

attachment

b)

add-on

c)

rider

d)

supplement

24.

An interest-sensitive life insurance policyowner may be able to withdraw the policy's cash value interest free.

The provision that allows this is called

a)

Partial Surrender

b)

Subrogation

c)

Automatic Premium Loan

d)

Accelerated Death Benefit

25.

Jonas has disability insurance through his employer. The employer pays 75% of the premium, and Jonas pays the other 25%. What is Jonas's tax liability for any benefits paid from the disability plan?

a)

Taxes must be paid on all benefits received

b)

No taxes are payable on any benefits received

c)

Taxes must be paid on 25% of the benefits received

d)

Taxes must be paid on 75% of the benefits received

26.

Statements made by an insurance applicant on an application are considered to be

a)

irrevocable

b)

warranties

c)

representations

d)

guarantees

27.

Who is required to notify the producer in the event of appointment termination?

a)

insurer

b)

Commissioner

c)

Governor

d)

Attorney General

28.

Which type of life insurance policy pays the face amount at the end of the specified period if the insured is still alive?

a)

Adjustable life policy

b)

Modified life policy

c)

Endowment policy

d)

Universal life policy

29.

Which of these riders will pay a death benefit if the insured's spouse dies?

a)

Guaranteed Insurability rider

b)

Family term insurance rider

c)

Family whole insurance rider

d)

Payor benefit rider

30.

Premiums paid that exceed 7 1/2% of an insured's Adjusted Gross Income

(AGI) are tax-deductible when paid for which of the following plans?

a)

Accidental Death and Dismemberment

b)

Personal Disability Income plan

c)

Qualified Long-Term Care plan

d)

Group disability income plan

31.

A non-contributory health insurance plan helps the insurer avoid

a)

adverse selection

b)

state compliance

c)

the underwriting process

d)

tax deductions

32.

Which type of policy combines the flexibility of a universal life policy with investment choices?

a)

Adjustable universal life policy

b)

Flexible universal life policy

c)

Variable universal life policy

d)

Modified universal life policy

33.

An insured has a stop-loss limit of $5,000, a deductible of $500, and an 80/20 coinsurance. The insured incurs $25,000 of covered losses. How much will the insured have to pay?

a)

$500

b)

$5,000

c)

$5,400

d)

$5,600

34.

If an accident and health (disability) policy is reinstated after it had lapsed for nonpayment, there is a waiting period of days before a claim covering sickness will be covered.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

35.

An employee under a group insurance policy has the right to name a beneficiary and the right to

a)

remain on the group plan in the event of employment termination

b)

cash surrender the existing policy

c)

change the policy provisions

d)

convert to an individual policy in the event of employment termination

36.

This MANDATORY health policy provision states that the policy, including endorsements and attached papers, constitutes

a)

the partial insurance contract between the parties

b)

the entire insurance contract between the parties

c)

the conformity of state statutes

d)

the legal purpose of the contract

37.

A policyowner can receive an immediate payment before the insured dies by using a(n)

a)

viatical settlement contract

b)

buy-sell arrangement

c)

adhesion agreement

d)

spendthrift plan

38.

A policyowner may change two policy features on what type of life insurance?

a)

Modified Whole Life

b)
  • Decreasing Term Life

c)
  • Adjustable Life

d)
  • Whole Life

39.

An attending physician's statement would be appropriate for which life insurance purpose?

a)

Attending physician's statements are mandatory during the application process

b)

At the request of the applicant to assist in the underwriting decision

c)

At the request of the producer to assist in the underwriting decision

d)

At the request of the insurer to assist in the underwriting decision

40.

Kristi purchases an annuity that will pay her husband an income for 15 years. If he dies, this income will become payable to their children for the remainder of the period. Kristi has what kind of annuity?

a)

Joint life with period certain

b)

Life annuity with survivorship

c)

Survivorship annuity

d)

Temporary annuity certain

41.

In an insurance contract, the element that shows each party is giving something of value is called

a)

offer

b)

acceptance

c)

consideration

d)

purpose

42.

Which type of life insurance is normally associated with a Payor Benefit rider?

a)

Juvenile insurance

b)

Family income insurance

c)

Spouse insurance

d)

Term rider

43.

Which of the following is considered to be an event or condition that increases the probability of an insured's loss?

a)

Risk

b)

Hazard

c)

Indemnity

d)

Peril

44.

Which of the following does Coordination of Benefits allow?

a)

Allows the secondary payor to reduce their benefit payments so no more than 100% of the claim is paid

b)

Allows both a group health plan and individual health plan to coordinate their benefit payments

c)

Allows the deductible to be spread out between all the health providers

d)

Allows each health provider to pay 100% of the claim

45.

What is a corridor in relation to a Universal Life insurance policy?

a)

The gap between the total death benefit and the policy's cash value

b)

The gap between when a claim is filed and when the death benefit is received

c)

The amount of interest that has accumulated in the policy's cash value

d)

The point in time when the policy's cash value reaches $O

46.

Which of these is NOT a qualifying event for Medicare?

a)

On Social Security disability for over 2 years

b)

Falling below the federal poverty level

c)

Kidney failure

d)

Age 65 or older

47.

In contrast to a guaranteed renewable policy, a noncancellable policy

a)

may cancel the policy only at renewal

b)

may raise premiums at policy renewal

c)

may raise premiums at anytime

d)

may never raise premiums

48.

An Outline of

is required for

long-term care policies and provides a brief description of the important features of the policy.

a)

Policy

b)

Coverage

c)

Benefits

d)

Summary

49.

Krissa purchases a 10-year level term life insurance policy that has a death benefit of $200,000. Which of these statements is true?

a)

The policy automatically converts to whole life after the 10-year period

b)

The face amount will remain constant and the premium will increase over the 10-year period

c)

The premium will remain constant and the face amount will increase over the 10-year period

d)

The face amount and premium will remain constant over the 10-year period

50.

A type of insurer that is owned by its policyowners is called

a)

domestic

b)

Mutual

c)

Stock

d)

In-house

51.

Which of the following is NOT an example of utilization review?

a)

monitoring length of hospital stay

b)

ongoing inspection of accident prone individuals

c)

monitoring the appropriateness of care

d)

setting a hospital release date for a patient

52.

Maria is a Preferred Provider

Organization (PPO) subscriber and received care from an out-of-network provider. Which of the following is the likely result?

a)

Care is covered

b)

Care is not covered

c)

Care is only covered in a government facility

d)

Care is only covered if primary care physician gives a referral

53.

In regards to a life insurance contract, which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the concept of insurable interest?

a)

Individuals are assumed to have insurable interest in themselves

b)

Insurable interest is established by a court of law

c)

Insurable interest can be established sufficiently by sentimental attachment alone

d)

Insurable interest must exist at the time of the application

54.

Phil is shopping for an annuity that guarantees he CANNOT outlive the benefits. Which of these benefit options would he choose?

a)

Accelerated lifetime benefit

b)

Guaranteed lifetime withdrawal benefit

c)

Right of income rider

d)

Guaranteed minimum accumulation benefit