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Worksheets

ELS Mega Reviewer

Total questions: 257

Worksheet time: 4hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which doomsday scenario for our Universe predicts a cold dark death, as a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics?

a)

The big chill/The heat death

b)

The big crunch.

c)

The big bounce.

d)

The big bang.

2.

Which doomsday hypothesis could be described as a reverse big bang, resulting in a hot dense end to our Universe?

a)

The big crunch.

b)

The big bang.

c)

The big chill.

d)

The big bounce.

3.

Which of the following ideas make up the Big Bang Theory?

a)

The Universe is currently expanding.

b)

The Universe was once hot and dense.

c)

The Universe has a finite size.

d)

The Universe is unbounded.

4.

Which description is considered most accurate regarding what actually happened during the Big Bang?

a)

Two galaxies collided causing an immense explosion as stars crashed into one another

b)

All of what would become the universe was concentrated in a single small point, or singularity, which rapidly expanded into what is now stars, planets, galaxies, matter, and energy.

c)

All matter emerged from a massive black hole at the center of the universe.

d)

Parts of the sun were ripped off by massive internal explosions and were thrown into space where they cooled to become other things, like plants, comets, and other galaxies.

5.

If something that makes light is moving away from you, it spreads the wavelengths of light out. This application of the Doppler effect is known as ___.

a)

blue shift

b)

green shift

c)

red shift

d)

black shift

6.

Most distant galaxies show a red shift. This is considered evidence that the universe is ___.

a)

getting cooler

b)

expanding

c)

condensing into a small point

d)

swirling around

7.

Observations of space indicate that most matter in the universe is ___.

a)

hydrogen, helium, and dark matter

b)

gold and plutonium

c)

oxygen and water vapor

d)

carbon

8.

Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation is a form of _________.

a)

Matter

b)

Energy

c)

Visible Light

d)

Water

9.

As galaxies move away from our galaxy

a shift on the electromagnetic spectrum is noticed. This phenomena is

called _____________.

a)

redshift

b)

blueshift

10.

How does Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation support the Big Bang Theory?

a)

Microwaves are found everywhere in the universe.

b)

Microwaves occurred at the time of the Big Bang

c)

Microwaves are useful in our everyday lives

11.

The Big Bang Theory explains the formation of the...

a)

Earth

b)

Sun

c)

Universe

d)

Solar System

12.
What does the Big Bang theory suggest?
a)
The universe was just there
b)
The Milky Way is the only solar system
c)
The universe is continually expanding
d)
The universe is collapsing in toward a single point
13.
What were the original two elements in our universe?
a)
Lithium and Carbon
b)
Hydrogen and Neon
c)
Helium and Chlorine
d)
Hydrogen and Helium
14.
The name of our solar system is called...?
a)
Snickers
b)
Butterfingers
c)
Milky Way 
d)
Hersheys
15.
What are terrestrial or the inner planets composed of?
a)
water
b)
gas
c)
rock 
d)
none of the above
16.
What are the jovial (outer) planets composed of ?
a)
rock
b)
gas
c)
dust
17.
Planets that are farther from the sun
a)
take more time to orbit
b)
take less time to orbit
18.
The greater mass a planet has, 
a)
the greater the gravitational force it has
b)
the less gravitational force it has
c)
gravitational force does not depend on mass
19.
All of the planets in our solar system orbit the sun because it has the largest 
a)
weight
b)
volume
c)
mass
20.
The Greater the distance is between two objects of mass the _________ amount of gravitational force is between them.
a)
greater
b)
less
c)
equal
21.
The spinning of the Earth on its axis that causes night and day.
a)
Rotate
b)
Revolve
22.
The moon appears to change shape because of _____.
a)
the Moon's revolution around Earth
b)
the seasons of the year
c)
the movement of stars in they sky
d)
Earth's rotation on its axis
23.
What causes Earth's seasons?
a)
the tilt of Earth's axis
b)
Earth's rotation
c)
the revolution of the Moon
d)
Earth's distance from the Sun
24.
It takes Earth _____________ to make one revolution or orbit around the Sun.
a)
365 days
b)
365 hours
c)
28 days
d)
24 hours
25.
A rocky body that orbits around a planet.
a)
moon
b)
star
c)
axis
d)
Sun
26.
The lunar cycle begins with which moon phase?
a)
New Moon
b)
Full Moon
c)
Waxing Crescent
d)
Waning Gibbous 
27.
The Nebular Theory is:
a)
A theory on how the Milky Way galaxy was formed
b)
A theory on how the universe was formed
c)
A theory on how the solar system will be destroyed
d)
A theory on how the solar system was formed
28.
The most abundant gases in a nebula are:
a)
Hydrogen & Oxygen
b)
Nitrogen & Oxygen
c)
Hydrogen & Helium
d)
Oxygen & Helium
29.

What happens during nuclear fusion in the sun?

a)

oxygen nuclei combine to form helium

b)

Helium nuclei combine to form oxygen

c)

helium nuclei combine to form hydrogen

d)

hydrogen nuclei combine to form helium

30.

Why does the sun appear bigger than all other stars?

a)

It is the biggest star in the universe.

b)

It is Earth's closest star.

c)

All other stars are much smaller than our star.

d)

The sun is the only star we can see.

31.

In comparison to other stars in the sky, the Sun appears brighter because it is ...

a)

hotter

b)

larger

c)

older

d)

closer

32.

Which stars are cooler?

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

yellow

33.

Which characteristics describe a star? Choose all that apply.

a)

Made of gas

b)

Made of rock

c)

Give off heat and light

d)

Close to our planet

e)

Far from our planet

34.

The outermost layer of the sun, which can only be seen during a solar eclipse, is the ...

a)

Hot zone

b)

Chromosphere

c)

Corona

d)

Phtosphere

35.
Which of these might be affected by solar flares?
a)
phone reception
b)
radio broadcasts
c)
satellites
d)
all of the above
36.

Which layer of the atmosphere has meteors?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

37.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ionosphere?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

38.

Which layer of the atmosphere has weather?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

39.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone?

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

40.

Temperature increases with height in the ______ due to solar radiation.

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

41.

Temperature increases with height in the ______ due to the ozone trapping heat.

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

42.

Temperature decreases with height in the ______ because there is nothing but thin air.

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

43.

Temperature decreases with height in the ______ because the heat from the surface rises and cools.

a)

troposphere

b)

stratosphere

c)

mesosphere

d)

thermosphere

44.

Which is not a factor that influences daily weather?

a)

heat

b)

air pressure

c)

elevation

d)

moisture

45.

What is the term for the day to day conditions of the atmosphere?

a)

weather

b)

climate

c)

hurrican

d)

global wind

46.

Which prevailing wind can be found between 30 and 60 degrees latitude?

a)

trade winds

b)

horse winds

c)

eaterlies

d)

westerlies

47.

Which prevailing wind can be found between 60 and 90 degrees latitude?

a)

trade winds

b)

horse winds

c)

eaterlies

d)

westerlies

48.

Which prevailing wind can be found between 0 and 30 degrees latitude?

a)

trade winds

b)

horse winds

c)

eaterlies

d)

westerlies

49.

Which gas makes up the largest portion of air?

a)

oxygen

b)

nitrogen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

methane

50.

What do you call the part of the atmosphere where molecules escape into space?

a)

doldrums

b)

ionosphere

c)

exosphere

d)

dead zone

51.

Ray of sunlight hitting the equator directly results in:

a)

fires

b)

cold weather

c)

a low pressure system

d)

a high pressure system

52.

What protects the earth from harmful UV rays from the sun?

a)

clouds

b)

ionosphere

c)

nitrogen gases

d)

the ozone

53.

Which type of cloud is this?

a)

cirrus

b)

stratus

c)

cumulus

54.

Which type of cloud is this?

a)

cirrus

b)

stratus

c)

cumulus

55.

Which type of cloud is this?

a)

cirrus

b)

stratus

c)

cumulus

56.
Which factor does NOT affect temperature: 
a)
Latitude.
b)
Distance from the sea.
c)
Longitude. 
d)
Altitude.
57.

Areas near the sea are cooler in summer and warmer in winter.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What causes changes in seasons?

a)

The earth spinning

b)

The earth tilting on its axis

c)

The earth revolving around the sun

d)

The earth's elliptical orbit

59.

In New York State there is a greater chance of precipitation falling as snow in January than in March, because in January the Northern Hemisphere is tilted:

a)

toward the Sun, and temperatures are warmer

b)

toward the Sun, and temperatures are colder

c)

away from the Sun, and temperatures are warmer

d)

away from the Sun, and temperatures are colder

60.
Several months during the year that have similar temperatures 
a)
Season
b)
climate
c)
weather
d)
Summer
61.
Rain, snow sleet, or hail that falls from the clouds in the sky
a)
humidity
b)
liquid
c)
precipitation
d)
weather
62.
Average weather conditions of a region year after year
a)
weather
b)
season
c)
cold front
d)
climate
63.
Which observation describes a change in climate rather than a change in weather?
a)
The thunderstorm dropped about three centimeters of rain today.
b)
The average summer temperatures have increased over the last ten years.
c)
 The snowfall in this area was more this week than it was last week.
d)
The average wind speed in April was less than it was in March.
64.
Which statement about Hawaii refers to its climate?
a)
A blizzard occurs on one of Hawaii’s tallest mountain peaks.
b)
A high temperature of 37.8°C was recorded earlier today in Hawaii.
c)
The mountains were shaded by cumulus clouds on a Tuesday afternoon.
d)
The coolest months are February and March.
65.
Two major factors used to identify climate are?
a)
longitude and latitude
b)
temperature and precipitation
c)
lattitude and temperature
d)
layers in the atmosphere
66.

A small, very intense cyclonic storm with exceedingly high winds, most often produced along cold fronts in conjunction with severe thunderstorms

a)

hurricane

b)

tornado

c)

air mass

d)

cold front

67.

Lines of latitude are also known as:

a)

parallels

b)

perpendiculars

c)

longitude

d)

rungs

68.

Lines of latitude run in which direction?

a)

east and west

b)

north and south

69.

Lines of latitude measure _______ and __________ from the equator?

a)

east and west

b)

north and south

70.

Lines of longitude run in which direction?

a)

east and west

b)

north and south

71.

Lines of longitude measure ________ and ___________ from the Prime Meridian

a)

east and west

b)

north and south

72.

The areas between the equator and 30 degrees North/South is known is also known as _________ AND ____________.

a)

low latitudes

b)

high latitudes

c)

tropical climate zone

d)

temperate climate zone

e)

arctic climate zone

73.

The areas between the 30 and 60 degrees North/South is known is also known as _________ AND ____________.

a)

middle latitudes

b)

high latitudes

c)

tropical climate zone

d)

temperate climate zone

e)

arctic climate zone

74.

The areas between the 60 and 90 degrees North/South is known is also known as _________ AND ____________.

a)

middle latitudes

b)

high latitudes

c)

tropical climate zone

d)

temperate climate zone

e)

arctic climate zone

75.

The climatic effect shown in this photo where one side of the mountains receives less precipitation is known as:

a)

rainshadow

b)

monsoon

c)

rain cycle

d)

wind convection

76.

Which theory proposes that the universe originated from a singularity and underwent rapid expansion?

a)

Steady State Theory

b)

String Theory

c)

Cyclic Universe Theory

d)

Big Bang Theory

77.

The Steady State Theory suggests that the universe:

a)

originated from a singularity.

b)

experiences continuous cycles of expansion and contraction.

c)

is composed of vibrating strings.

d)

is a computer simulation.

78.

String Theory and Brane Theory seek to unify which two fundamental forces?

a)

electromagnetic and gravitational

b)

gravitational and strong nuclear

c)

weak nuclear and strong nuclear

d)

electromagnetic and weak nuclear

79.

What does the Inflation Theory explain about the early universe after the Big Bang?

a)

rapid expansion

b)

cyclic patterns

c)

collisions of branes

d)

continuous creation of matter

80.

The Multiverse Theory proposes the existence of:

a)

a single universe with perfectly tuned properties.

b)

multiple universes with different properties.

c)

a simulated reality.

d)

a cyclic universe.

81.

Which theory suggests that the universe is a computer simulation?

a)

Inflation Theory

b)

Quantum Fluctuation Hypothesis

c)

Simulated Universe Hypothesis

d)

Ekpyrotic Universe Theory

82.

The Cyclic Universe Theory proposes that the universe experiences:

a)

rapid expansion from a singularity.

b)

continuous cycles of expansion and contraction.

c)

vibrations of strings.

d)

collisions of branes.

83.

The Quantum Fluctuation Hypothesis suggests that the universe:

a)

emerged from a singularity.

b)

experiences continuous cycles of expansion.

c)

originated from a quantum fluctuation.

d)

is composed of vibrating strings.

84.

Mythological Theories explain the origin of the universe through:

a)

empirical evidence and observations.

b)

mathematical models and calculations.

c)

deities and cosmic forces in cultural narratives.

d)

quantum fluctuations in the vacuum.

85.

The Simulated Universe Hypothesis raises questions about:

a)

the fine-tuning of the universe.

b)

the origin of quantum fluctuations.

c)

the nature of reality and our existence.

d)

the expansion of the universe.

86.

Which theory suggests that the universe emerged from a collision of branes?

a)

String Theory

b)

Inflation Theory

c)

Simulated Universe Hypothesis

d)

Ekpyrotic Universe Theory

87.

Which theory proposes continuous creation of matter to maintain a constant density universe?

a)

Big Bang Theory

b)

Steady State Theory

c)

Multiverse Theory

d)

Inflation Theory

88.

The main implication of String Theory and Brane Theory is to:

a)

explain the early expansion of the universe.

b)

address the fine-tuning of the universe.

c)

unify quantum mechanics and gravity.

d)

suggest the existence of multiple universes.

89.

The Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation is evidence supporting:

a)

the Cyclic Universe Theory.

b)

the Big Bang Theory.

c)

the Inflation Theory.

d)

the Quantum Fluctuation Hypothesis.

90.

Which theory proposes that the universe experiences eternal cycles of expansion and contraction?

a)

Big Bang Theory

b)

Multiverse Theory

c)

Cyclic Universe Theory

d)

String Theory

91.

Which theory addresses the fine-tuning of the universe by suggesting multiple universes with different properties?

a)

Simulated Universe Hypothesis

b)

Quantum Fluctuation Hypothesis

c)

Steady State Theory

d)

Multiverse Theory

92.

Which theory suggests that the universe emerged from a quantum fluctuation caused by the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle?

a)

Ekpyrotic Universe Theory

b)

Inflation Theory

c)

Quantum Fluctuation Hypothesis

d)

Steady State Theory

93.

The main implication of the Inflation Theory is to explain:

a)

the origin of mythological narratives.

b)

the fine-tuning of the universe.

c)

the continuous creation of matter.

d)

the rapid expansion of the early universe.

94.

Which theory proposes that our reality is a computer simulation?

a)

Inflation Theory

b)

Simulated Universe Hypothesis

c)

Big Bang Theory

d)

Cyclic Universe Theory

95.

The primary focus of the Cyclic Universe Theory is on:

a)

unifying quantum mechanics and gravity.

b)

explaining the early expansion of the universe.

c)

proposing multiple universes with different properties.

d)

eternal cycles of expansion and contraction.

96.

The solar nebula that formed our solar system was thought to be put in motion by a ______.

a)

nearby supernova

b)

black hole

c)

creative intelligence

d)

condensation nucleus

97.

What is most likely to be found in a nebula?

a)

planets

b)

asteroids

c)

stars

d)

gas clouds

98.

The scientist who first challenged the Earth-centered Universe model was _______.

a)

Newton

b)

Ptolemy

c)

Copernicus

d)

Galilei

99.

All of the following are hypotheses of the formation of the solar system EXCEPT

a)

Big Bang Hypothesis

b)

Nebular Hypothesis

c)

Protoplanet Hypothesis

d)

Encounter Hypothesis

100.

Our solar system began as a ________.

a)

quasar

b)

neutron star

c)

nebula

d)

atom

101.

What is the age of our solar system?

a)

4.7 billion years old

b)

4.6 million years olm

c)

500 billion years old

d)

17.2 billion years old

102.

The expansion of the universe is ________.

a)

a steady process with no identifiable events

b)

a steady process that is punctuated by abrupt transitions

c)

a jumpy process that is completely unpredictable.

d)

no longer occurring today.

103.

What are Nebular Clouds?

a)

an interstellar cloud of dust, hydrogen, helium and other ionized gases

b)

an increase (or decrease) in the frequency of sound, light, or other waves

c)

the galaxy that contains our Solar System

d)

a particle attracts every other particle in the universe

104.

Which of the following puts the events in order from first to last?

a)

Big Bang, our sun, first star, life on Earth

b)

Big Bang, first star, our sun, life on Earth

c)

Big Bang, life on Earth, our sun, first star

d)

First star, Big bang, life on Earth, our sun

105.

A model of the universe in which Earth is at the center of the revolving planets and stars. This includes the sun revolving around the Earth. This model is no longer supported.

a)

Heliocentric

b)

Geocentric

c)

Paleozoic

d)

Mesozoic

106.

Which of the following is not a gas giant?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mercury

c)

Pluto

d)

Saturn

107.
Which BEST describes the rock cycle?
a)
New rocks form from older rocks.
b)
Lunar rocks change into terrestrial rocks.
c)
Rocks in the ocean become rocks on land.
d)
Layers of rock are broken by faults.
108.
How are sedimentary rocks, such as shale and sandstone, formed?
a)
Particles are changed into liquids.
b)
Particles are compressed into layers.
c)
Particles are melted together by magma.
d)
Particles are heated by the Sun.
109.
In order for sediments to become rock, the sediments are generally
a)
liquefied.
b)
compacted.
c)
returned to their origins.
d)
mixed with organic material.
110.
One condition necessary to produce diamonds is
a)
low temperatures
b)
quick cooling
c)
intense pressure
d)
high altitude
111.
Which of these substances is a mineral?
a)
sandstone
b)
granite
c)
quartz
d)
coal
112.
Which processes must occur in order for an igneous rock to change into a metamorphic rock?
a)
heating and pressure
b)
compaction and cementation
c)
melting and cooling
d)
uplift and erosion
113.
Which process forms the mineral halite?
a)
the slow crystallization of magma deep in the crust
b)
the cementing together of sediment particles
c)
the hardening of lava in seawater
d)
the evaporation of seawater
114.
Which process forms both metamorphic and sedimentary rock?
a)
recrystallization
b)
heating
c)
weathering
d)
compacting
115.
When buried sediments are subjected to pressure, the mineral grains are squeezed together. This causes
a)
layers to rise to the surface
b)
new rock to be formed
c)
earthquakes
d)
volcanoes
116.
Which processes change magma into igneous rock?
a)
weathering and erosion
b)
heat and pressure
c)
compaction and cementation
d)
cooling and crystallization
117.
Gneiss is a rock because it
a)
is hard and round.
b)
has crystals.
c)
is made of minerals.
d)
has mass.
118.
Which statement is true about rocks?
a)
Magma is made of solid rock.
b)
Rocks are made of one or more minerals.
c)
Crystals are made of rocks.
d)
Minerals are made of one or more rocks.
119.
Minerals are made of one or more
a)
minerals.
b)
sediments.
c)
elements.
d)
rocks.
120.
One rock was formed from rapidly cooling lava and is smooth and glassy. The other rock was formed from slow-cooling magma, so has large crystals. Which rock property is represented by these characteristics?
a)
color
b)
texture
c)
fracture
d)
hardness
121.
Which sentence BEST describes a process in the rock cycle?
a)
Sedimentary rocks can melt to become metamorphic rocks.
b)
Volcanoes can deposit sedimentary rock to form mountains.
c)
Metamorphic rocks can form by the weathering process.
d)
Igneous rocks can become metamorphic and sedimentary rocks.
122.
Which process causes sand grains to stick together to form sandstone?
a)
cementation
b)
abrasion
c)
combustion
d)
erosion
123.
Which type of rock is formed when particles are compacted and cemented together?
a)
igneous
b)
metamorphic
c)
sedimentary
d)
metallic
124.
Coal is formed from
a)
plant remains decomposed under pressure.
b)
melted and cooled metamorphic rock.
c)
natural gas subjected to heat.
d)
seas that have evaporated.
125.
Sedimentary rock forms when rock is first
a)
broken down by weathering.
b)
melted into liquid magma.
c)
exposed to great temperature.
d)
crystallized into natural glass.
126.
Minerals are formed by which process?
a)
sedimentation
b)
metamorphosis
c)
fault lines moving
d)
magma cooling
127.

What layer of the earth is made of liquid magma?

a)

innner core

b)

mantle

c)

crust

d)

outer core

128.
What layer of the earth is made of soild iron and nickel?
a)
innner core
b)
mantle
c)
crust
d)
outer core
129.
naturally occuring chemical element or inorganic compound thats exists as a solid
a)
rock
b)
mineral
c)
ore
d)
natural gas
130.
Which is not a characteristic of all minerals?
a)
definite chemical composition
b)
man-made
c)
organic
d)
soild
131.
You scratch rocks together to see which one leaves a mark, what are you testing?
a)
luster
b)
hardenss
c)
streak
d)
density
132.
If you scrape a rock across a piece of porcelain, what identification property are you testing?
a)
luster
b)
hardenss
c)
streak
d)
density
133.
solid combination of one or more minerals found in the earth’s crust
a)
rock
b)
mineral
c)
ore
d)
natural gas
134.

Which is TRUE about the continental crust?

a)

It is thinner than oceanic crust

b)

It is denser than oceanic crust

c)

It is thicker but less dense than the oceanic crust

d)

It is thinner and more dense than the oceanic crust

135.

Earth’s lithosphere is made up of what layer/s?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Crust and Mantle

d)

Crust and upper mantle

136.

Which is NOT true about the lithosphere?

a)

It has the same thickness everywhere

b)

It is the outermost part of the earth

c)

It is composed of the continents and the ocean floor

d)

It varies in thickness

137.
Which of the following is a fossil fuel?
a)
Wind
b)
Coal
c)
Solar
d)
Biomass
138.
What characteristic do all renewable resources share?
a)
Produced by waste products
b)
Form underground from dead organisms.
c)
Replaced in a short period of time
d)
Allow energy to pass through them easily
139.
Petroleum and natural gas form from...
a)
strong winds
b)
cooled magma
c)
radioactive materials
d)
remains of plants and animals 
140.
The careful use of a resource is....
a)
recycling
b)
pollution
c)
depositing
d)
conservation
141.
The type of energy that cattle create is ________? 
a)
biomass
b)
solar
c)
natural gas
d)
nuclear
142.
Carbon enters the living world through the process of _____.
a)
photosynthesis
b)
respiration
c)
combustion
d)
decomposition
143.
In the atmosphere, carbon attaches to oxygen to form _____.
a)
C
b)
O
c)
CO2 
d)
C6H12O6
144.
The process of burning is called _____.
a)
decomposition
b)
combustion
c)
respiration
145.
In this diagram, how many ways can carbon enter the living world?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
146.
Burning fossil fuel has which effect in the carbon cycle?
a)
It removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
b)
It puts carbon dioxide under the ground.
c)
It adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.
d)
It has no effect in the carbon cycle.
147.
Study the graph below.  Where is most of the Earth's water located?
a)
Rivers and Lakes
b)
Glaciers and Icecaps
c)
oceans
d)
groundwater
148.

Typhoon is locally known as ________________________

a)

baha

b)

ulan

c)

bagyo

d)

buhawi

149.

The _________________ is the area of lowest atmospheric pressure in the structure of the tropical cyclone.

a)

eyewall

b)

eye

c)

rain bands

d)

clouds

150.

This is the localized unusual increase of sea water level which can be brought by a tropical cyclone.

a)

storm surge

b)

high tide

c)

flooding

d)

tsunami

151.

When a tropical cyclone has caused 300 casualties or more than 1 billion worth of damage, it is removed from the list of typhoons because ________________.

a)

it might cause confusion

b)

it might bring back memories to survivors

c)

PAG-ASA just feels that it is time to change it

d)

first two choices are correct

152.

Wind speed is 121 kph to 170 kph within the next 18 hours

a)

PSWS 1

b)

PSWS 2

c)

PSWS 3

d)

PSWS 4

153.

An instrument used to detect and record earthquakes.

a)

seismic

b)

router

c)

seismograph

d)

ground shaking

154.

It produce tremors that occur before or after an explosion. It is relatively not common unlike tectonic earthquake.

a)

Volcanic eruption

b)

plate

c)

after shock

d)

ground shaking

155.

Occurs when trembling of earthquake cause of a soil to lose strength and flow.

a)

Volcanic eruption

b)

explosion earthquakes

c)

after shock

d)

.liquefaction

156.

Movements within the earth’s crust cause stress to build up weakness and rocks to deform, also rocks breaking under stress.

a)

Volcanic eruption

b)

explosion earthquakes

c)

after shock

d)

Induced Ground Subsidence

157.

A large wave in the ocean, usually cause by underwater volcanic eruption,earthquake,or coastal landslide

a)

tsunami

b)

explosion earthquakes

c)

Induced landslide

d)

Induced Ground Subsidence

158.

An observant person can sense a tsunami coming that by assessing the following:

a)

Feel severe tremor

b)

See high water surge

c)

Hear a bizarre howl

d)

Hear sizzling sounds

159.

Provinces at Risk for Earthquake:

a)

La Union

b)

Benguet

c)

Tawi-tawi

d)

Pangasinan

160.

Provinces at Risk for Tsunami.

a)

Sulu

b)

Tawi-tawi

c)

Basilan

d)

Pampanga

161.

Tsunami Preparedness Checklist:

a)

Prepare and make a disaster supply kit and have a family plan.

b)

Readiness and awareness may protect you.

c)

Everyone in your household should know what to carry out if tsunami arises.

d)

Ready for the aftershocks and follow your school/work place emergency plan or instructions of the person in charge.

162.

Measures that can be taken DURING an earthquake:

a)

Do deep breathing exercise and stay safe and calm.

b)

Up against a wall near the center of the building or stand in a doorway.

c)

No matter what, stay away from power lines, broken lines, and using candles, matches

or any flame are prohibited.

d)

Determine the elevation of your street above sea level and the expanse of your street from the shoreline.

163.

Earthquake safety checklist:

a)

Arrange your heavy furniture, water tanks, and gas tank in a lower ground.

b)

Teach each member of the family how to use the emergency equipment.

c)

Family members should be familiar in turning off gas tank, water valve and electricity.

d)

Everyone in your household should know what to carry out if tsunami arises.

164.
Which of the following is NOT one of the causes of landslides?
a)
earthquakes
b)
wind abrasion
c)
fires
d)
volcanic eruptions
165.
What always plays the main role in a landslide, regardless of the cause?
a)
Mud
b)
Gravity
c)
Wind
d)
Earthquakes
166.
What happens during a rainstorm when the ground can't soak up any more water?
a)
a tsunami
b)
an earthquake
c)
a swimming pool forms
d)
a flood
167.
Why would streets get flooded during a rainstorm?
a)
The storm drains overflow
b)
Too many cars on the road
c)
The water soaks in
d)
People water their grass too much
168.

These are high concentration density currents essentially non-turbulent and confined to valleys.

(a)  

169.

Which from these volcanoes in the Philippines are active?

a)

Mt. Hibok-hibok

b)

Mt. Makiling

c)

Mt. Bontes

d)

Mt. Pinatubo

e)

Mt. Ragang

170.
Stretching rock so it becomes thinner in the middle is what kind of stress?
a)
tension
b)
compression
c)
shearing
171.

What is a primary earthquake wave that travels through the body of the earth; so named because it is the first wave to reach a seismograph station during an earthquake.

a)

P-wave

b)

S-wave

c)

Surface wave

d)

body wave

172.

Duck, cover and hold wherever you are.

a)

Do it before an earthquake.

b)

Do it after an earthquake.

c)

Do it during an earthquake.

173.

Make a plan of where to meet your family after an earthquake.

a)

Do it during an earthquake

b)

Do it before an earthquake

c)

Do it after an earthquake

174.

Participate in earthquake drill conducted in your school.

a)

Do it before an earthquake

b)

Do it after an earthquake

c)

Do it during an earthquake

175.

If you are at school, follow the emergency plan or the instruction of the teacher.

a)

Do it before an earthquake

b)

Do it during an earthquake

c)

Do it after an earthquake

176.

If you are near the shore, move quickly to a higher ground.

a)

Do it after an earthquake

b)

Do it before an earthquake

c)

Do it during an earthquake

177.

Stay out of damaged buildings and concrete walls which may fall over.

a)

Do it during an earthquake

b)

do it after an earthquake

c)

Do it before an earthquake

178.

Keep yourself safe from falling objects during an earthquake.

a)

Do it before an earthquake

b)

Do it after an earthquake

c)

Do it during an earthquake

179.
Where are volcanoes most likely to form?
a)
In the middle of continents
b)
Along plate boundaries
c)
In mountains
d)
away from earthquakes
180.
Which feature is formed at convergent boundaries?
a)
mountains
b)
mid ocean ridge
c)
divergent boundary
d)
faults
181.
Which of the following is evidence for continental drift?
a)
old maps
b)
volcanoes
c)
earthquakes
d)
fossils
182.
Waves move out through the ground from the ..........
a)
rift
b)
hypocenter
c)
epicenter
d)
fault line
183.

Plants use photosynthesis to make

a)

water

b)

sunlight

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

sugar

184.

Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?

a)

prokaryotic and aerobic

b)

prokaryotic and anaerobic

c)

eukaryotic and aerobic

d)

eukaryotic and anaerobic

185.

Which types of organisms developed first due to the early environmental conditions on Earth?

a)

prokaryotic and aerobic

b)

prokaryotic and anaerobic

c)

eukaryotic and aerobic

d)

eukaryotic and anaerobic

186.
Cells without a nucleus are said to be _____________________.
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
187.
Miller/Urey and other scientists have shown that:
a)
 Life on early Earth required material from space
b)
Cells survived in the primitive atmosphere
c)
Amino acids could be produced from inorganic molecules 
d)
Simple cells can be produced in a laboratory
188.

Which scientist disproved the idea of spontaneous generation once and for all by using a specifically designed swan-necked flask to heat broth?

a)

Spallanzani

b)

Pasteur

c)

Redi

d)

Needham

189.

Which of the following is the natural law that states that living organisms come only from other living organisms and are not created from nonliving materials?

a)

evolution

b)

oxidation

c)

biogenesis

d)

abiogenesis

190.

In Stanley Miller's and Harold Urey's experiment what chemical was intentionally left out?

a)

oxygen

b)

hydrogen

c)

methane

d)

ammonia

191.

This theory of the origin of life states that living things come from nonliving matter.

a)

spontaneous generation

b)

bubble hypothesis

c)

Primordial Soup theory

d)

Meteorite theory

192.

The Earth was ‘seeded’ with life by other sources in the universe

a)

universal truth theory

b)

panspermia

c)

alien seeding theory

d)

meteor shower hypothesis

193.

What type of organisms created oxygen for early life on Earth?

a)

Heterotrophic Bacteria

b)

Photosynthetic Bacteria

c)

Animals

d)

Plants

194.

Cells with a nucleus are called

a)

eukaryotic cells

b)

prokaryotic cells

c)

bacteria cells

d)

autotrophs

195.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
196.

Which is NOT a eukaryote?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Archaea

d)

Protists

197.
A heterotroph means?
a)
feeds itself
b)
feeds on other organisms
c)
2 word name
d)
8 legged
198.
The 2 kingdoms that make up Prokaryotes are?
a)
Animals and Plants 
b)
Protists and Fungi
c)
Archea and Bacteria
199.
Which one of these is NOT one of the characteristics of living things?
a)

All living things absorb water.

b)
All living things are composed of one or more cells.
c)

All living things grow and develop.

d)
All living things reproduce.
200.

1. It explains that life originated on another planet outside our Solar System.

a)

A. Extraterrestrial Origin

b)

B. Panspermia         

c)

C. Divine Creation

d)

D. Origin from nonliving matter

201.

2. This theory presumes that the "seed" of life exists all over the universe and can be propagated through space and that life on Earth originated from those seeds.

a)

A. Extraterrestrial Origin    

b)

B. Panspermia

c)

C. Divine Creation

d)

D. Origin from nonliving matter

202.

3. It believes that life was put on Earth by divine forces.

a)

A. Extraterrestrial Origin                                                    

b)

B. Panspermia                                                                     

c)

C. Divine Creation

d)

                                 D. Origin from nonliving matter

203.

4. It is believed that life arose on Earth from inanimate matter after Earth had cooled.

a)

A. Extraterrestrial Origin

b)

B. Panspermia         

c)

C. Divine Creation

d)

D. Origin from nonliving matter

204.

The only testable hypothesis for the origin of life on Earth.

a)

A. Extraterrestrial Origin

b)

B. Panspermia         

c)

C. Divine Creation

d)

D. Origin from nonliving matter

205.

6. These are among the products of Miller's and Urey's experiments.

a)

A. Amino Acids

b)

B. Bacterial Cells

c)

C. Ammonia and Hydrogen

d)

D. Prokaryotes

206.

Earth includes beach grasses, forms of life in the sea, on land, and even in the air. Which term best describes the statement?

a)

atmosphere

b)

biosphere

c)

geosphere

d)

hydrosphere

207.

Microevolution are changes that does a small and large impacts on the specific genes.

a)

True

b)

False

208.

The similarities which are found in embryos of a species that grow up to be very different are evidences of common anatomy

a)

True

b)

False

209.

Human and chimpanzee insulin proteins are much more similar (about 98% identical) than human and chicken insulin proteins (about 64% identical), reflecting that humans and chimpanzees are more closely related than humans and chickens

a)

True

b)

False

210.

All living organisms have the same (a)   (small letters only<3)

211.

Give one evidence of evolution (based on our report or in the video) SMALL LETTERS ONLY:>

(a)  

212.

______________ is where the genetic makeup has been changed

a)

Microevolution

b)

Macroevolution

c)

Evolution

d)

Gene mutation

213.

__________ layers are formed in sedimentary rocks.

a)

Dna

b)

Evolutionary

c)

Biographic

d)

Fossil

214.

To converge means to come together, like two lines meeting at a point.

a)

Converging Evolution

b)

Convert Evolution

c)

Converge Evolution

d)

Convergent Evolution

215.

Structural evidence , also called as anatomical evidence , involves comparing the body structures of __________

a)

anatomy

b)

biogeography

c)

organisms

d)

molecule

216.

While complex organisms require many different genes to build their structures, some of the genes for basic cell functions and _______________ are found in ALL life.

a)

basic molecular function

b)

anatomical functions

c)

metabolic processes

d)

analitical process

217.

Stimulus is

a)

organisms that are made up of more than one cell

b)

a membrane-covered structure that contains all of the materials necessary for life.

c)

a change that affects the activity of an organism.

d)

the maintenance of a stable internal environment.

218.

___________a molecule that is present in all living cells and that contains the information that determines the traits a living thing inherits and needs to live.

a)

Cell

b)

Stimulus

c)

Homeostasis

d)

DNA

219.
When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
220.
Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
221.
A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes.
a)
All living things adapt to their environment
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things have cells
d)
All living things use energy
222.
Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11".
a)
All living things contain cells
b)
All living things maintain homeostasis
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things grow
223.
The roots of a plant grow towards a source of ground water.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things reproduce
c)
All living things respond to their environment
d)
All living things grow
224.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
225.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
226.

Which of the following is an example of homeostasis?

a)

adapting to your environment

b)

maintaining an appropriate respiration rate

c)

the sum of all of your chemical reactions

d)

being composed of more than one cell

227.

The sum of all the chemical reactions in your body?

a)

organization

b)

metabolism

c)

homeostasis

d)

evolution

228.

Living things are made up of units called

a)

DNA

b)

Cells

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Seeds

229.

Living things are based on a universal genetic

code. What molecule is responsible for that code?

a)

RNA

b)

Lipid

c)

Protein

d)

DNA

230.
Rocks are not living because
a)
they never move
b)
they aren't needed for humans
c)
they are not made of cells
d)
they don't break down
231.
In order for something to be considered a living organism, it must display _____ of the eight characteristics of living things.
a)
one
b)
some
c)
all
d)
more than half
232.
What is the most basic unit of life?
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
233.
The scientific name for something living is a(an)
a)
organism
b)
cell
c)
tissue
d)
human
234.
An organism made of one cell is called
a)
unicellular
b)
multicellular
235.
It is hot outside. You start sweating. In this case, the hot weather is the...
a)
stimulus
b)
response
c)
cause and effect
d)
responder
236.

The combination of chemical reactions through

which an organism builds up or breaks down

materials as it carries out its life processes is called ...

a)

absorption

b)

metabolism

c)

digestion

d)

consumption

237.

Maintaining a stable internal

environment is called

a)

homeostasis

b)

equilibrium

c)

balance

d)

evenness

238.

When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things use energy

b)

All living things contain cells

c)

All living things maintain homeostasis

d)

All living things grow

239.

Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things use energy

b)

All living things contain cells

c)

All living things maintain homeostasis

d)

All living things grow

240.

A baby song bird hatches from its egg with both parent songbirds watching. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things reproduce

b)

All living things maintain homeostasis

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things grow

241.

A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things adapt to their environment

b)

All living things grow

c)

All living things have cells

d)

All living things use energy

242.
Rocks are not living because
a)
they never move
b)
they aren't needed for humans
c)
they are not made of cells
d)
they don't break down
243.
A worm turns away from light is an example of a worm
a)
reproducing
b)
doing cellular respiration
c)
having cells
d)
responding to its environment
244.

Which of the following is an example of homeostasis?

a)

adapting to your environment

b)

maintaining an appropriate respiration rate

c)

the sum of all of your chemical reactions

d)

being composed of more than one cell

245.

Which of the following is a stimulus?

a)

removing your hand from a hot stove

b)

swinging a bat at a baseball

c)

screaming when something scares you

d)

a ball moving from the pitching mound to home plate towards a batter

246.

Which of the following is a response?

a)

a flashlight shined into the eye

b)

a rubber band popping your hand

c)

your pupils constricting when exposed to bright light

d)

blood glucose levels drop significantly

247.

Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11". Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things contain cells

b)

All living things maintain homeostasis

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things grow

248.

An adult hydra is producing its offspring through budding. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things use energy

b)

All living things reproduce

c)

All living things contain cells

d)

All living things grow

249.

Over many hundreds of years, a population of rabbits living in the woods adapts to its surrounding with brown fur. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things adapt to their environment

b)

All living things grow

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things have cells

250.
When a baby kitten becomes an adult cat, this is an example of...
a)
energy metabolism
b)
growth and development
c)
response to stimuli
d)
having cells
251.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?
a)
a.  Organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system
b)
a.  Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism
c)
a.  Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
d)
a.  Cell, organ, tissue, organ, organism, organ system
252.

What is likely to happen to a species that is poorly suited to its environment? *

a)

it will not survive

b)

it will survive and have lots of offspring

253.

The best-adapted organisms are more likely to survive and breed. This is called *

a)

Mutation

b)

Natural Selction

c)

Selective breeding

d)

Evolution

254.

Which one of the following is not a reason why species adapt and change?

a)

too much food available

b)

producing too many young

c)

producing too many offspring

d)

competition for the same resources

255.

The theory of evolution by natural selection was independently developed by *

a)

Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson

b)

Charles Darwin and James Watson

c)

Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace

d)

James Watson and Francis Crick

256.

hrough careful observation of Charles Darwin, which phrase best described where Darwin came to know that?

a)

populations of plants and animals in nature most frequently contains individuals that are clones of every other

b)

those individuals whose variation gives them a plus in staying alive long enough to breed are more likely to pass their traits on to subsequent generation

c)

populations of a species that become isolated from others by adapting to different environmental niches quickly become extinct

d)

All of the above

257.

Which of the following is NOT an example of physical adaptations traits by natural selection?

a)

Color

b)

Camouflage

c)

Mimicry

d)

Migration

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