wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

T316-Revesion

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 3hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Ability of computing equipment manufactured by different vendors to communicate with one another successfully over a network.

a)

standard

b)

interoperability

c)

sneaker net

d)

protocol

2.

One sender to all addresses.

a)

unicast

b)

broadcast

c)

multicast

3.

The amount of time it takes for a data packet to go from one place to another.

a)

latency

b)

throughput

c)

bandwidth

d)

speed

4.

VLANs improve network performance by segmenting broadcast domains.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

VLANs can improve security by isolating sensitive data from the rest of the network.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

PC1 sends an ARP broadcast frame. Which PC will receive the ARP broadcast frame?

a)

PC2

b)

PC3

c)

PC4

d)

PC5

e)

PC6

7.

PC2 sends an ARP broadcast frame. Which PCs will receive the ARP broadcast frame? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

PC2

b)

PC3

c)

PC4

d)

PC5

e)

PC6

8.

PC3 sends an ARP broadcast frame. Which PC will receive the ARP broadcast frame?

a)

PC2

b)

PC3

c)

PC4

d)

PC5

e)

PC6

9.

What is indicated by the term throughput?

a)

the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP

b)

the measure of the usable data transferred across the media

c)

the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

d)

the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time

e)

the capacity of a particular medium to carry data

10.

Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

a)

the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires

b)

the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting

c)

the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths

d)

the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

11.

A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What is a possible cause of the signal distortion?

a)

the elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed

b)

the microwave oven

c)

the large number of trees that surround the office

d)

the number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN

12.

What is the definition of bandwidth?

a)

the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time

b)

the speed at which bits travel on the network

c)

the speed of bits across the media over a given period of time

d)

the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time

13.

Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?

a)

IANA

b)

IEEE

c)

TIA

d)

ISO

14.

A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

a)

The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance requirements.

b)

The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

c)

The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.

d)

The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.

15.

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three.)

a)

IEEE

b)

MAC

c)

IETF

d)

OSI

e)

IANA

16.

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

a)

multicast

b)

unicast

c)

duplex

d)

broadcast

17.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

multicast

b)

unicast

c)

duplex

d)

broadcast

18.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)

a)

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

b)

It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

c)

It speeds up packet delivery.

d)

It assists in protocol design.

e)

It prevents designers from creating their own model.

19.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

a)

specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication

b)

specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication

c)

providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

d)

dictating the content of the message sent during communication

20.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)

destination IP address

b)

destination port number

c)

source IP address

d)

destination MAC address

21.

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

a)

Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP

b)

HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet

c)

Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

d)

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

22.

What is a function of OSPF hello packets?

a)

to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them

b)

to ensure database synchronization between routers

c)

to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers

d)

to send specifically requested link-state records

23.

What is a feature of the OSPF routing protocol?​

a)

The SPF algorithm chooses the best path based on 30-second updates​.

b)

It scales well in both small and large networks.

c)

OSPF authentication is configured in the same way on IPv4 and IPv6 networks.​

d)

Routers can be grouped into autonomous systems to support a hierarchical system.

24.

Which transport layer feature is used to establish a connection-oriented session?

a)

TCP 3-way handshake

b)

TCP port number

c)

UDP sequence number

d)

UDP ACK flag

25.

How does a networked server manage requests from multiple clients for different services?

a)

The server sends all requests through a default gateway.

b)

Each request has a combination of source and destination port numbers, coming from a unique IP address.

c)

Each request is tracked through the physical address of the client.

d)

The server uses IP addresses to identify different services.

26.

What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?

a)

The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.

b)

The FTP source host sends a query to the destination host.

c)

The entire FTP message is re-sent.

d)

The message is lost because FTP does not use a reliable delivery method.

27.

What type of applications are best suited for using UDP?

a)

applications that are sensitive to packet loss

b)

applications that need reliable delivery

c)

applications that require retransmission of lost segments

d)

applications that are sensitive to delay

28.

Network congestion has resulted in the source learning of the loss of TCP segments that were sent to the destination. What is one way that the TCP protocol addresses this?

a)

The destination decreases the window size.

b)

The destination sends fewer acknowledgement messages in order to conserve bandwidth.

c)

The source decreases the amount of data that it transmits before it receives an acknowledgement from the destination.

d)

The source decreases the window size to decrease the rate of transmission from the destination.

29.

Which two operations are provided by TCP but not by UDP? (Choose two.)

a)

identifying individual conversations

b)

acknowledging received data

c)

retransmitting any unacknowledged data

d)

identifying the applications

e)

reconstructing data in the order received

30.

What is the purpose of using a source port number in a TCP communication?

a)

to assemble the segments that arrived out of order

b)

to keep track of multiple conversations between devices

c)

to inquire for a nonreceived segment

d)

to notify the remote device that the conversation is over

31.

Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)

a)

ACK

b)

URG

c)

SYN

d)

RST

e)

FIN

32.

Which two services or protocols use the preferred UDP protocol for fast transmission and low overhead? (Choose two)

a)

FTP

b)

POP3

c)

DNS

d)

VoIP

e)

HTTP

33.

On a home network, which device is most likely to provide dynamic IPv4 addressing to clients on the home network?

a)

a home router

b)

an ISP DHCP server

c)

a dedicated file server

d)

a DNS server

34.

What message type is used by an HTTP client to request data from a web server?

a)

POST

b)

GET

c)

PUT

d)

ACK

35.

Why is DHCP for IPv4 preferred for use on large networks?

a)

DHCP uses a reliable transport layer protocol.

b)

It is a more efficient way to manage IPv4 addresses than static address assignment is.

c)

It prevents sharing of files that are copyrighted.

d)

Large networks send more requests for domain to IP address resolution than do smaller networks.

e)

Hosts on large networks require more IPv4 addressing configuration settings than do hosts on small networks.

36.

An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file server of a book publisher. What role is the personal computer assuming in this network model?

a)

slave

b)

transient

c)

server

d)

master

e)

client

37.

A wireless host needs to request an IPv4 address. What protocol would be used to process the request?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

SNMP

d)

DHCP

e)

ICMP

38.

When retrieving email messages, which protocol allows for easy, centralized storage and backup of emails that would be desirable for a small- to medium-sized business?

a)

IMAP

b)

HTTPS

c)

POP

d)

SMTP

39.

Which protocol uses encryption?

a)

HTTPS

b)

DHCP

c)

FTP

d)

DNS

40.

Which two tasks can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two.)

a)

retrieving email messages

b)

mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts

c)

forwarding name resolution requests between servers

d)

allowing data transfer between two network devices

e)

providing IP addresses to local hosts

41.

What types of server software can a single server provide

a)

File

b)

Web

c)

Email

d)

Application

42.

What type of device is a switch

a)

Intermediary Device

b)

Host

c)

Monitor

d)

Multimedia Device

43.

What is the most common Ethernet architecture today

a)

500 base-T

b)

1000 base-T

c)

800 base-T

d)

1000 base-l

44.

Current latest wireless standard

a)

802.11ac

b)

802.11c

c)

802.11b

d)

802.11abc

45.

_______ is also termed as a logical address.

a)

MAC address

b)

Port address

c)

IP address

d)

None of the above

46.

Which Class of IP address is the following - 192.168.1.1 ?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

e)

Class E

47.

What is the Internet?

a)

It provides network access for mobile devices

b)

It is a network based on Ethernet technology

c)

It provides connections through interconnected global networks

d)

It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections

48.

ICMP stands for ?

a)

Internal Concept Message Protocol

b)

Internet Control Mapping Protocol

c)

Internal Control Message Protocol

d)

Internet Control Message Protocol

49.

Which protocol does TFTP typically use for transport?

a)

RSVP

b)

TCP

c)

UDP

d)

DNS

50.

Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

a)

IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length

b)

IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length

c)

IPv6 addresses are represented with hexadecimal numbers

d)

IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length

e)

IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length

51.

How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?

a)

64

b)

48

c)

256

d)

128

e)

32

52.

Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people and is expressed as 201.192.1.14?

a)

ASCII

b)

binary

c)

hexadecimal

d)

dotted decimal

53.

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

a)

256

b)

64

c)

128

d)

32

54.

How many binary bits exist within an IPv4 address?

a)

64

b)

48

c)

256

d)

128

e)

32

55.

How many binary bits exist within an MAC address?

a)

64

b)

48

c)

256

d)

128

e)

32

56.

Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

a)

It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.

b)

It uses unique MAC addresses to ensure that data is sent to the appropriate destination.

c)

It uses a ring topology.

d)

It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards.

e)

It typically uses an average of 16 Mbps for data transfer rates

57.

What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

a)

They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.

b)

They are only routable within the private network.

c)

They must be globally unique.

d)

They have a 32-bit binary value.

58.

Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?

a)

router

b)

switch

c)

hub

d)

repeater

59.

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

a)

It will discard the frame.

b)

It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

c)

It will remove the frame from the media.

d)

It will forward the frame to the next host.

60.

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

a)

CSMA/CA

b)

priority ordering

c)

CSMA/CD

d)

token passing

61.

Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use with legacy Ethernet hubs?

a)

determinism

b)

token passing

c)

CSMA/CD

d)

turn taking

62.

Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?​

a)

IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.

b)

The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.

c)

Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.

d)

The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.​

63.

Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPv4?

a)

An IPv4 header has fewer fields than an IPv6 header has.​

b)

IPv4 natively supports IPsec.​

c)

IPv4 has a 32-bit address space.​

d)

All IPv4 addresses are assignable to hosts.​

64.

What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?

a)

to relieve IPv4 address depletion

b)

to provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry

c)

to allow NAT support for private addressing

d)

to make reading a 32-bit address easier

65.

Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its destination?

a)

destination data-link address

b)

destination IP address

c)

source IP address

d)

source data-link address

66.

Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

a)

Packet Length

b)

Time-to-Live

c)

Destination Address

d)

Flag

67.

Which field in an IPv6 packet is used by the router to determine if a packet has expired and should be dropped?

a)

No Route to Destination

b)

Hop Limit

c)

TTL

d)

Address Unreachable

68.

What are two features of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)

a)

has an administrative distance of 100

b)

automatically summarizes networks at the classful boundaries

c)

used primarily as an EGP

d)

calculates its metric using bandwidth

e)

uses Dijkstra's algorithm to build the SPF tree

69.

What is the first criterion used by OPSF routers to elect a DR?

a)

highest router ID

b)

highest priority

c)

highest IP address

d)

highest MAC address

70.

Which protocol is used by IPv4 and IPv6 to provide error messaging?

a)

ARP

b)

DHCP

c)

ICMP

d)

NDP

71.

Which protocol provides feedback from the destination host to the source host about errors in packet delivery?

a)

ARP

b)

DNS

c)

ICMP

d)

BOOTP

72.

What message is sent by a host to check the uniqueness of an IPv6 address before using that address?

a)

neighbor solicitation

b)

echo request

c)

router solicitation

d)

ARP request

73.

Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?

a)

low port density switch

b)

firewall

c)

redundancy

d)

Internet router

74.

A newly hired network technician is given the task of ordering new hardware for a small business with a large growth forecast. Which primary factor should the technician be concerned with when choosing the new devices?

a)

devices with support for modularity

b)

redundant devices

c)

devices that have support for network monitoring

d)

devices with a fixed number and type of interfaces

75.

What type of traffic would most likely have the highest priority through the network?

a)

SNMP

b)

FTP

c)

voice

d)

instant messaging

76.

What mechanism can be implemented in a small network to help minimize network latency for real-time streaming applications?

a)

AAA

b)

PoE

c)

ICMP

d)

QoS

77.

A small company has only one router as the exit point to its ISP. Which solution could be adopted to maintain connectivity if the router itself, or its connection to the ISP, fails?

a)

Purchase a second least-cost link from another ISP to connect to this router.

b)

Add more interfaces to the router that is connected to the internal network.

c)

Have a second router that is connected to another ISP.

d)

Activate another router interface that is connected to the ISP, so the traffic can flow through it.

78.

What factor should be considered in the design of a small network when devices are being chosen?  

a)

traffic analysis

b)

cost of devices

c)

ISP

d)

redundancy

79.
TCP Header Size
a)
8 bits
b)
8 Bytes
c)
20 bits
d)
20 Bytes
80.
802.1Q Frame Size
a)
1518
b)
1522
c)
1918
d)
1922
81.
Does not scale well in large networks
a)
EIGRP
b)
static routes
c)
default route
d)
CEF
82.

What term is used to refer to the overhead processes that control the work done by a network device?

a)

Management plane

b)

Forwarding plane

c)

Data plane

d)

Control plane

83.

Write the word of the gap: IPv6 is a coloned (a)   number

84.

Which option describes the way that metrics work with OSPF?

a)

Calculation based on a route’s slowest link speed and the cumulative delay associated with each interface on the way to the destination subnet

b)

The sum of manually configured interface costs between a router and the destination subnet

c)

The sum of all interface cost settings for all links in a destination subnet divided by a reference bandwidth

d)

The number of routers between a router and the destination subnet

85.

This image is a part of an (a)   Address?

Example: IPV4, IPV6, MAC, Physical

86.

Among hub, bridge and switch who can store MAC address?

(a)  

87.

Which is the better wireless networking protocol?

a)

IEEE 802.11

b)

802.15. 1

c)

AD HOC

d)

IPV4

88.

What is cost?

a)

proportion of bandwidth

b)

low internet

c)

hardware repair

d)

money

89.

What two things are shared with the virtual router and physical routers?

a)

IP

b)

MAC

c)

NIC

d)

Gateway

e)

Name

90.

Which two databases are unique to each router in an OSPF environment?

a)

LSDB

b)

Adjacency database

c)

Forwarding database

d)

SPF database

91.

Place the link-state routing steps in order:

A- Execute the SPF algorithm

B- Exchange Link-State advertisements

C- Establish neighbor adjacencies

D- Build the Link-State database

E- Choose the best route

a)

C-B-D-A-E

b)

A-B-D-C-E

c)

B-C-A-D-E

d)

A-C-B-D-E

92.

Which link-state routing step involves sending hello packets out all OSPF enabled interfaces?

a)

Establish Neighbor Adjacencies

b)

Exchange Link-State Advertisements

c)

Build the Link State Database

d)

Execute the SPF Algorithm

93.
The heart of the network where all other devices are connected is
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
ISP
d)
WIFI
94.
The device that you can use to multiply or extend the number of computers or devices you can connect in a network is
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
ISP
d)
WIFI
95.
The company that can provide a network or devices with connectivity on the internet is
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
ISP
d)
WIFI
96.
What is this?
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
Ethernet cable
d)
WIFI
97.
What is this?
a)
Router
b)
Switch
c)
Ethernet cable
d)
WIFI
98.
What is this?
a)
UTP
b)
USB Cable
c)
Ethernet cable
d)
RCA
99.

You have a server named Host1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

You configure Host1 as a virtualization host and create 20 new virtual machines on Host1. You need to ensure that all of the virtual machines can connect to the Internet through Host1. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

a)

On a virtual machine, install the Remote Access server role.

b)

From the properties of each virtual machine, enable virtual LAN identification.

c)

From the properties of each virtual machine, connect to the virtual machine switch.

d)

On Host1, configure the network address translation (NAT) network.

e)

On Host1, create an internal virtual machine switch and specify an IP address for the switch.

100.

Third Octet in the CLass C IP Address is Called _________?

a)

Host ID

b)

Net ID

c)

Subnet

d)

Gateway

101.

Third and Fourth Octet in Class B IP Address is Called?

a)

Net ID

b)

LAN ID

c)

Host ID

d)

IP Class

102.

195.121.20.11 is Class ______ IP Address?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

103.

What class of IP Address is this? 190.15.100.10?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

104.

Network device connected to ISP and Routes its connection through LAN and wireless access?

a)

switch

b)

Router

c)

Cable

d)

Laptop