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WorksheetsPROGRESS CHECK CIA PART III UNIT 1 & 2 PT PLN (Persero)
Total questions: 40
Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following is least likely to be an example of synergy?
a)
A shopping mall with several businesses providing different products and performing different services.
b)
A car dealership providing warranties on automobile parts to maximize customer value.
c)
A manufacturing company hiring a new manager with technological experience lacking in the company.
d)
Military Humvees being converted into sports utility vehicles for sale to civilians.
2.
Which of the following best describes a market synergy?
a)
Technology transfer from one product to another.
b)
Bundling of products distributed through the same channels.
c)
Production of multiple products at one facility.
d)
Use of complementary management skills to achieve entry into a new market.
3.
The cost of statistical quality control in a product quality cost system is categorized as a(n)
a)
Internal failure cost.
b)
Training cost.
c)
External failure cost.
d)
Appraisal cost.
4.
Which of the following quality costs are nonconformance costs?
a)
Systems development costs.
b)
Costs of inspecting in-process items.
c)
Environmental costs.
d)
Costs of quality circles.
5.
Which of the following balanced scorecard perspectives examines a company’s success in targeted market segments?
a)
Financial.
b)
Customer.
c)
Internal business process.
d)
Learning and growth.
6.
Under the balanced scorecard concept, employee satisfaction and retention are measures used under which of the following perspectives?
a)
Customer.
b)
Internal business.
c)
Learning and growth.
d)
Financial.
7.
Organizational charts often represent the formal structure of an organization. Often the organizational chart represents a pyramid with the chief executive on the top and the operating workforce on the bottom. Which of the following would not be included in a typical organizational chart?
a)
The span of control and the number of organizational levels.
b)
Communication channels.
c)
Promotional or career tracks.
d)
Informal influence or friendships.
8.
Frederick Herzberg postulated a two-factor theory of human behavior that included satisfiers and dissatisfiers. Which of the following is a dissatisfier?
a)
Promotion to another position.
b)
Salary.
c)
Challenging work.
d)
Responsibility.
9.
Two managers were discussing the merits of goal setting to improve employee performance. One manager felt that specific goals should not be established and that, to provide for flexibility, only generalized goals should be used. The other manager felt that specific, difficult goals produce the best results. As the discussion continued, other methods of goal setting were identified. Select the best method for setting goals.
a)
The manager should provide generalized goals.
b)
The manager should select specific, difficult goals.
c)
The employee should develop generalized goals and obtain management concurrence.
d)
The employee should develop specific, difficult goals and obtain management concurrence.
10.
Job enlargement is characterized by
a)
Horizontal loading of the job.
b)
Vertical loading of the job.
c)
Increased worker control of tasks.
d)
More rapid performance feedback.
11.
Which of the following tactics may employees use when feeling that their individual power is insignificant?
a)
Employees may engage in posturing by taking credit for the work of a coworker.
b)
Employees may engage in destructive competition by spreading false rumors.
c)
Employees may engage in creating power and loyalty cliques with other coworkers.
d)
Employees may attempt to conceal errors made by a supervisor in order to aid their own future advancement within the corporation.
12.
The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another person’s work? The organizational culture may encourage politics by creating unreasonable obstacles to group and individual advancement. Which type of political tactic involves taking credit for another person’s work?
a)
Loyalty cliques.
b)
Destructive competition.
c)
Empire building.
d)
Posturing.
13.
A manager can use power and authority to accomplish objectives. The relationship between these two important concepts is best explained as follows:
a)
Power is the right to do things, while authority is the ability to do things.
b)
Authority is the right to do things, while power is the ability to do things.
c)
Power and authority are both required to accomplish a task.
d)
Power and authority are simply two words that describe the same concept -- how to get things done in organizations.
14.
A leader who is able to gain compliance from a group based solely on personal attraction is said to have
a)
Reward power.
b)
Coercive power.
c)
Referent power.
d)
Legitimate power.
15.
Which of the following factors is least likely to affect a manager’s optimal span of control?
a)
The manager’s training and communication skills.
b)
The manager’s willingness to delegate authority.
c)
Frequency of supervisor-subordinate contact.
d)
Number of people in the organization.
16.
A claimed advantage of decentralizing is
a)
Elimination of inessential operations.
b)
Elimination of duplication of effort.
c)
Manager development.
d)
Concentration of authority.
17.
In some organizations, internal audit functions are outsourced. Management in a large organization should recognize that the external auditor may have an advantage, compared with the internal auditor, because of the external auditor’s
a)
Familiarity with the organization. Its annual audits provide an in-depth knowledge of the organization.
b)
Size. It can hire experienced, knowledgeable, and certified staff.
c)
Size. It is able to offer continuous availability of staff unaffected by other priorities.
d)
Structure. It may more easily accommodate engagement requirements in distant locations.
18.
A manager discovers by chance that a newly hired employee has strong beliefs that are very different from the manager’s and from those of most of the other employees. The manager’s best course of action would be to
a)
Facilitate the reassignment of the new hire as quickly as possible before this situation becomes disruptive.
b)
Ask the rest of the team for their reaction and act according to the group consensus.
c)
Take no action unless the new hire’s behavior is likely to cause harm to the organization.
d)
Try to counsel the new hire into more reasonable beliefs.
19.
The airlines have been leaders in the use of technology. Customers can make reservations either with an airline or through a travel agency. In this situation, a travel agency is classified as which type of distribution channel?
a)
An intermediary.
b)
A jobber.
c)
A distributor.
d)
A facilitating intermediary.
20.
An organization must manage its flows of materials, components, finished goods, services, or information through intermediaries to ultimate consumers. These flows may occur across the functions in an organization’s
a)
Supply chain.
b)
Value chain.
c)
Full-function chain.
d)
Integrated chain.
21.
In a well-designed internal control system, the same employee may be permitted to
a)
Mail signed checks and also cancel supporting documents.
b)
Prepare receiving reports and also approve purchase orders.
c)
Approve vouchers for payment and also have access to unused purchase orders.
d)
Mail signed checks and also prepare bank reconciliations.
22.
Which of the following internal control activities is not usually performed in the vouchers payable department?
a)
Matching the vendor’s invoice with the related receiving report.
b)
Approving vouchers for payment by having an authorized employee sign the vouchers.
c)
Indicating the asset and expense accounts to be debited.
d)
Accounting for unused prenumbered purchase orders and receiving reports.
23.
Which of the following best describes unstructured data?
a)
Data with a high level of organization.
b)
Data systematically stored with markers to enforce hierarchies of records and fields within the data.
c)
Information that is not organized in a pre-defined manner (e.g., text-heavy facts, dates, numbers, and images).
d)
Conforms with the organization of data models associated with relational databases.
24.
Which of the following is a true statement about in-memory analytics?
a)
It is an open source software framework that stores large amounts of data and runs applications on clusters of commodity hardware.
b)
It analyzes data from system memory instead of hard drives.
c)
It is a technology that uses data, statistical algorithms, and machine-learning techniques to identify the likelihood of future outcomes based on historical data.
d)
It examines large amounts of data to discover patterns in the data.
25.
A project is an undertaking with a specific beginning and end, but it may have a long duration. A project
a)
May be part of a phase consisting of related projects.
b)
May contain multiple programs and related activities.
c)
Should be documented in a business case.
d)
Has deliverables that include a benefits management plan.
26.
A project charter is most likely developed in which project management process group?
a)
Initiating.
b)
Planning.
c)
Definition of activities.
d)
Defining scope.
27.
A Gantt chart
a)
Shows the critical path for a project.
b)
Is used for determining an optimal product mix.
c)
Shows only the activities along the critical path of a network.
d)
Does not necessarily show the critical path through a network.
28.
When making a cost-time tradeoff in CPM analysis, the first activity that should be crashed is the activity
a)
With the largest amount of slack.
b)
With the lowest unit crash cost.
c)
On the critical path with the maximum possible time reduction.
d)
On the critical path with the lowest unit crash cost.
29.
An organization’s management perceives the need to make significant changes. Which of the following factors is management least likely to be able to change?
a)
The organization’s members.
b)
The organization’s structure.
c)
The organization’s environment.
d)
The organization’s technology.
30.
Co-optation is a
a)
Method of coping with employee resistance.
b)
Cause of resistance to change.
c)
Model for categorizing organizational changes.
d)
Way of allowing meaningful input by resistant employees.
31.
Which of the following is not a required element of a contract?
a)
Legality.
b)
Consideration.
c)
Legal capacity.
d)
A writing.
32.
The necessary elements of a contract include
a)
Some form of writing, equal consideration, and legal capacity.
b)
Formal execution, definite terms, and a valid offer and acceptance.
c)
Mutual assent, consideration, legal capacity, and legality of the agreement.
d)
Bilateral promises, legal capacity, and legality of purpose.
33.
When a client accepts the services of an accountant without an agreement concerning payment, the result is
a)
An implied-in-fact contract.
b)
An implied-in-law contract.
c)
An express contract.
d)
No contract.
34.
Which of the following represents the basic distinction between a bilateral contract and a unilateral contract?
a)
Specific performance is available if the contract is unilateral but not if it is bilateral.
b)
Only one promise is involved if the contract is unilateral, but two are involved if it is bilateral.
c)
The statute of frauds applies to a bilateral contract but not to a unilateral contract.
d)
Rights under a bilateral contract are assignable, whereas rights under a unilateral contract are not assignable.
35.
An Internet firewall is designed to provide adequate protection against which of the following?
a)
A computer virus.
b)
Unauthenticated logins from outside users.
c)
Insider leaking of confidential information.
d)
A Trojan horse application.
36.
Authentication is the process by which the
a)
System verifies that the user is entitled to enter the transaction requested.
b)
System verifies the identity of the user.
c)
User identifies himself or herself to the system.
d)
User indicates to the system that the transaction was processed correctly.
37.
A client communicates sensitive data across the Internet. Which of the following controls would be most effective to prevent the use of the information if it were intercepted by an unauthorized party?
a)
A firewall.
b)
An access log.
c)
Passwords.
d)
Encryption.
38.
What is a major disadvantage to using a private key to encrypt data?
a)
Both sender and receiver must have the private key before this encryption method will work.
b)
The private key cannot be broken into fragments and distributed to the receiver.
c)
The private key is used by the sender for encryption but not by the receiver for decryption.
d)
The private key is used by the receiver for decryption but not by the sender for encryption.
39.
All of the following are correct statements regarding smart devices except
a)
The portability of smart devices is a major factor when assessing physical security risks.
b)
Smart machines are automation technology.
c)
Remote wipe is the process of deleting data and applications without physical access to the smart device.
d)
Although smart devices have the capability of adapting their behavior based on experience, smart devices are not able to learn and operate on their own.
40.
The reliability and integrity of all critical information of an organization, regardless of the media in which the information is stored, is the responsibility of
a)
Shareholders.
b)
IT department.
c)
Management.
d)
All employees.
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