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Aerodrome Control Rating Knowledge Test

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Secondary frequency for El Tari is :

a)

125,25

b)

118,3

c)

120,55

d)

128,3

2.

Frequency for El Tari tower is ;

a)

128,3

b)

125,25

c)

118,3

d)

125,25

3.

Approach : " ELTARI TOWER estimate LNI924 04.20 " and ELTARI Tower answered....

a)

Estimate LNI 924 04.20

b)

Okay 04.20

c)

04.20

d)

Estimate 924 04.20

4.

When aircraft saying 'our position is on final 7DME, it's mean :

a)

The position is horizontally 7NM from touchdown

b)

The position is horizontally 7NM from VOR

c)

The position is horizontally 7NM from ARP

d)

The position is vertically 7NM from VOR

5.

Definition of TODA is :

a)

The length of TORA plus the length of the clearway

b)

The length of TORA plus the length of stopway

c)

The length of ASDA plus TORA

d)

The length of ASDA plus LDA

6.

Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take off of aircraft Is definition of :

a)

Incident

b)

Accident

c)

Runway incursion

d)

Runway excursion

7.

Controllers should recognize the possibilities of emergency action and render all assistance possible. The first priority shall be given to:

a)

Aircraft with engine failure

b)

Medivac aircraft

c)

Aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations

d)

Aircraft as may be determined by the appropriate authority

8.

The emergency frequency is :

a)

121.5 MHz

b)

118.3 MHz

c)

128.3 MHz

d)

122.9 MHz

9.

The lateral limit of El Tari ATZ :

a)

A circle with a radius of 30 NM centered at "KPG" VOR

b)

A circle with a radius of 15 NM centered at "KPG" VOR

c)

A circle with a radius of 10 NM centered at "KPG" VOR

d)

Vicinity of aerodrome

10.

The separation required between take off when the preceding aircraft is 40 knot or more is faster than the following aircraft and both aircraft will follow the same track is :

a)

1 minutes

b)

2 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

4 minutes

11.

Where is the isolated area of El Tari aerodrome

a)

Navy apron

b)

Air force base apron

c)

Main apron

d)

Taxiway bravo

12.

Kupang's fuel dumping area is between

a)

Radial 130 up to radial 170

b)

Radial 130 up to radial 160

c)

Radial 120 up to radial 170

d)

Radial 120 up to radial 160

13.

A systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary organizational structures, accountabilities,policies and procedures is the definition of:

a)

safety program

b)

level of safety

c)

safety management system

d)

risk management

14.

The dimension of RESA Runway 25 is :

a)

90 x 90 m

b)

150 x 45 m

c)

25 x 25 m

d)

90 x 25 m

15.

The minimum visibility apply to takeoffs under IFR for an aircraft, other than helicopters having 2 engines or less is :

a)

3.2 km

b)

1.6 st mile

c)

1.6 km

d)

800 m

16.

What is the meaning of gunlight signal STEADY GREEN for aircraft inflight having Communication failure?

a)

Cleared to land

b)

Continue circling

c)

Cleared for takeoff

d)

Do not land

17.

Transition altitude is The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference altitudes

a)

True

b)

False

18.

METAR WATT 200400z 10010KT 9999 NSW FEW020 33/27 Q1001 NOSIG. According METAR above ground temperature is 270 C

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Circuit altitude jet aircraft is 2000 feet

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Readability scale 4 means good

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The meaning of phrase 'ROGER: is I have received all of your last transmission.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Traffic from Kupang to AA BERE TALLO airport according to the table of quadrantal rules shall maintain altitude Odd+500.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Frequency Rote radio is 123,4 Mhz

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Approach : " ElTARI Tower, GA449 after departure climb initial 060 ft " Tower : " GA449 after departure climb initial 060 ft "

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Overcast Clouds means:

a)

5/8-7/8 cloud layer of sky covered

b)

3/8-4/8 cloud layer of sky covered

c)

0/8 -2/8 cloud layer of sky covered

d)

8/8 cloud layer of sky covered

26.

Failure or irregular operation of part or all of the aerodrome lighting system included the Information of

a)

aerodrome Information

b)

Traffic Information

c)

Essential Information

d)

Important Information

27.

Transfer from aerodrome control tower unit to the approach control unit when weather VMC prevail in the vicinity of the aerodrome

a)

Prior to the aircraft entering VMC

b)

Immediately the aircraft enter runway in used

c)

Immediately after the aircraft is airbone

d)

Prior to the aircraft leaves the vicinity of the aerodrome

28.

. An alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing

a)

Destination Alternate

b)

Suitable aerodrome

c)

Nearest aerodrome

d)

Alternate aerodrome

29.

Signal of Steady Red From Aerodrome Control to Aircraft on the ground means:

a)

Aerodrome safe, cleared to land

b)

Give way to another and continue circling

c)

STOP

d)

Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

30.

What certain able used South of Circuit (Un Normally Circuit) for aircraft departure or arrival

a)

Traffic Condition

b)

Visibility 2 KM

c)

IMC Flight

d)

A & B are Correct

31.

A portion of a taxiway system located on an apron and intended to provide a through taxi route across the apron.

a)

Apron taxiway

b)

Taxiway

c)

Rapid exit taxiway

d)

Aircraft stand taxilane

 

32.

Transfer traffic from Aerodrome control tower unit to the Approach control unit when weather IMC

a)

Prior to the aircraft entering IMC condition

b)

immediately after the aircraft is airborne

c)

Prior to the aircraft entering VMC

d)

when the aircraft  Taxi

33.

"The specified path to be flown by aircraft operating in the vicinity of aerodrome" is:

a)

Aerodrome circuit

b)

Aerodrome Traffic Circuit

c)

Air Circuit

d)

Aerodrome Flight Path

34.

PK BVD position on downwind RWY 08 Transmitter u / s receiver serviceable. Controller can give instruction for cleared to land with:

a)

Flashing green light signal

b)

Steady green light signal

c)

Flashing white light signal

d)

Radio

35.

What is the highest Flight Level for non RVSM aircraft depart from Kupang to Surabaya via W43

a)

FL260

b)

FL280

c)

FL290

d)

FL310

36.

The Aerodrome Control Service shall be provided to, except: 

a)

All aerodrome traffic operating on the maneuvering area

b)

VFR Flights operating within the control zone

c)

IFR Flights when transferred of control to the tower

d)

IFR Flights operating within Controlled Air Space

37.

When runway is closed due to maintenance but the pilot persists to land, what action shall not ATC take:

a)

Ignore the pilot request

b)

Advise the pilot about runway condition and landing will be solely pilots responsibility

c)

Give landing clearance when traffic permit

d)

Instruct to pilot for landing at other nearest airport

38.

Runway number in aerodrome "A" is 06-24 and 13-31 Runway number in aerodrome "B" is 16-34 and 09-27 location aerodrome A near by aerodrome B and procedure in aerodrome A and B are separated. If wind condition 225/ 15 kts, and there are no other factor to be considered, then Runway in use are:

a)

06 in aerodrome "A" and 34 in aerodrome "B"

b)

24 in aerodrome "A" and 09 in aerodrome "B"

c)

24 in aerodrome "A" and 27 in aerodrome "B"

d)

27 in aerodrome "A" and 24 in aerodrome "B"

39.

"Construction work" in Manoeuvring area categorized as:

a)

essential ground traffic information

b)

essential aerodrome condition information

c)

essential traffic information

d)

essential local traffic information

40.

Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions and, whether issued by the controller or contained in automatic terminal information service (ATIS) broadcasts, transition levels this  items shall not always be read back by Pilot

a)

true

b)

false

41.

Clearances and instructions to enter, land on, take off from, hold short of, cross, taxi and backtrack on any runway this  items shall always be read back by Pilot

a)

true

b)

false

42.

VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the ceiling is less than 450 m (1 500 ft)

a)

true

b)

false

43.

.” Make extend downwind” it is the clearance  atc given to pilot 

a)

true

b)

false

44.

Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take off of aircraft  the  meaning of Runway excursion.

a)

true

b)

false

45.

Arriving aircraft Control of an arriving aircraft shall be transferred from the unit providing control service to the unit providing aerodrome control service when the aircraft just Landed

a)

true

b)

false

46.

Which one Services are given by "El Tari Tower" unit is expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic.

a)

true

b)

false

47.

Class D IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights


 It Is Airspace Classification for El Tari Aerodrome Traffic zone (ATL)

a)

true

b)

false

48.

Kupang APP may delegate control of traffic to El Tari TWR when conflicting traffic occurred for efficiency and expeditious reason. When, it is necessary, conflicting traffics delegated to El Tari Tower, vertical and horizontal separation may be applied/provided by El Tari Tower. Prior coordination is required.

a)

true

b)

false

49.

. Signal of white flashes From Aerodrome Control to Aircraft in flight is Return to starting point

on the aerodrome

a)

true

b)

false

50.

Vertical limit of El Tari ATZ :

a)

Ground or water up to 4000 feet

b)

Ground or water up to 6000 feet

c)

Ground or water up to 10.000 feet

d)

Ground or water up to Fl 245