Worksheetsque3
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In which of the following computing models all the workstations have same privileges, capabilities, and permissions and there is no central computer that performs administrative tasks ?
a)
Peer-to-peer model
b)
Client-server model
c)
Grid computing model
d)
Cloud computing model
2.
Which of the following has a two-tier architecture in which a single powerful computer shares all its resources with other computers on the network?
a)
Peer-to-peer model
b)
Client-server model
c)
Grid computing model
d)
Cloud computing model
3.
Which of the following is a type of simple computing device that has no hard disks of its own and depends on the server for performing all tasks of computing?
a)
Thin client
b)
Thick client
c)
Mobile client
d)
Cloud client
4.
In which of the following cloud computing models a user can access software and application through the Internet that are hosted by a cloud service provider?
a)
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
b)
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
c)
Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
d)
Cross Platform
5.
Which of the following can be defined as a collection of computer resources that are based on distributed architecture?
a)
Peer-to-peer model
b)
Client-server model
c)
Grid computing model
d)
Cloud computing model
6.
Which of the following is an example of platform-as-a-service?
a)
Google mail
b)
MS Azure
c)
GoGrid
d)
Amazon EC2
7.
Which of the following is a cloud computing model that offers an application development environment on the cloud?
a)
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
b)
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
c)
Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
d)
Cross Platform
8.
Google mail is an example of which of the following computing models?
a)
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
b)
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
c)
Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
d)
Cross Platform
9.
Which of the following is a cloud computing model that offers hardware resources such as memory, servers and storage which are available to users with the use of virtual machines?
a)
Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
b)
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
c)
Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
d)
Cross Platform
10.
Which of the following is the software system that helps in partitioning the computer resources securely into multiple virtual machines?
a)
Hypervisor
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
SaaS
11.
Which of the following is a virtualisation software solution provided by Microsoft?
a)
VMware
b)
Hyper-V
c)
KVM hypervisor
d)
EC-2
12.
You are working with virtual machines and cannot run specific software on the virtual machine. Which of the following could be a reason?
a)
Lack of enough disk space
b)
No licence to run on VMs
c)
Slow internet speed
d)
VM is corrupted
13.
Which of the following is used to handle multiple system service request simultaneously?
a)
Virtualisation
b)
Visualisation
c)
Hypervision
d)
Load balancing
14.
Which of the following is virtualisation technique that permits system administrators to partition a computer system into various mini-systems which are independent of each other?
a)
FreeBSD Jails
b)
Vserver
c)
Open VZ
d)
Tycoons
15.
Which of the following is the virtualisation technology meant for Linux-based systems and is based on containers that develop various isolated and secure VM's or Linux containers on one physical server?
a)
FreeBSD Jails
b)
Vserver
c)
Open VZ
d)
Tycoons
16.
Which of the following can be defined as a virtualisation structure in which the hypervisor has direct hardware access, resulting in stability and better performance?
a)
Type-2 hypervisor
b)
Type-3 hypervisor
c)
Hosted structure
d)
Type-1 hypervisor
17.
The software development team of an organisation realise that they need a cloud platform to acquire an IDE on which they can develop their application. Which of the following cloud service platforms should they access?
a)
SaaS
b)
PaaS
c)
IaaS
d)
DaaS
18.
Which of the following refers to an entity that offers cloud services to parties who are interested?
a)
Service provider
b)
SaaS
c)
Cloud provider
d)
Cloud carrier
19.
Which of the following is an independent body used to validate standards and evaluate controls of cloud service?
a)
Cloud provider
b)
Cloud auditor
c)
Cloud carrier
d)
Cloud broker
20.
Which of the following is multiple storage space for network systems, storage devices, storage racks, computing capacity, and servers?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
Data centres
21.
An organisation X is responsible for establishing connectivity and transporting cloud services between and a cloud provider and a cloud consumer. Which of the following is the generic term used for X?
a)
Cloud provider
b)
Cloud auditor
c)
Cloud carrier
d)
Cloud broker
22.
Which of the following is a type of automatic scaling where the scaling of resources is done based on the load on the devices?
a)
Dynamic horizontal scaling
b)
Dynamic relocation scaling
c)
Dynamic vertical scaling
d)
Dynamic virtual scaling
23.
Which of the following scaling is used to increase or decrease the processing capacity of a single resource?
a)
Dynamic horizontal scaling
b)
Dynamic relocation scaling
c)
Dynamic vertical scaling
d)
Dynamic virtual scaling
24.
In which of the following cloud service models all the equipment like storage disks, servers, and network infrastructure are owned by cloud service providers and they offer these services to parties who request these services?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
DaaS
25.
In which of the following automatic scaling does the scaling of resources is done based on the need of capacity?
a)
Dynamic horizontal scaling
b)
Dynamic relocation scaling
c)
Dynamic vertical scaling
d)
Dynamic virtual scaling
26.
Which of the following cloud solutions provide an environment for creating, running, and debugging full websites, including user interfaces, databases, privacy and security tools?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
DaaS
27.
Which of the following can be defined as an issue associated with PaaS that prevents users to migrate to other cloud services?
a)
Compatibility
b)
Interoperability
c)
Vendor lock in
d)
Vulnerability
28.
Which of the following enterprises offers database services and incurs costs related to the maintenance, installation, and safety of data ?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
DaaS
29.
Which of the following refers to an open-source cloud operating system that provides a cloud computing platform to handle enormous computing, storage, database, and networking resources in a data centre?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
OpenStack
30.
Which of the following is not an open source cloud platform?
a)
Eucalyptus
b)
CloudStack
c)
OpenStack
d)
Azure
31.
Which of the following type of services is offered by OpenStack?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
DaaS
32.
Which of the following features of OpenStack enables upgradation of systems wherein only individual components that need to be upgraded are required to shut down?
a)
Compatibility
b)
Real-time Visibility
c)
Live Upgrades
d)
Real-time upgradation
33.
Real-time client visibility is one of the important features of OpenStack. What does visibility signify here?
a)
Visibility to administrators
b)
Visibility of resources
c)
Visibility of components ko
d)
Both a and b
34.
Which of the following terms refers to the administrative web interface which is used to manage or administer OpenStack services?
a)
Horizon dashboard
b)
Vertical dashboard
c)
Admin Interface
d)
Single dashboard
35.
Which of the following handles all the tasks required to support all lifecycle instances of the OpenStack cloud ?
a)
Compute service
b)
Imaging services
c)
Identity service
d)
UI Service
36.
Which of the following are the two projects of the OpenStack storage infrastructure?
a)
Nova and rapid
b)
Cinder and nova
c)
Swift and nova
d)
Cinder and swift
37.
Which of the following is an identity service of OpenStack that offers identity and policy services for all components present in the OpenStack cloud?
a)
Keystone
b)
Nova
c)
Swift
d)
Cinder
38.
Which of the following is the key management service of OpenStack that provides secure storage, retrieval, and provisioning and management of various types of confidential data, such as keys, certificates, and even binary data?
a)
AMQP
b)
Barbican
c)
Designate
d)
Nova
39.
Which of the following is a component of OpenStack that offers billing service for users of the cloud services?
a)
Nova
b)
Swift
c)
Cinder
d)
Ceilometer
40.
App engine is a service offered by Google that enables developers to create applications and manage backend responsibilities. What kind of service is App engine?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
DaaS
41.
Which of the following isolates an application and enables them to run in a secure and reliable environment?
a)
Google App engine
b)
SaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
Sandbox
42.
Which of the following is the core storage service used by Google App Engine that allows multiple users to access data blocks on a shared basis?
a)
Google file system
b)
BigTable
c)
Chubby
d)
Sandbox
43.
Which of the following stores and retrieves unstructured and semi-structured data in the Google App Engine and is responsible for rapid, reliable, and efficient storage of large volumes of web pages on the Google platform?
a)
Google file system
b)
BigTable
c)
Chubby
d)
Sandbox
44.
Which of the following is Google’s distributed lock service that allows users to coordinate their activities with other users so as to induce reliability and availability in a large network of inter-connected users?
a)
Google file system
b)
BigTable
c)
Chubby
d)
Sandbox
45.
A user creates a free account on the Google App engine. How much storage space can he/she use through that account?
a)
5GB
b)
10GB
c)
12GB
d)
15GB
46.
Google App Engine provides facilities to scale services as per the need and requirement of the user. Which of the following scaling type allows the developer to scale the services up and down as and when required?
a)
Manual scaling
b)
Automatic Scaling
c)
Basic Scaling
d)
Flexible scaling
47.
Which of the following is the command-line tool that enables users to set up and control their applications on the Google Cloud Platform?
a)
gcloud
b)
bq
c)
gsutil
d)
gsqil
48.
Which of the following is the command-line tool used in Google BigQuery to handle tables, datasets, and other data entities in BigQuery?
a)
gcloud
b)
bq
c)
gsutil
d)
gsqil
49.
Which of the following is the command-line tool implemented with Google Cloud Storage to upload, download, move, copy, and rename objects?
a)
gcloud
b)
bq
c)
gsutil
d)
scloud
50.
Which of the following terms refers to an infrastructure where both data storage and data processing happen outside the mobile device?
a)
Mobile cloud computing
b)
Data centre
c)
App engine
d)
App centre
51.
Which of the following does not support the use of cloud computing capabilities in mobile technologies?
a)
Sync engine
b)
Google App services
c)
Web 2.0
d)
Data adapters
52.
One of the advantages of mobile cloud computing is that it offers multitenancy. What does multitenancy signify?
a)
Improved reliability
b)
The services can be expanded
c)
Same resource can be used by multiple users simultaneously
d)
Ease of navigation
53.
Which of the following is the basic application offered by mobile cloud computing?
a)
Mobile learning
b)
Mobile healthcare
c)
Mobile gaming
d)
All of the above
54.
A cab driver is trying to locate a person who has booked a ride. However, each time he receives the false location of the person. Which of the following location settings of the person's device may be active?
a)
Location blocking
b)
Location cloaking
c)
Location changing
d)
Location cloning
55.
Which of the following is an example of IaaS service provider?
a)
Amazon EC2
b)
Azure
c)
S3
d)
Both 1 and 3
56.
Azure is a cloud computing service created by Microsoft. Which of the following type of service is offered by Azure?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
DaaS
57.
Most mobile cloud applications need to collect data from varied sources for processing. Which of the following term is associated with the collection of data from various sources?
a)
Sync
b)
Aggregation
c)
Push notification
d)
Data adapter
58.
Which of the following type of service is offered by AWS, a cloud computing service of Amazon?
a)
SaaS
b)
IaaS
c)
PaaS
d)
DaaS
59.
Which of the following hypervisors is used by Amazon to virtualise their hardware and create virtual private servers that users can run from anywhere?
a)
VMware
b)
Hyper-V
c)
KVM
d)
Xen
60.
AWS is based on which of the following type of architectures?
a)
Client-based architecture
b)
Service-oriented architecture
c)
Server-based architecture
d)
Client-server based architecture
61.
Serverless is one of the features of AWS lambda. What does serverless signify?
a)
There are practically few servers that the user has to manage.
b)
You can easily scale infrastructure.
c)
It is highly cost-effective method for running codes.
d)
There is practically no server that the user has to manage.
62.
Which of the following is an application in the AWS service listing that facilitates creation, usage, and administration of virtual private servers that run on operating systems?
a)
Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b)
Amazon CloudWatch
c)
Amazon Simple Notification Service
d)
Amazon Machine Instances
63.
Which of the following services delivered by AWS allows messages to be published from an application and send to other applications or to subscribers?
a)
Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b)
Amazon CloudWatch
c)
Amazon Simple Notification Service
d)
Amazon Machine Instances
64.
EC2 is an application in the AWS service listing that facilitates creation, usage, and administration of virtual private servers that runs on OS's. Which of the following services of AWS is used to monitor EC2?
a)
Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
b)
Amazon CloudWatch
c)
Amazon Simple Notification Service
d)
Amazon Machine Instances
65.
An organisation needs to access a service that allows caching of data in multiple physical sites so that the data is accessed with super fast speed and lower latency. Which of the following features of AWS offers this service?
a)
Amazon CloudWatch
b)
Amazon RDS
c)
Amazon EBS
d)
Amazon CloudFront
66.
An organisation is using CloudFront service offered by AWS. Which AWS service type is being used?
a)
Storage
b)
Database
c)
Compute
d)
Networking & Content Delivery
67.
A user is accessing a service of AWS that provides an online backup and storage system and allows exchange of data to and from AWS using Amazon’s own internal network to another portable device. Which of the following features is used?
a)
Amazon Simple Storage System
b)
Amazon Elastic Block Store
c)
Amazon SimpleDB
d)
Amazon Relational Database Service
68.
Which of the following is not a cloud service offered by IBM?
a)
IBM Smart Cloud
b)
IBM Cloud Marketplace
c)
IBM BlueMix
d)
IBM SmartBlue
69.
Which of the following is the functionality offered by the Oracle cloud in which the desktop operating system is hosted on a centralised server in a data centre?
a)
PaaS
b)
SaaS
c)
DaaS
d)
IaaS
70.
SaaS analytics cloud is built on which of the following type of technology?
a)
Google technology
b)
Oracle technology
c)
IBM technology
d)
SAP technology
71.
Which of the following components of SaaS analytics is used to provide powerful reporting and deeper customer insights enabling sustainable growth and customer gratification?
a)
HCM analytics
b)
CRM analytics
c)
ERP analytics
d)
SCM analytics
72.
Which of the following components of SaaS analytics helps to organise daily operations and optimize supply network responsiveness?
a)
HCM Analytics
b)
CRM Analytics
c)
ERP Analytics
d)
SCM Analytics
73.
Which of the following is the component of IoT app that helps to achieve regulatory compliance, ensure worker health and safety?
a)
IoT Asset Monitoring
b)
IoT Production Monitoring
c)
IoT Fleet Monitoring
d)
IoT Connected Worker
74.
Which of the following is one of the oldest cloud platform that is used to support personal or any company's business?
a)
Azure
b)
Salesforce
c)
AWS
d)
Azure stack
75.
Which of the following features of Salesforce is used to sell, service, and market with intelligence as well as provide fastest speed possible to employees to work with?
a)
Integration services
b)
AI services
c)
Lightning
d)
Process automation
76.
Suppose you want to store and manage container images across all types of Azure deployments. Which of the following container components will you use?
a)
Container Instances
b)
Container Registry
c)
Web App for Containers
d)
Azure Container Service
77.
An organisation is accessing a cloud service in which it shares the infrastructure with other users, while a third party owns the resources, infrastructure and services. Which of the following type of service is accessed by it?
a)
Private cloud
b)
Public cloud
c)
Hybrid cloud
d)
Both a and b
78.
A company's infrastructure and resources are housed in its own data centre. Which of the following cloud deployment model is used in this case?
a)
Private cloud
b)
Public cloud
c)
Hybrid cloud
d)
Virtual cloud
79.
An organisation has implemented private cloud which is managed and owned by a cloud service provider. Which of the following categories of private cloud is referred to here?
a)
On-premise
b)
Off-premise
c)
In-premise
d)
Out-premise
80.
In which of the following phases of private cloud deployment the existing data centres and resources are integrated with the cloud environment?
a)
Consolidation
b)
Virtualization
c)
Migration
d)
Automation
81.
Three different research organisations located at different locations work towards a common goal and share a mutual interest. Which of the following cloud-based service can be used by them?
a)
Hybrid cloud
b)
Community cloud
c)
Private cloud
d)
Public cloud
82.
The final stage of private cloud deployment involves examining systems and employing billing mechanisms. Which among the following is the final stage?
a)
Consolidation
b)
Virtualization
c)
Automation
d)
Optimisation
83.
A private cloud is built and managed by the organisation itself, say by an internal department such as IT team. Which of the following categories of private cloud is referred here?
a)
On-premise
b)
Off-premise
c)
In-premise
d)
Out-premise
84.
An organisation maintains a centralised private cloud for managing database and maintains public cloud to manage network links. Which kind of cloud model is used in this case?
a)
Hybrid cloud
b)
Community cloud
c)
Distributed cloud
d)
Virtual cloud
85.
A user want to appeal and derive cloud services and resources from the cloud infrastructure which allows him to automatically request for service in real time. Which of the following features can be used?
a)
Automation suite
b)
Self- service portals
c)
Federated cloud deployment
d)
Cloud Service Brokerage
86.
A cloud owner cannot receive all the necessary services from a single cloud service provider and to access all the services he need more than one internal and/or external cloud computing services. Which of the following services helps him to meet the requirement?
a)
Automation suite
b)
Self- service portals
c)
Cloud service brokerage
d)
Federated cloud deployment
87.
Which of the following is an organisation that serves as an intermediary between the cloud service provider and the service user so as to add value to cloud services?
a)
Cloud service provider
b)
Cloud service owner
c)
Cloud service brokerage
d)
Cloud service system
88.
Which of the following is the standard defined by ISO that ensures quality, safety, and other features of products, systems, and services are maintained in the same degree of value, by maintaining stringent benchmarks and following the requisite standards of practice, the world over?
a)
ISO 37000 series
b)
ISO 27000 series
c)
ISO 47000 series
d)
ISO 17000 series
89.
Which of the following is an organisation that work for the healthcare industry and deals with information risks associated with the organisation thereby protecting its sensitive data?
a)
PCI-DSS
b)
CMMI
c)
HITRUST
d)
CSA
90.
Which of the following is the standard which is defined to deploy, maintain, and promote the standards of Payment Card Industry?
a)
PCI-DSS
b)
CMMI
c)
HITRUST
d)
CSA
91.
CMMI offers certification that evaluate the process maturity associated with the organisation. What is the highest level of its certification process?
a)
Managed
b)
Defined
c)
Quantitatively managed
d)
Optimised
92.
An organisation has achieved CMMI level 4. Which of the following level has the organisation achieved?
a)
Managed
b)
Defined
c)
Quantitatively managed
d)
Optimised
93.
Which of the following regulation is designed with an intention of concealing an individual’s personal information during telephonic communication?
a)
SOX
b)
ECPA
c)
HIPPA
d)
PCI-DSS
94.
Which of the following act is also known as Financial Services Modernization Act and is implemented to protect and safeguard the privacy of financial information?
a)
SOX
b)
ECPA
c)
HIPPA
d)
GBLA
95.
An organisation has achieved CMMI level 3. Which of the following level has the organisation achieved?
a)
Managed
b)
Defined
c)
Quantitatively managed
d)
Optimised
96.
A user wants to ensure that uniqueness of information that is shared on the network is maintained. Which of the following parameters of security must be maintained?
a)
Confidentiality
b)
Integrity
c)
Authenticity
d)
Availability
97.
A user experiences slow network connectivity while accessing the cloud-based service. Which of the following risk is associated in this case?
a)
Confidentiality
b)
Integrity
c)
Authenticity
d)
Availability
98.
When an organisation access cloud service from CSP then they share the data of the organisation with a third party. Which of the following type of risk is associated in this case?
a)
Access control
b)
E-discovery
c)
Data ownership
d)
Authentication
99.
A CSP can claim that the private data that is submitted by another organisation belongs to them resulting in illegal redistribution and disclosure. What type of risk is associated in this case?
a)
Access control
b)
E-discovery
c)
Data ownership
d)
Authentication
100.
An organisation transmits data on cloud and suspects that it is being intercepted by someone in between. Which of the following type of threat is associated in this case?
a)
Malicious intermediary
b)
Traffic snooping
c)
DoS attacks
d)
Unintended authorization
100 %
