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Worksheets

Network 2023-2024

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 5hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which protocol is used to retrieve email message by client :

a)

DNS

b)

IMAP / POP 3

c)

SMTP

d)

DHCP

2.

What are Layer 7 protocols ?

a)

HTTPs

DHCP

DNS

SSH

IMAP

FTP

b)

TLS

SSL

c)

TCP

UDP

d)

IP

ICMP

NAT

ARP

RIP

e)

Ethernet
ARP

VLAN

STP

MAC

3.

What are Layer 2 protocols ?

a)

HTTPs

DHCP

DNS

SSH

IMAP

FTP

b)

TLS

SSL

c)

TCP

UDP

d)

IP

ICMP

NAT

ARP

RIP

e)

Ethernet
ARP

VLAN

STP

MAC

4.

What are Layer 3 protocols ?

a)

HTTPs

DHCP

DNS

SSH

IMAP

FTP

b)

TLS

SSL

c)

TCP

UDP

d)

IP

ICMP

NAT

ARP

RIP

e)

Ethernet
ARP

VLAN

STP

MAC

5.

What are Layer 4 protocols ?

a)

HTTPs

DHCP

DNS

SSH

IMAP

FTP

b)

TLS

SSL

c)

TCP

UDP

d)

IP

ICMP

NAT

ARP

RIP

e)

Ethernet
ARP

VLAN

STP

MAC

6.

What are Layer 6 protocols ?

a)

HTTPs

DHCP

DNS

SSH

IMAP

FTP

b)

TLS

SSL

c)

USB

FIBER OPTIC

d)

IP

ICMP

NAT

ARP

RIP

e)

Ethernet
ARP

VLAN

STP

MAC

7.

What are Layer 1 protocols ?

a)

HTTPs

DHCP

DNS

SSH

IMAP

FTP

b)

TLS

SSL

c)

USB

FIBER OPTIC

d)

IP

ICMP

NAT

ARP

RIP

e)

Ethernet
ARP

VLAN

STP

MAC

8.

What are Layer 5 protocols ?

a)

HTTPs

DHCP

DNS

SSH

IMAP

FTP

b)

SMB

NetBIOS

c)

USB

FIBER OPTIC

d)

IP

ICMP

NAT

ARP

RIP

e)

Ethernet
ARP

VLAN

STP

MAC

9.

What is the PDUs (Protocol Data Unit) associated with the Network Layer ?

a)

Packet

b)
Megabits
c)

Frame

d)

Segment

10.

What is the PDUs (Protocol Data Unit) associated with the Data Link Layer ?

a)

Packet

b)
Megabits
c)

Frame

d)

Segment

11.

What is the PDUs (Protocol Data Unit) associated with the Transport Layer ?

a)

Packet

b)
Megabits
c)

Frame

d)

Segment

12.

Which protocol is primarily used for sending emails from a client to a mail server?

a)

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

b)

POP 3 (Post Office Protocol)

c)

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

d)

Nothing

13.

What is the role of POP3 in email communication?

a)

A) Sending emails to a server

b)

B) Retrieving emails from a server

c)

C) Managing email folders

d)

D) Filtering spam

14.

Which protocol allows users to access and manage their emails on the server without downloading them to a local device?

a)

A) POP3

b)

B) SMTP

c)

C) IMAP

d)

D) HTTP

15.

What protocol header information is used at the transport layer to identify a target application

a)

IP adress

b)

sequence number

c)

port number

d)

MAC adress

16.

What is the purpose of using a client source port number in a TCP communication ?

a)

to notify the remote device that the conversation is over

b)

to assemble the segments that arrived out of order

c)

to keep track of multiple conversations between devices

d)

to inquire for a non received segment

17.

Connection-oriented service provided by TCP protocol ensures

a)

lossless and sequenced communication

b)

help to avoid congestion on the network

c)

data integrity

d)

reliable communication

18.

When is UDP preferred to TCP ?

a)

When a client sends a segment to a server

b)

When all the data must be fully received before any part of it is considered useful

c)

When an application can tolerate some loss of data during transmission

d)

When segments must arrive in a very specific sequence to be processed successfully

19.

Which transport layer protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the internet ?

a)

TCP

b)

SMTP

c)

UDP

d)

ICMP

20.

Which protocol is used to automatically configure hosts with IP addresses:

a)

RIP

b)

HTTP

c)

SSH

d)

DHCP

21.

What is the maximum number of valid hosts one will have from

the network 192.168.207.0 255.255.255.128

a)

64 hosts

b)

126 hosts

c)

128 hosts

d)

130 hosts

22.

The IP address configured on a router interface will appear in the routing table as what kind of route

a)

Static

b)

Connected

c)

Local

d)

Dynamic

23.

When do directly connected networks appear in the routing table ?

a)

When they are included in a static route

b)

When they are used as an exit interface

c)

As soon as they are addressed and operational at Layer 2

d)

As soon as they are addressed and operational at Layer 3

24.

Which of the following algorithms does not support classless addressing:

a)

RIPv1

b)

RIPv2

c)

OSPF

d)

EIGRP

25.

What is the primary metric typically used by distance vector routing protocols for path selection?

a)

A) Bandwidth

b)

B) Delay

c)

C) Hop count

d)

D) Load

26.

Which of the following algorithms is/are not a Distance-vector routing protocol

a)

IGRP

b)

RIPv2

c)

OSPF

d)

EIGRP

27.

How does a Link-State routing protocol calculate the shortest path in a network?

a)

A) Based on hop count

b)


B) Using routing-by-rumor logic

c)

C) With the Dijkstra's algorithm

d)

D) By prioritizing bandwidth

28.

Which of the following is an example of a Link-State routing protocol?

a)

A) RIP

b)

B) EIGRP

c)

C) OSPF

d)

D) BGP

29.

In terms of convergence, how does Link-State routing compare to Distance Vector routing?

a)

A) Link-State routing generally converges slower.

b)

B) Distance Vector routing generally converges slower.

c)

C) Both converge at the same speed.

d)

D) Link-State routing generally converges faster.

30.

Router R1 is using the RIPv2 routing protocol and has discovered multiple unequal paths to reach a destination network.

How will Router R1 determine which path is the best path to the destination network ?

a)

Highest metric

b)

Lowest metric

c)

Highest administrative distance

d)

Lowest administrative distance

31.

R1's G1/0 interface has an IP address of 172.20.20.17 and its G2/0 interface has an IP address of 172.26.20.12. Which of the following network commands will activate EIGRP on both interfaces ?

a)

R1(config-router)# network 128.0.0.0 127.255.255.255

b)

R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255

c)

R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.127.255

d)

R1(config-router)# network 172.20.0.0 0.3.255.255

32.

Which is an accurate statement about the behaviour of routers and switches ?

a)

Routers flood packets with an unknown destination IP address, switches flood frames with an unknown destination MAC address

b)

Routers drop packets with an unknown destination IP address, switches drop frames with an unknown destination MAC address

c)

Routers drop packets with an unknown destination IP address, switches flood frames with an unknown destination MAC address

d)

none of the answer

33.

What happens if you try to assign a switch interface to a VLAN that doesn't exist ?

a)

The command will fail

b)

the switch will create the VLAN

c)

The interface will be disabled until you create the VLAN

d)

All VLANs exist by default

34.

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

35.
a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

36.

Segment (in PDUs) is

a)

Data + L4 header

b)

Data

c)

Data + L4 header + L3 header

d)

L2 trailer + Data L4 header + L3 header + L2 header

37.

What is the correct DNS protocol lifecycle ?

a)

1) DNS server -->

2) Root server -->

3) TLD server -->

4) Authoritative Name server -->

5) Response from the Application (Web server)

b)

1) DNS server -->

2) TLD server -->

3) Root server -->

4) Authoritative Name server -->

5) Response from the Application (Web server)

c)

1) DNS server -->

2) Authoritative Name server -->

3) TLD server -->

4) Root server -->

5) Response from the Application (Web server)

d)

1) Root server -->

2) DNS server -->

3) Authoritative Name server -->

4) TLD server -->

5) Response from the Application (Web server)

38.

What is classe B ip range ?

a)

1.0.0.0 - 126.255.255.255

b)

128.0.0.0 - 191.255.255.255

c)

192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.255

d)

224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255

39.

Qui est le + Hétéro-curieux

a)

Le M

b)

Maël

c)

Lucas

d)

Thomas

40.

A device has an IP address of 193.200.7.11/24

Complete the following information :

a)
  • Network address: 193.200.7.0

  • Maximum number of hosts in the network: 254

  • Network broadcast address: 193.200.7.255

  • First usable address of the network: 193.200.7.1

  • Last usable address of the network: 193.200.7.254

b)
  • Network address: 193.200.0.0

  • Maximum number of hosts in the network: 254

  • Network broadcast address: 193.200.7.255

  • First usable address of the network: 193.200.7.1

  • Last usable address of the network: 193.200.7.254

c)
  • Network address: 193.200.0.0

  • Maximum number of hosts in the network: 254

  • Network broadcast address: 193.200.7.255

  • First usable address of the network: 193.200.7.1

  • Last usable address of the network: 193.200.7.255

d)
  • Network address: 193.200.7.0

  • Maximum number of hosts in the network: 254

  • Network broadcast address: 193.200.7.0

  • First usable address of the network: 193.200.7.1

  • Last usable address of the network: 193.200.7.254

41.

Identify the incorrect IPv6 notation among the following:

a)

fe80::1

b)

3ffe:1900:4545:3:200:f8ff:fe21:67cf

c)

abcd::ef01::5678

d)

2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334

42.

What is the correct CIDR notation for a network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 ?

a)

A) 192.168.1.0/27

b)

B) 10.0.0.0/8

c)

C) 172.16.0.0/16

d)

D) 200.100.50.0/24

43.

What is the maximum number of valid hosts one will have from the network 192.168.207.0 255.255.255.128

a)

254

b)

256

c)

128

d)

126

44.
  • When a router using a dynamic routing protocol learns two different routes to the same destination, how does it determine which route is the 'best' ?

a)
  • A) It relies on the alphabetical order of the routes.

b)
  • B) It selects the route with the lowest IP address.

c)
  • C) It uses the metric value of the routes to determine which is best.

d)
  • D) It chooses the route with the highest bandwidth.

45.
  • How is the optimal path to every destination network represented in a router's route table ?

a)
  • A) As a physical connection diagram.

b)
  • B) As a list of neighboring routers.

c)
  • C) As a series of subnet masks.

d)
  • D) As a list of routes to destination networks.

46.
  • What does IGP stand for in the context of routing protocols?

a)
  • A) Internet Gateway Protocol

b)
  • B) Internal Gateway Protocol

c)
  • C) Interconnected Gateway Protocol

d)
  • D) Intra-AS Gateway Protocol

47.
  • Which of the following are an example of an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) used inside an Autonomous System (AS) ?

a)
  • A) BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

b)
  • B) OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

c)
  • C) EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol)

d)
  • D) EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

48.
  • What is the primary purpose of Exterior Gateway Protocols (EGP) or Inter-AS routing?

a)
  • A) To route traffic within an AS.

b)
  • B) To connect devices in an internal networks of an organisation.

c)
  • C) To facilitate communication between different Autonomous Systems (AS).

d)
  • D) To determine the shortest path within a network.

49.
  • Among the listed routing protocols, which one are considered an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) for routing between Autonomous Systems?

a)
  • A) OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

b)
  • B) RIP (Routing Information Protocol)

c)
  • C) IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System)

d)
  • D) BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

50.

Distance vector routing indicates that routes are advertised using two details:

a)

A) Distance between a network and its destination and is based on metrics like hop count, cost, bandwidth, delay, and more.

b)

B) The vector specifies the exit interface or next-hop router's direction to the destination.

c)

C) The total number of routers in the network.

d)

D) The time it takes for a packet to travel from the source to the destination.

51.

What is the correct Cisco command order to configure eigrp protocol ?

a)
  • R1(config)#router eigrp 1

  • R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0

  • R1(config-router)#network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.15

  • R1(config-router)#no auto summary

  • R1(config-router)#passive-interface g2/0

b)
  • R1 (config)#router eigrp

    1

    R1 (config-router)#no auto-summary

    R1 (config-router)#passive-interface g2/0

    R1 (config-router) #network 10.0.0.0

    R1 (config-router)#network

    172.16.1.0

  • 0.0.0.15

c)
  • R1(config)#router eigrp 1

  • R1(config-router)#network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.15

  • R1(config-router)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

  • R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0

  • R1(config-router)#passive-interface g2/0

d)
  • R1(config)#router eigrp 1

  • R1(config-router)#network

  • R1(config-router)#no auto summary

  • R1(config-router)#ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1

  • R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0

  • R1(config-router)#passive-interface g2/0

52.

R1 and R2 both use RIP to share routes. R1 has a default route to the Internet that you want to advertise to R2. Which command should you use?

a)

a) R1(config-router)# default-information originate

b)

b) R1(config-router)# network 203.0.113.0

c)

c) R2(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.12.1

d)

d) R2(config-router)# default-information originate

53.

You want to activate OSPF on R1’s G0/1 and G0/2 interfaces with a single command. G0/1 IP: 10.0.12.1/28 G0/2 IP: 10.0.13.1/26

a)

a) R1(config-router)# network 10.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

b)

b) R1(config-router)# network 10.0.12.0 0.0.0.254 area 0

c)

c) R1(config-router)# network 10.0.12.0 0.0.1.255 area 0

d)

d) R1(config-router)# network 10.0.8.0 0.0.3.255 area 0

54.

Which statements are true regarding CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) and CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) ?

a)

A) CSMA/CD is commonly used in Ethernet networks, and it involves devices sensing the channel, waiting for an opportune moment to transmit, and detecting collisions if they occur.

b)

B) CSMA/CA is commonly used in wireless networks, and it aims to avoid collisions by sensing the channel and implementing mechanisms to prevent multiple devices from transmitting simultaneously.

c)

C) CSMA/CD is more suitable for wireless networks due to its ability to avoid collisions without the need for extensive collision detection mechanisms.

d)

D) Both CSMA/CD and CSMA/CA involve devices listening to the channel before attempting to transmit, ensuring efficient and collision-free data transmission.

55.

Which statements are true regarding Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) or IEEE 802.1d STP ?

a)

A) STP is designed to prevent looping within a network topology by identifying redundant paths and disabling specific ports to eliminate loops.

b)

B) IEEE 802.1d STP places each switch port in either a Forwarding State or a Blocking State, with interfaces in the Forwarding State acting as normal for forwarding frames.

c)

C) The primary goal of STP is to maximize network throughput by enabling simultaneous data transmission on all available paths.

d)

D) Interfaces in the Blocking State of IEEE 802.1d STP do not process any frames except STP messages, helping to avoid loops in network topologies.

56.

How does the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) work ?

a)

A) ARP request messages are unicast, specifically sent to the intended destination device.

b)

B) ARP request messages are broadcast to the local network by the source device, seeking the MAC address of the destination.

c)

C) ARP reply messages are sent by the device whose IP address matches the destination IP address in the packet.

d)

D) ARP operates solely at the application layer and does not involve MAC addresses

57.

You create VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on a Cisco switch. How many VLANs will be displayed in the output of the show vlan brief command ?

a)

a) 3

b)

b) 5

c)

c) 8

d)

d) 10

58.

You want to configure SW1 to send VLAN10 frames untagged over its GigabitEthernet0/1 interface, a trunk. Which command is appropriate ?

a)

a) encapsulation dot1q 10

b)

b) switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

c)

c) switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10

d)

d) switchport trunk native vlan 10