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Worksheets

3rd Six Weeks Extra Credit

Total questions: 501

Worksheet time: 16hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The diagram shows a model of an atom. The model contains 3 different subatomic particles. ​ (a)   have either a positive or a neutral charge. ​ (b)   ​ has a negative charge.

Choose from the below words
Particle X and Y
Particle Z
2.

If a Fluorine (F) atom has a mass number of 19, how many neutrons are in the atom?

3.

How many neutrons are in the nucleus of a potassium atom with a mass number of 39?

4.

The atomic number of Krypton is 36. If the mass number of a krypton atom is 84, which table shows the number of subatomic particles INSIDE and OUTSIDE the nucleus of the krypton atom?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.

Drag the hotspot to the location of the nucleus in the Atom featured here.

A
B
6.

Place the elements in the correct order by LEAST (left) number of Protons to MOST (right) number of protons.

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Carbon

c)

Aluminum

d)

Potassium

e)

Xenon

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
7.

The electrons in an atom are ​ (a)   the nucleus and have ​a (b)   charge.

Choose from the below words
outside
negative
positive
neutral
inside
sometimes inside and sometimes outside
8.

Label the two parts of the atom here.

a)Nucleus
b)Electron cloud
1
2
1)
2)
9.

Match the following mass amounts with the proper charge.

a)

Protons

1.

(+)positive

b)

Electron

2.

(-) negative

c)

Neutron

3.

(0) neutral, no charge

10.

Both the proton and the ​ (a)   have a mass unit of 1 AMU, while the ​​ (b)   has a mass unit of 0 AMU.

Choose from the below words
neutron
electron
11.

Which statement correctly describes the location and charge of the neutrons in an atom?

a)

The neutrons are inside the nucleus and have a positive charge.

b)

The neutrons are outside the nucleus and have a neutral charge.

c)

The neutrons are outside the nucleus and have a negative charge.

d)

The neutrons are inside the nucleus and have a neutral charge.

12.

What type of particles are found in the cloud surrounding the atom's nucleus?

a)

Neutral particles and positively charge particles

b)

Positive charge particles only

c)

Negatively charge particles and positively charge particles

d)

Negatively charge particles only

13.

Which of the following best describes a proton?

a)

It has a positive charge and the same mass as an electron

b)

It has a neutral charge and the same mass as an neutron

c)

It has a positive charge and the same mass as an neutron

d)

It has a negative charge and the same mass as an electron

14.
Where is most of the mass in an atom located?
a)
in the nucleus
b)
in the protons
c)
in the neutrons
d)
in the electrons
15.
The particles with no charge in an atom are the _______.
a)
electrons
b)
neutrons
c)
protons
d)
protons and neutrons
16.
 What is the mass number of this element?
a)
5
b)
27
c)
32
d)
59
17.
What is the atomic number?
a)
number of protons
b)
number of neutrons
18.
What is the mass number?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom 
c)
the number of electrons
d)
the number of neutrons
19.
Which statement best describes an electron?
a)
Smaller mass than a proton and a negative charge
b)
Smaller mass than a proton and a positive charge
c)
Greater mass than a proton and a negative charge
d)
Greater mass than a proton and a positive charge
20.

How many atoms are represented in the reactants in the equation?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

4

d)

5

21.

In which of these compounds are there twice as many oxygen atoms as hydrogen atoms?

a)

H3PO4

b)

H2SO4

c)

HCIO3

d)

H2O

22.

The chemical formula for sodium sulfate is Na2SO4. How many sulfur atoms are in the formula for sodium sulfate?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

6

d)

7

23.

How many atoms of oxygen are in a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6)?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

24.

How many atoms in all are found in the compound above?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

25.

Which of the models best represents CaCO3?

a)
b)
c)
d)
26.

How many elements are in C6H12O6?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

27.
How many Hydrogen are in 4H2O?
a)
6
b)
8
c)
2
d)
4
28.
How many O's are in Al₂(SO₄)₃
a)
4
b)
12
c)
7
d)
24
29.

Sodium sulfate is used in laundry detergent. It is a compound that contains 2 atoms of sodium, 1 atom of sulfur, and 4 atoms of oxygen. What is the correct chemical formula for sodium sulfate?

a)

NA2SO4

b)

Na2S2O4

c)

Na2SO4

d)

Na2SO8

30.

The smallest particle of an element that cannot be broken down further without changing the properties of the element.

a)

cell

b)

atom

c)

charge

d)

isotope

31.

What is in the center of an atom?

a)

way

b)

structure

c)

cell

d)

nucleus

32.

The area of space surrounding the nucleus.

a)

proton

b)

isotope

c)

electron cloud

d)

neutron

33.

Subatomic particles within the atom.

a)

protons, neutrons, and electrons

b)

neutrons, isotopes, rotopes

c)

protons, botons, critons

d)

neutrons, botons, rotopes

34.

Which subatomic particle does not have an electrical charge and is found inside of the nucleus? 

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

isotopes

35.

Positively charged particles found in

the nucleus of an atom.

a)

electrons

b)

neutrons

c)

isotopes

d)

protons

36.

Negatively charged particles within the electron cloud outside the nucleus.

a)

neutrons

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

isotopes

37.

If the number of protons equals the number of electrons in the atom the electrical charge is-

a)

negative

b)

neutral

c)

positive

38.

If there are more protons than electrons, the

atom is ______ charged.

a)

positively

b)

negatively

c)

neutral

39.

If there are more electrons than protons, the atom is _______ charged.

a)

positively

b)

negatively

c)

neutral

40.

Where are electrons found?

a)

proton cloud

b)

nucleus

c)

neutron cloud

d)

electron cloud

41.

_____ have a smaller mass than protons and neutrons.

a)

isotopes

b)

electrons

c)

ions

d)

breons

42.

The three smaller components that make up atoms are

a)

neutrons, protons and ions.

b)

neutrons, electrons and protons.

c)

protons, ions and electrons.

d)

electrons, neutrons and ions.

43.

Which of the following lists the two particles found together inside the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Photons and ions

b)

Neutrons and electrons

c)

Protons and neutrons

d)

Electrons and protons

44.

Which of the following correctly lists the pair of subatomic particles that balance the charge of the atom?

a)

Protons and neutrons

b)

Electrons and neutrons

c)

Protons and electrons

d)

Electrons and ions

45.

An element’s reactivity and other chemical properties are determined by the number of -

a)

isotopes it has

b)

oxidation states

c)

orbitals in an atom

d)

valence electrons

46.

Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. This means that molybdenum –

a)

has a freezing point of 42° Fahrenheit.

b)

belongs to Group 42 on the Periodic Table.

c)

can form 42 bonds with other atoms.

d)

contains 42 protons in its nucleus.

47.

Which of the following properties of carbon distinguishes it from all other elements?

a)

Carbon has six protons in its nucleus.

b)

Carbon is a gray solid at room temperature.

c)

Carbon forms compounds with oxygen

d)

Carbon can be found in Earth’s crust.

48.

The table provides information on four different elements. Based on the information provided, it can be concluded that –

a)

sodium is the most reactive.

b)

strontium is the best conductor.

c)

phosphorus is the least stable.

d)

aluminum has the most protons.

49.

What is the name for the type of subatomic particle that is electrically neutral and found in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Proton

b)

Neutron

c)

Ion

d)

Electron

50.

Which particles would you find in the nucleus of an atom?

a)

Protons and neutrons

b)

Electrons and protons

c)

Electrons only

d)

Neutrons and electrons

51.

Which subatomic particle(s) would be found orbiting around the nucleus?

a)

Electrons and protons

b)

Neutrons only

c)

Protons and neutrons

d)

Electrons only

52.

Which of the following correctly lists the pair of subatomic particles that balance the charge of the atom?

a)

Protons and neutrons

b)

Electrons and neutrons

c)

Protons and electrons

d)

Electrons and ions

53.

What is the mass of an atom with seven protons, seven neutrons, and eight electrons?

a)

15

b)

14

c)

13

d)

22

54.

A form of charge, designated negative, positive, or neutral (without charge) that is found on the subatomic particles that make up all atoms.

a)

atomic mass

b)

p+

c)

e-

d)

electrical charge

55.

The tiny, very dense, positively charged region in the center of an atom; made up of protons and neutrons.

(a)  

56.

The smallest particle of an element; made of electrons, protons, and neutrons

a)

valence electron

b)

electron cloud

c)

atomic mass

d)

atom

57.

What is the arrow pointing to?

a)

atomic number

b)

atomic mass

c)

chemical formula

d)

valence shell

58.

Which of the following atoms would have a charge of +1?

a)

An atom with 9 protons, 9 electrons, and 9 neutrons.

b)

An atom with 7 protons, 11 electrons, and 8 neutrons.

c)

An atom with 5 protons, 5 electrons, and 4 neutrons.

d)

An atom with 6 protons, 5 electrons, and 7 neutrons

59.

The nucleus of the atom contains 8 protons and 9 neutrons. The atom is electrically neutral. How many electrons does this atom have?

a)

4

b)

9

c)

8

d)

15

60.

If an atom has 17 protons, 18 neutrons, and 17 electrons, what is the mass of this atom?

a)

17

b)

18

c)

35

d)

52

61.

The charge of an atom is determined by the

a)

shape of the electron cloud.

b)

atomic mass of the element.

c)

radius of the outermost electron.

d)

number of protons and electrons.

62.

Which of the following lists the two subatomic particles that contribute the most to the mass of an atom?

a)

Protons and electrons

b)

Protons and neutrons

c)

Neutrons and electrons

d)

Electrons and ions

63.

A certain atom has 11 electrons, 8 neutrons, and a charge of -1. What is its atomic mass?

a)

19

b)

15

c)

11

d)

18

64.

Which value is most likely the number of protons for saturntonium?

a)

388

b)

219

c)

169

d)

171

65.

Which statement is a valid conclusion based on the information?

a)

Saturntonium is nonreactive

b)

Saturntonium has properties unlike any other element

c)

Saturntonium is very reactive

d)

Saturntonium has properties most similar to period 7 metals

66.

What information from the table could help the student identify the element?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Atomic mass

d)

Valence electrons

67.

Which model represents the most reactive atom?

a)
b)
c)
d)
68.

What element, based on the subatomic particles in the atom, is shown?

a)

Beryllium

b)

Helium

c)

Lithium

d)

Oxygen

69.

Which of the following characteristics is similar for fluorine and iodine?

a)

Number of protons

b)

Number of neutrons

c)

Number of orbitals

d)

Number of valence electrons

70.

What element contains 7 protons and 5 valence electrons?

a)

Boron

b)

Vanadium

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Lithium

71.

The atomic number of an element is equal to its number of protons. Therefore, a logical conclusion is that the number of protons determines an element's

a)

Mass and atomic weight

b)

Number of stable isotopes

c)

Identity

d)

State of matter

72.

Which statement is NOT accurate describing the element krypton?

a)

The element has 36 protons

b)

The element has 48 neutrons

c)

The element has 6 valence electrons

d)

The element has properties similar to neon

73.

Which statement would be most helpful in determining an element's reactivity?

a)

The element has the same number of electron shells as iodine

b)

The element has the same number of valence electrons as cesium

c)

The element has 47 neutrons

d)

The element is a metal

74.

Based on the model, which statement accurately describes the reactivity of sodium?

a)

Sodium is slightly reactive because it has one more neutron than protons

b)

Sodium is highly reactive because it has a filled outer shell of valence electrons

c)

Sodium is slightly reactive because it has an equal number of protons and electrons

d)

Sodium is highly reactive because it has only one valence electron

75.

Where are valence electrons located on the model?

a)

Near the nucleus

b)

In the middle of the atom

c)

At the innermost level

d)

At the outermost level

76.

Based on the information, what is the identity of this atom?

a)

Fluorine (F)

b)

Cobalt (Co)

c)

Germanium (Ge)

d)

Nickel (Ni)

77.

Which student's claim about valence electrons in a sulfur atom is correct?

a)

Student 1

b)

Student 2

c)

Both Student 1 and Student 2

d)

Neither Student 1 nor Student 2

78.

Which statement best explains why protons are used to identify an element?

a)

Protons are the most easily identified subatomic particles

b)

Positive charges are more easily detected during an investigation than negative and neutral charges

c)

The number of protons is unique to each element and remains constant

d)

Protons alone cannot be used to identify an element. The number of electrons and neutrons must also be known.

79.

A group of students examines a Bohr model of an atom with 8 valence electrons. What conclusion can the students make about the chemical reactivity of the element?

a)

The element is extremely reactive because the outer energy level is full

b)

The element is nonreactive because the outer energy level is full

c)

The element is somewhat reactive because the outer energy level is full

d)

Additional information is necessary to determine reactivity

80.

Which area would be most useful in determining the identity of an element?

a)

Area 1

b)

Area 2

c)

Area 3

d)

Area 4

81.

What reasonable conclusion can be made from the information given?

a)

Element 1 has the same atomic mass as Element 4

b)

Element 3 has very similar chemical properties as Element 4

c)

Element 1 has very similar chemical properties as Element 3

d)

None of the above

82.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element with 2 valence electrons and 3 energy levels.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

83.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element with 2 valence electrons and 1 energy levels.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

84.

Which pair of properties describe the elements in group 18

a)

They have 8 valence electrons and are very reactive

b)

They have 8 energy levels and are stable

c)

They are gases at room temperature and are stable

d)

They are gases at room temperature and very reactive.

85.

Which statement best describes the position of the two elements in the periodic table.

a)

The two elements are in the same period, with Mg the first element in the period table and Ca the last element

b)

The two elements are in the same group, with Mg just above Ca

c)

The two elements are side by side in the same period, with Ca to the left of Mg

d)

The two elements are in the same group, with Ca just below Mg

86.

Which of these elements is in this group?

a)

Lithium

b)

Silicon

c)

Aluminum

d)

Strontium

87.

Which two elements on the periodic table are in the same group?

a)

Na and He

b)

O and C

c)

Li and Ne

d)

He and Ar

88.

Which pair of properties describes the elements in Group 1?

a)

They are chemically stable

b)

They have 8 valence electrons

c)

They are the most reactive metals

d)

They are the most reactive non metals

89.

How many valence electrons are in an element in group 15 in the periodic table?

a)

5

b)

15

c)

7

d)

8

90.

Which two atoms are elements in the same group in the periodic table?

a)

Atom 3 and Atom 4

b)

Atom 1 and Atom 4

c)

Atom 3 and Atom 2

d)

Atom 1 and Atom 2

91.

Which two atoms are elements that belong in period two in the periodic table?

a)

Atom 3 and Atom 4

b)

Atom 1 and Atom 4

c)

Atom 3 and Atom 2

d)

Atom 1 and Atom 2

92.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element that is brittle and dull.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

93.

Based on the data, which number shows the correct location of the element that is malleable and a good conductor.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

94.

which set of elements represents a period within the periodic table?

a)

H, He, Ar, Xe, and Rn

b)

K, V, Fe, Ga, and Kr

c)

N, P, As, Sb, and Bi

d)

La, Pd, Sm, Tb, and Yb

95.

In the periodic table above, which elements are predominantly gases with low densities?

a)

Elements in area A

b)

Elements in area B

c)

Elements in area C

d)

Elements in area D

96.

All of the following properties describe the element calcium EXCEPT

a)

reactive

b)

shiny and silvery-white in color

c)

found in nature

d)

soft enough to be cut with a knife

97.

Which statement best describes the positions of Elements J and Z in relation to each other?

a)

Elements J and Z are part of the same group in different periods

b)

Elements J and Z are part of different groups in the same period

c)

Elements J and Z are part of groups next to each other in the same period

d)

Elements J and Z are part of different groups in different periods

98.

Fluorine is classified as part of the halogen group because all the elements

a)

are conductors of electricity

b)

have the same atomic mass

c)

have similar chemical and physical properties

d)

are malleable and ductile

99.

Which sets of elements have similar chemical and physical properties?

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

2 and 4

100.

Which of the following best describes the location of an element in the same period as the element tin?

a)

Group 14(4A), Period 4

b)

Group 16(6A), Period 5

c)

Group 14(4A), Period 5

d)

Group 13(3A), Period 6

101.

Which set of elements has properties similar to phosphorus?

a)

Aluminum, silicon, sulfur, and chlorine

b)

Carbon, selenium, iodine, and radon

c)

Oxygen, germanium, indium, and mercury

d)

Nitrogen, arsenic, antimony, and bismuth

102.

What property does element X have based on its location in the periodic table?

a)

Highly reactive gas

b)

Manmade radioactive substance

c)

Nonreactive nonmetal

d)

Metallic solid

103.

Which elements would most likely fill these spaces?

a)

Cu, Ag, and Au

b)

Ti, V, and Cr

c)

Mn, Ru, and Os

d)

Co, Pd, and Au

104.

A student is given two unknown metals and asked to determine whether these two elements belong to the same group in the periodic table. Which of the following will help the student determine if the metals belong to the same group?

a)

Measure only physical properties of the metals

b)

Measure both chemical and physical properties of the metals

c)

Measure only chemical properties of the metals

d)

Measure the densities of the metals

105.

Under special conditions, pure calcium reacts with water. Which element could be substituted for calcium in this reaction?

a)

Potassium

b)

Aluminum

c)

Magnesium

d)

Chlorine

106.

Which statement best describes the relationship between elements D and E?

a)

Element D has more valence electrons than Element E

b)

Element D is more reactive than Element E

c)

Elements D and E are metals

d)

Element D has a smaller atomic size than Element E

107.

CO2CO_2  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

108.

C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

109.

C6H12O6C_6H_{12}O_6  

How many atoms of Hydrogen are there?

(a)  

110.

18 H2O18\ H_2O  

How many atoms of Oxygen are there?

(a)  

111.

2 C2H182\ C_2H_{18}  

How many atoms of Carbon are there?

(a)  

112.

2 Al2O32\ Al_2O_3  

How many atoms of Oxygen are there?

(a)  

113.

2 Al2O32\ Al_2O_3  

How many atoms of Aluminum are there?

(a)  

114.

FeS2FeS_2  

How many different elements make up this compound?

(a)  

115.

FeS2FeS_2  

What is the TOTAL number of atoms that make up this compound?

(a)  

116.

NaNO2NaNO_2  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

117.

Sn(NO3)2Sn\left(NO_3\right)_2  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

118.

Sn(NO3)2Sn\left(NO_3\right)_2  

How many atoms of Tin are there?

(a)  

119.

Sn(NO3)2Sn\left(NO_3\right)_2  

How many atoms of Nitrogen are there?

(a)  

120.

(NH4)2Cr2O7\left(NH_4\right)_2Cr_2O_7  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

121.

(NH4)2Cr2O7\left(NH_4\right)_2Cr_2O_7  

How many atoms of Chromium are there?

(a)  

122.

(NH4)2Cr2O7\left(NH_4\right)_2Cr_2O_7  

How many atoms of Hydrogen are there?

(a)  

123.

CaCO3CaCO_3  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

124.

CaCO3CaCO_3  

What is the TOTAL number of atoms that make up this compound?

(a)  

125.

2 Pb(NO3)22\ Pb\left(NO_3\right)_2  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

126.

2 Pb(NO3)22\ Pb\left(NO_3\right)_2  

How many atoms of Lead are there?

(a)  

127.

2 Pb(NO3)22\ Pb\left(NO_3\right)_2  

How many atoms of Nitrogen are there?

(a)  

128.

NaHCO3NaHCO_{3_{ }}  

How many elements make up this chemical formula?

(a)  

129.

NaHCO3NaHCO_{3_{ }}  

How many atoms of Carbon are there?

(a)  

130.
Which of the following is an element?
a)
FeO
b)
O2
c)
NaOH
d)
SiO2
131.
Which of the following is a compound?
a)
Ca
b)
Pb
c)
H2
d)
MgBr
132.
How many elements are in the compound C2H8O ?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
3
d)
0
133.
How many total atoms are in the compound H2SO4?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
7
d)
3
134.
Which one of the following compounds is organic?
a)
H2O
b)
CaCu3
c)
C6H12O6
d)
H2Cl3
135.
How many Sodium atoms are in the compound 6NaCl?
a)
1
b)
12
c)
6
d)
4
136.
How many Carbon atoms are on the product side of this chemical equation?            
2C2H2 + 5O2  --->  4CO2 + 2H2O
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
137.
How many Hydrogen atoms are on the reactant side of this chemical equation?            
2C2H2 + 5O2  --->  4CO2 + 2H2O
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
138.
Does this chemical equation follow the Law of Conservation of Mass? (Hint: Is it balanced?)       
2C2H2  +  5O2 ---> 4CO2  +  2H2O 
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
maybe
d)
huh?
139.
According to the Law of Conservation of Mass, –
a)
matter is not created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
b)
matter is always created in a chemical reaction.
c)
matter is always destroyed in a chemical reaction.
d)
matter is created and then destroyed in a chemical reaction.
140.

Which of these formulas contain equal numbers of nitrogen atoms?

a)

Formulas I and III

b)

Formulas I and IV

c)

Formulas I, II and V

d)

Formulas II and III

141.

How many atoms are represented in the reactants in the equation?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

4

d)

5

142.

How many elements are represented in the products in the equation?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

143.

In which of these compounds are there twice as many oxygen atoms as hydrogen atoms?

a)

H3PO4

b)

H2SO4

c)

HCIO3

d)

H2O

144.

The chemical formula for sodium sulfate is Na2SO4. How many sulfur atoms are in the formula for sodium sulfate?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

6

d)

7

145.

How many atoms of oxygen are in a molecule of glucose (C6H12O6)?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

12

d)

24

146.

How many atoms in all are found in the compound above?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

147.

Which of the models best represents CaCO3?

a)
b)
c)
d)
148.

How many elements are in C6H12O6?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

149.

What combination of beads should the use to model the formula? Blue represents carbon, green represent oxygen and red represent hydrogen.

a)

6 blue, 6 red and 6 green

b)

12 green, 6 red and 6 blue

c)

12 red, 6 blue and 6 green

d)

12 blue, 6 green and 6 red

150.
A change in which NEW substances are formed.
a)
Chemical change
b)
Physical change
c)
Casual change
d)
Formal change
151.
Which of the following could indicate a chemical change? 
a)
All of the answers could indicate Chemical Change 
b)
a color change has occurred 
c)
bubbles appear 
d)
identifying one or more new chemical products 
152.
 Which is NOT an example of chemical change?
a)
production of gas.
b)
change in color.
c)
change in size.
d)
transfer of energy.
153.
A copper penny turning greenish after a few years is an example of...
a)
Chemical Change
b)
Physical Change
154.
Which of the following is a PHYSICAL change?
a)
Getting a haircut
b)
Rusty metal
c)
sour milk
d)
A compound
155.
What is the law of conservation of mass?
a)
The part of the universe being studied
b)
The rest of the universe that interacts with the system
c)
Within a closed system, mass does not change
d)
A system that freely exchanges matter and energy
156.
A scientist performed four investigations using eight different liquids. In each investigation, the scientist combined two of the liquids and recorded observations. In which investigation is it LEAST likely that the liquids reacted chemically?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
157.
Four students performed four different investigations by combining different substances. Their results are shown in the table provided. In which experiment are new substances being formed?
a)
Experiment 1
b)
Experiment 2
c)
Experiment 3
d)
Experiment 4
158.

Which of the models of a chemical reaction best represents the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

159.

How many grams of OXYGEN would be needed to show conservation of mass in the example below?

a)

100 g

b)

93 g

c)

7 g

d)

0 g

160.
Matter can not be created nor destroyed: it can only be
a)
Destroyed a little bit
b)
Invisible
c)
Transformed, changed
d)
None of the above
161.

A student mixes 125 grams of sugar, 250 grams of water and 5 grams of flavoring. The solution weighs...

a)

250 grams

b)

380 grams

c)

375 grams

d)

400 grams

162.
If reaction starts with 20g of reactants it should produce 
a)
a total of 40g of products
b)
a total of 10g of products
c)
a total of 80 g of products
d)
a total of 20g of products
163.
What will weigh more when a chemical change is complete?  The reactants before the chemical reaction, or the product after the reaction is complete?
a)
They both will weigh the same
b)
The product always weighs more than the reactant
c)
The reactant will weigh more than the product
d)
They both will loose mass after the reaction
164.

________ are the starting substances in a chemical equation.

a)

Reactants

b)

Producer

c)

Reaction

d)

Products

165.
In a reaction A + B ----> C,  reactant A has 5g and product  C has 9g. How many grams does reactant B should have? 
a)
4g
b)
5g
c)
9g
d)
14g
166.
If a reaction starts with a total 75g of reactants it should produce 
a)
a total of 40g of products
b)
a total of 75g of products
c)
a total of 180 g of products
d)
None of the above
167.
In the reaction AB-----> A + B reactant AB has 12g and product B has 5g. How many grams should product A have?
a)
17g
b)
2g
c)
7g
d)
None of the above
168.
In a reaction A + B ----> C,  reactant A has 5g and product  C has 9g. How many grams should reactant B have? 
a)
4g
b)
5g
c)
9g
d)
14g
169.
A chemical reaction is balanced when
a)
both sides have the same elements
b)
Both sides have the same  number of atoms
c)
Same subscripts
d)
Same coefficients
170.
A chemical reaction between Hydrogen and Oxygen produces water. If 2g of Hydrogen and 4g of Oxygen react together, how much water is produced?
a)
2g
b)
4g
c)
6g
d)
Not enough information to answer
171.
12g of Carbon react with 16g of Oxygen, how much carbon monoxide (CO) is formed? 
a)
28 g
b)
4g
c)
30g
d)
12g
172.

4 grams of hydrogen and 32 grams of oxygen will combine to form:

a)

36 grams of water

b)

28 grams of hydroxide

c)

32 grams of oxygen

d)

36 grams of deuterium

173.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical reaction?
a)
A marshmallow turning black when heated over a fire
b)
A powder dissolving in water to make lemonade
c)
An ice cube melting into a puddle of water
d)
Salt crystals being crushed into a powder
174.
What happens when chemical bonds break and new bonds form?
a)
a physical change
b)
a chemical reaction
c)
matter is destroyed
d)
surface area increases
175.
The principle of conservation of mass is true
a)
only for reactions that take place in open systems.
b)
only for reactions that take place in closed systems.
c)
for reactions in both open and closed systems.
d)
for no reactions at all.
176.
When heated, oxygen reacts with copper to form copper oxide:
If this reaction occurs in a sealed container, will the mass of the container and everything in it increase, decrease, or stay the same and why?
a)
The mass will stay the same because the number of each kind of atom stays the same.
b)
The mass will increase because a new kind of molecule is formed.
c)
The mass will decrease because two substances combine to form one substance.
d)
More information is needed to tell if the mass will change.
177.
What is the Law of Conservation of mass?
a)
Mass is created in a chemical reaction
b)
Mass is created in a physical change
c)
New chemicals formed from a chemical reaction have a larger overall mass than the original reactants
d)
Mass is never created or destroyed
178.
In a reaction A + B ----> C,  reactant A has 5g and product  C has 9g. How many grams should reactant B have? 
a)
4g
b)
5g
c)
9g
d)
14g
179.
A chemical reaction is balanced when
a)
both sides have the same elements
b)
Both sides have the same  number of atoms
c)
Same subscripts
d)
Same coefficients
180.
Matter can not be created nor destroyed: it can only be
a)
Destroyed a little bit
b)
Invisible
c)
Transformed, changed
d)
None of the above
181.
Coal contains carbon and other elements. Carbon dioxide forms when coal burns in the presence of oxygen. Which of these is the best evidence that a chemical reaction occurs when coal burns?
a)
The shape of the coal changes
b)
Oxygen is present
c)
A new substance is produced
d)
Coal is made up of more than one element
182.
You know you a chemical reaction has occurred if 
a)
there is a precipitate.
b)
there is a color change.
c)
there is a temperature change.
d)
All of these answers are evidence.
183.
Which of the following is evidence of a chemical reaction?
a)
fizzing
b)
water changing to ice
c)
saltwater
d)
paper being cut in half
184.
The Law of Conservation of Mass states
a)
that matter exists in all states and reacts the same
b)
that matter can only be changed into new substances by introducing a catalyst
c)
that matter exists in the same state throughout any chemical change
d)
that matter cannot be created or destroyed and that the mass of the products must equal the mass of the reactants
185.
Which is an example of a chemical reaction?
a)
paper cut into small pieces
b)
chocolate melting in a pan
c)
flour and sugar mixed in a bowl
d)
cookies baking in an oven
186.
At the end of chemical reactions, what is the total mass of the reactants compared to the total mass of the products?
a)
the product is doubled
b)
the product is half the mass of the reactants
c)
the mass is the same
d)
the mass changes depending on the reaction
187.
Does this chemical equation follow the Law of Conservation of Mass?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
I don't know
d)
Maybe
188.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
a)
rusting of a bicycle
b)
painting a house
c)
washing a dog
d)
tearing up a newspaper
189.
Which is an example of a physical change?
a)
sodium and chlorine form salt
b)
a copper ring turns white and green
c)
a log burns in a fire
d)
using sand and water to build a sand castle on a beach
190.
You combine 2g of vinegar and 4 g of baking soda in a zip lock bag.  The weight of all contents and the bag before the reaction is 7.2 g.  What should it weigh after the reaction?
a)
6 g
b)
Somewhere between 6 & 7.2 g
c)
Less than 6 g
d)
7.2 g
191.
A chemical reaction between Hydrogen and Oxygen produces water. If 2g of Hydrogen and 4g of Oxygen react together, how much water is produced?
a)
2g
b)
4g
c)
6g
d)
Not enough information to answer
192.
The total amount of matter (atoms) before and after a chemical reaction (change), remains the same.
a)
True
b)
False
193.

The law of conservation of mass says substances can neither be ____________ nor_________.

a)

created; destroyed

b)

condensed; extracted

194.

Sodium and chlorine combine t form sodium chloride, or table salt. Sodium and chlorine are:

a)

products

b)

reactants

195.

4 grams of hydrogen and 32 grams of oxygen will combine to form:

a)

36 of deuterium

b)

32 grams of oxygen

c)

28 grams of hydroxide

d)

36 grams of water

196.

Which of the following describes a chemical reaction?

a)

ice melts into water

b)

carbon dioxide freezes to make dry ice

c)

oxygen interacts with iron to form rust

d)

rocks split apart over many years due to weathering

197.

When sodium and chlorine combine to form sodium chloride, sodium chloride is the:

a)

product

b)

reactants

198.
Acceleration only takes place when things speed up. 
a)
True
b)
False
199.
When are you undergoing an acceleration in a car? 
a)
speed up
b)
slow down
c)
make turns
d)
all of these!
200.
Changes in our speed, direction or both are called _________.
a)
gravity
b)
changes
c)
acceleration
d)
displacement
201.
What is the net force on this box?
a)
30 N left
b)
25 N right
c)
5 N left
d)
55 N right
202.
How will this object change its motion? 
a)
It will not change its motion. 
b)
It will accelerate to the right. 
c)
It will accelerate to the left. 
d)
It will move in both directions. 
203.
The total amount of forces acting on an object is called...
a)
Contact Force
b)
Balanced Force
c)
Unbalanced Force
d)
Net Force
204.
Which of the following has a net force of 0 Newtons?
a)
An asteroid moving at a constant speed through space 
b)
A car accelerating from a stop sign
c)
A box of dishes falling from a counter 
d)
A rocket taking off 
205.
Balanced or Unbalanced?
a)
Balanced 
b)
Unbalanced
206.
Which could be an example of an unbalanced force?
a)
A plate sitting on a dining table
b)
A ball at the top of a hill that is not moving
c)
A soccer ball kicked in space, traveling at a constant speed
d)
A baseball that has just been thrown to home plate.
207.
When an object has a net for that is GREATER than 0 Newtons, the object is...
a)
balanced and still
b)
balanced and moving at a constant speed
c)
unbalanced and accelerating
d)
unbalanced and still
208.
You and your dad are moving the couch from one side to another. Your dad pushes with a force of 35 N to the right and you also push with a force of 25 N right. What is the net force on the couch?
a)
60 N right, unbalanced
b)
10 N left, unbalanced
c)
60 N right, balanced
d)
50 N left, balanced
209.
What is the unit of force?
a)
Kilogram
b)
Meter
c)
Pascal
d)
Newton
210.
What will cause an object to change its motion?
a)
Applied forces
b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
211.
Why does a book on a table not move?
a)
No forces are acting on the book
b)
Gravity is the only force acting on the book
c)
The forces of the table pushing up and gravity pulling down are balanced
212.
Objects that have a net force of zero are...
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
c)
Accelerating
213.
Calculate the Net Force. 
a)
60N, Left unbalanced
b)
40N, Right unbalanced
c)
0N balanced
d)
60N, Right, unbalanced
214.
8 N to the left , and 4 N to the right. Find the net force. Is this balanced?
a)
12 N Right  No
b)
4 N Left  No
c)
12 N Right  Yes
d)
4 N Left  Yes
215.
In a tug of war game, the NET FORCE is 50N to the LEFT.  The left team pulled with a force of 200N to the left. How much force did the losing team pull with?
a)
150N right
b)
250N right
c)
100N right
d)
50N right
216.
A wheeled cart is moving to the right at a constant speed. Which of the following best describes the forces and motion of the cart?
a)
Balanced Forces, Constant Speed
b)
Balanced Forces, Acceleration
c)
Unbalanced Forces, Constant Speed
d)
Unbalanced Forces, Acceleration
217.
Solve the problem. Careful! CHECK your math!
a)
5N
b)
8N
c)
3N
d)
11N
218.
In which of these cases is the car is balanced?
a)
A car shortly after a stoplight turns green.
b)
A car approaching a red light
c)
A car with the cruise control set at 80 km/h
d)
A car moving down a ramp
219.
What is the net force of an object that is not moving?
a)
0N
b)
100N
c)
Upward force
220.
Describe the motion of the car:
a)
accelerating left
b)
constant speed
c)
accelerating right
d)
constant speed
221.
During a demonstration of Newton’s laws of motion, a student used the setup shown in Figure 1. The student flicked the index card with a fingertip, and the coin fell straight down into a plastic cup as shown in Figure 2. Which of these best explains why the coin fell straight down into the cup instead of remaining on the index card?
a)
The coin was at rest until the card was removed, so it tended to remain in the same location. Once the card was gone, the unbalanced force of gravity caused the coin to fall.
b)
Moving the card applied an action force on the coin. Since the card was gone, gravity applied a reaction force on the coin.
c)
The card had less mass than the coin, so a smaller force of gravity acted on the card. The larger force of gravity on the coin made it fall.
d)
The acceleration of the coin falling into the cup was equal and opposite to the acceleration of the card.
222.
The masses of four vehicles and the net forces acting on them as they enter a highway are recorded in the table below. Which vehicle has the greatest acceleration as it enters the highway?
a)
Sedan
b)
Coupe
c)
SUV
d)
Truck
223.
A student lets a toy car roll four times down a ramp that is 1 m long. Each time the student covers the surface of the ramp with a different material. The student measures the time it takes the car to roll down the ramp and records the results in the table below. Which of these would be the best conclusion based on the data in the table?
a)
Different surfaces affect how fast a toy car accelerates.
b)
Different toy cars travel at different speeds.
c)
Gravity has little effect on the speed of toy cars on different surfaces.
d)
Air resistance is the greatest factor in limiting the acceleration of different toy cars.
224.
Sometimes tectonic plates do not move easily past one another, and the plates become stuck. Forces build up, and when the plates finally move, tension is released, as shown below. The sudden movement of the plates is caused by -

a)
the mass of the plates
b)
the weight of the plates
c)
unbalance forces
d)
gravitational force
225.
According to Newton’s Law of Inertia, which of the following objects will change its motion?
a)
A bike rider on a smooth and level road, pedaling at a constant rate.
b)
A train pulling on another train, each with the same amount of force.
c)
A chair sitting on the floor with balanced forces acting in opposite directions.
d)
A ball rolling across the floor with friction acting in the opposite direction.
226.
Safety belts protect people in cars in the event of an accident because, according to Newton’s Laws of Motion, when an impact causes the car to suddenly change its motion, -
a)
the people in the car will continue to move in the same direction and at the same speed as before the impact.
b)
the speed of the car always increases, giving it greater force since the mass will remain the same.
c)
the speed of the people always increases, since now they have, not one, but two forces acting on them.
d)
the car now has a greater overall mass - its own mass plus the mass of the object by which it has been struck.
227.
A ball thrown into the air starts out with an initial upward velocity, but eventually slows and stops before falling back to the ground. Which of the following contributes the most to the change in motion of the ball?
a)
The initial force with which the ball is thrown
b)
The downward force of gravity
c)
The resistance against the atmosphere
d)
The increase of inertia
228.
According to Newton’s Law of Inertia, an object that is moving will change its motion only if what kinds of forces act on it?
a)
Constant forces
b)
Unbalanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forcesStrong forces
d)
Gravitational forces
229.
A bowling ball is rolled with a certain speed and strikes a bowling pin with a force indicated by the arrow in this illustration. When the bowling ball strikes the bowling pin, the force applied by the pin to the ball -
a)
depends on the mass of the bowling pin.
b)
is equal to the force applied by the ball.
c)
must be zero, since the pin is not moving.
d)
is equal to the force of gravity on both.
230.
Two cars with different masses travel at the same speed down a hill toward a stop sign. What will happen when both cars apply brakes at the same time to stop?
a)
The car with the smaller mass will require less forces to stop than the car with the larger mass.
b)
The car with the larger mass will amintain its velocity while traveling down the hill.
c)
The car with the smaller mass will take longer to stop than the car with the larger mass.
d)
The car with the larger mass will have less inertia than the car with the smaller mass.
231.
What is speed?
a)
how far you go
b)
how much distance is covered over a period of time
c)
how fast you accelerate
d)
the change in the location of a object
232.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
Speed = time/distance
b)
Speed = distance/time
c)
Speed = distance x time
d)
Speed = time x distance
233.
Which of the following is a unit for acceleration?
a)
km/s
b)
m/s2
c)
mi/hr
d)
ft
234.
What is velocity?
a)
the quickness of an object
b)
the location of an object
c)
acceleration
d)
speed in a specific direction
235.
A measurement of how fast an object is moving
a)
Velocity
b)
Speed
c)
Vector
d)
Acceleration
236.
A description of the speed and direction of an object's motion
a)
Velocity
b)
Speed
c)
Acceleration
d)
Vector
237.
When a car goes around a corner at 20 mph, why do we say it  accelerates?
a)
The car is accelerating because of the velocity is constant
b)
The car accelerates because it's going 20 mph
c)
Cars always accelerate when they are in motion
d)
The car is accelerating because it's changing direction
238.
Why does a car accelerate as it round a corner at a constant speed?
a)
Its direction changes
b)
It doesn't
c)
It slows down
d)
Its speeds up  
239.
Acceleration only takes place when things speed up. 
a)
True
b)
False
240.
A roller coasters accelerates from an initial velocity of 6.0 m/s to a final velocity of 70 m/s over 4 seconds.  What's the acceleration?
a)
24 m/s2
b)
18 m/s2
c)
16 m/s2
d)
16 m/s
241.
A drag racer accelerated from 0 m/s to 200 m/s in 5 s.  What was the acceleration?
a)
0 m/s
b)
40 m/s2
c)
-40 m/s2
d)
40 m/s
242.
Acceleration can be classified as _______________
a)
Speeding up
b)
Slowing Down
c)
Changing directions
d)
All of the above
243.
a)
Object not moving
b)
Object accelerating
c)
Object slowing down
d)
Object at a constant speed
244.
a)

Green object is moving at a faster constant speed than Red

b)

Red object is moving at a faster constant speed than Green

c)

Green object is moving at a slower constant speed than Red

d)

Red object is moving 2 times faster than Green

245.
Which graph shows: A car travelling at a constant speed.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
246.

Which graph represents slowing down?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

247.
Which graph represents the greatest acceleration?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
248.
The graph below represents
a)
Speed
b)
Velocity
c)
Acceleration
d)
Deceleration
249.
In which time interval was the object speeding up?   
a)
between 0 s and 2 s
b)
between 2 s and 4 s
c)
between 6 s and 8 s
d)
between 8 s and 10 s
250.
What is the person doing from 5 seconds to 10 seconds?
a)
Walking 
b)
Running
c)
Standing Still 
d)
Walking Fast
251.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
Speed = time/distance
b)
Speed = distance/time
c)
Speed = distance x time
d)
Speed = time x distance
252.
A drag racer accelerated from 0 m/s to 200 m/s in 5 s.  What was the acceleration?
a)
0 m/s
b)
40 m/s2
c)
-40 m/s2
d)
40 m/s
253.
What is the velocity of a runner who travels South 100 m in 10 seconds 
a)
10 m/s South
b)
10 m/s
c)
100 m/s South
d)
1000 m/s
254.
A roller coasters accelerates from an initial velocity of of 6.0 m/s to a final velocity of 70 m/s over 4 seconds.  What's the acceleration?
a)
24 m/s2
b)
18 m/s2
c)
16 m/s2
d)
16 m/s
255.
A drag racer accelerated from 0 m/s to 200 m/s in 5 s.  What was the acceleration?
a)
0 m/s
b)
40 m/s2
c)
-40 m/s2
d)
40 m/s
256.
A school bus drives 35 mph down the street and slows as it approaches the stop sign.  This is an example of..

a)
acceleration
b)
speed
c)
velocity
d)
force
257.
A box sliding down an inclined plane attains a velocity of 27 m/s in 3 seconds from rest.  Find the acceleration.
a)
30 m/s
b)
24 m/s2
c)
9 m/s2
d)
81 km/hr
258.
How fast is the car traveling at 30 seconds?
a)
5m/s
b)
10m/s
c)
20m/s
d)
30m/s
259.
A car starts from rest at a stop light and reaches 20 m/s in 3.5 s. Determine the acceleration of the car.
a)
2.2m/s2
b)
7.0m/s2
c)
5.7m/s2
d)
70m/s2
260.
A roller coasters accelerates from an initial velocity of of 6.0 m/s to a final velocity of 70 m/s over 4 seconds.  What's the acceleration?
a)
24 m/s2
b)
18 m/s2
c)
16 m/s2
d)
16 m/s
261.
A car accelerates from a standstill to 70 m/s in 10 seconds.  What is the acceleration?
a)
0.7m/s2
b)
7m/s2
c)
14m/s2
d)
none of the above
262.
A car starts from rest at a stop light and reaches 20 m/s in 3.5 s. Determine the acceleration of the car.
a)
2.2m/s2
b)
7.0m/s2
c)
5.7m/s2
d)
70m/s2
263.

Which of the formulas is incorrect for speed

a)

s=d/t

b)

speed= distance/ time

c)

speed= t/d

264.
What law is best described by inertia?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
265.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
The Law of Inertia
b)
The Law of Acceleration
c)
The Law of Conservation of Momentum
266.
Pushing a child on a swing is easier than pushing an adult on the same swing, because the adult has more mass.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
267.
A soccer ball accelerates more than a bowling ball when thrown with the same force.
a)
Newton's first law
b)
Newton's second law
c)
Newton's third law
268.
This person bought coffee and put it on the seat next to them. If they stopped quickly and the coffee spilled which law would that represent?
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
269.
A Newton is a unit of...
a)
force
b)
inertia
c)
acceleration
d)
velocity
270.
"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
271.
"An object in motion (or at rest) will to stay in motion (or at rest) until an outside force acts upon it."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
272.
Force = Mass x Acceleration
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
273.
In the picture, the vehicle will move because of...
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 9th Law
274.
You push on a tree with 20 N of force. If the tree doesn't move, the tree is pushing back on you with _____of force.
a)
20N 
b)
40N 
c)
10N 
d)
70N
275.
In the picture, the blocks are flying out of the truck based on which of Newton's laws?
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 6th Law
276.
Which has more Inertia? (so need more force to move) 
a)
Truck
b)
Ant
c)
A cat
d)
A skateboard
277.
A person is pushed forward into their seatbelt when a car stops
a)
1st
b)
 2nd
c)
2 and 3
d)
3rd 
278.
How does Newton’s third law explain how a rocket takes off?
a)
The rocket’s acceleration is positive, while the gasses acceleration is negative but the direction is the same. 
b)
The rocket is at rest until ignition.
c)
The hot gasses move in one direction, while the rocket moves in the opposite direction but with equal force.
279.
Which law explains why you need to wear a seat belt? 
a)
First 
b)
Second
c)
Third
d)
Gravity
280.
What do we call the two forces in a force pair?
a)
opposites
b)
equals
c)
Both Opposites and equals
d)
The action force and the reaction force
281.
The acceleration of an object depends on ?
a)
The amount of Force applied
b)
The mass of an object
c)
The mass of an object and the amount of force applied
d)
None of these
282.
I throw two objects (A&B) of equal mass. Object B moves quicker and farther than the other. What was the difference?
a)
I applied more force to Object A
b)
I applied the same force to both
c)
I applied more force to Object B
d)
Object A was bigger
283.
If you push the ping pong ball & the basketball with the same amount of force, which one will go a greater distance?
a)
The ping pong ball
b)
The basketball
c)
They will both travel the same distance
284.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
285.
A soccer ball accelerates more than a bowling ball when thrown with the same force.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
286.
A rocket is sent into space.  When the power dies out, the rocket will just keep floating and moving in space forever (unless an unbalanced force, such as a meteor, runs into it).
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
287.

What is the force of gravity on a ball if the ball has a mass of 10kg and accelerates to earth at 9.8m/s2 ?

a)

98 N

b)

9.8 N

c)

980 N

d)

10 N

288.
During a demonstration of Newton’s laws of motion, a student used the setup shown in Figure 1. The student flicked the index card with a fingertip, and the coin fell straight down into a plastic cup as shown in Figure 2. Which of these best explains why the coin fell straight down into the cup instead of remaining on the index card?
a)

The coin was at rest until the card was removed, so it tended to remain in the same location. Once the card was gone, the unbalanced force of gravity caused the coin to fall.

b)

Moving the card applied an action force on the coin. Since the card was gone, gravity applied a reaction force on the coin.

c)

The card had less mass than the coin, so a smaller force of gravity acted on the card. The larger force of gravity on the coin made it fall.

d)

The acceleration of the coin falling into the cup was equal and opposite to the acceleration of the card.

289.
A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the ball. The reaction force is...
a)
The grip of the player's hands on the ball
b)
the air resistance of the ball
c)
the force of the ball against the bat
290.
What law is best described by inertia?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
291.
What law?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
292.
Object at rest stays at rest.
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
293.
F = MxA
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
294.
Acceleration is due to a force put on an objects mass. 
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
295.
Objects tendency to resist change
a)
Friction
b)
Inertia
c)
Force
d)
Gravity
296.
A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses on a table without disturbing them.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
297.
A soccer ball accelerates more than a bowling ball when thrown with the same force.
a)
Law of Inertia
b)
Law of Acceleration
c)
Law of Conservation of Momentum
298.
A student leaves a pencil on a desk and the pencil stays in the same spot until another student picks it up.
a)
Law of Inertia
b)
Law of Acceleration
c)
Law of Conservation of Momentum
299.
Two students are in a baseball game. The first student hits a ball very hard and it has a greater acceleration than the second student who bunts the ball lightly.
a)
Law of Inertia
b)
Law of Acceleration
c)
Law of Conservation of Momentum
300.
This person bought coffee and put it on the seat next to them. If they stopped quickly and the coffee spilled which law would that represent?
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
301.
"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
302.
"An object in motion (or at rest) will to stay in motion (or at rest) until an outside force acts upon it."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
303.
Any push or pull on an object.
a)
force
b)
velocity 
c)
inertia
d)
momentum
304.
What Unit do we Measure Force in? 
a)
Newtons
b)
Joules
c)
Force
d)
Don't know
305.
You push on a tree with 20 N of force. If the tree doesn't move, the tree is pushing back on you with _____of force.
a)
20N 
b)
40N 
c)
10N 
d)
70N
306.
Which has more Inertia? (so need more force to move) 
a)
Truck
b)
Ant
c)
A cat
d)
A skateboard
307.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2.  what was the force
a)
25
b)
200 N
c)
20 N
d)
10 N
308.
What can a force do?
a)
all of the above
b)
start a motion
c)
stop a motion
d)
change the direction of the motion
309.
Which type of force(s) will cause a change in an object's motion?
a)
gravity
b)
zero net force
c)
balanced forces
d)
unbalanced forces
310.
Which diagram shows the formation of a sea breeze?
a)
diagram Y
b)
diagram X
c)
neither
d)
both
311.
Energy for convection on the Earth comes from...
a)
The sun
b)
The moon
c)
Solar winds
d)
The ocean
312.
Is hot air LESS dense or MORE dense than cold air?
a)
LESS dense
b)
MORE dense
c)
EQUAL density
d)
HAS NO density
313.
Which diagram shows the formation of a land breeze?
a)
diagram Y
b)
diagram X
c)
neither 
d)
both
314.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

315.

An illustration of how a convection current creates a wind, called a land breeze, is provided.Which of the following best explains what creates this convection current?

a)

The rotation of Earth makes the air above it rotate, but not the same over land and water.

b)

Because of its mass, Earth’s gravity creates a high pressure area over both the land and water.

c)

Salt in the ocean makes it more dense than the land, so its gravity pulls more on the air above it.

d)

During the evening, the land cools off more quickly than the water, so the air is different temperatures.

316.
Hot air rises because...
a)
it is less dense
b)
it is heavier
c)
it is more dense
d)
it contains Helium
317.
Warm air rises and the cool air sinks demonstrates this type of heat transfer. 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
Insolation 
318.

An illustration of how a convection current creates a wind, called a sea breeze, is provided. Which of the following best explains what creates this convection current?

a)

Salt in the ocean makes it more dense than the land, so its gravity pulls more on the air above it.

b)

During the day, the Sun’s energy heats up the land faster, which makes the air above it warmer.

c)

The rotation of Earth makes the air above it rotate, but not the same over land and water.

d)

During the day, Earth’s gravity creates a high pressure area over both the land and water.

319.

Which of the following correctly shows the direction of convection currents in water?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

320.
This image represents which activity?
a)
conduction
b)
conversation
c)
convection
d)
confliction
321.
You're trying to explain to a friend how convection works.  You want to draw a diagram showing what happens to air when it's heated by the sun.  What should you draw?
a)
A diagram with cool air in Earth's atmosphere rising
b)
A diagram with cool air near Earth's surface rising
c)
A diagram with warm air in Earth's atmosphere sinking
d)
A diagram with warm air near Earth's surface rising
322.
Air moves from areas of ____ pressure toward areas of ____ pressure.
a)
higher; lower
b)
lower; higher
c)
higher; higher
d)
lower; lower
323.

The warmer air is above the land in a ___________.

a)

Hurricane

b)

Land Breeze

c)

Mountain Breeze

d)

Sea Breeze

324.

The warmer air is above the sea in a ___________.

a)

Hurricane

b)

Land Breeze

c)

Mountain Breeze

d)

Sea Breeze

325.
Why does warm air rise?
a)
Warm air is more dense than cooler air.
b)
Warm air has more pressure than cooler air.
c)
Warm air is less dense than cooler air.
d)
Warm air has a higher dew point than cooler air.
326.

What are winds that blow short distances – Examples: land breeze, sea breeze

a)
Local Winds
b)
Global Winds
c)
Trade Winds
d)
Polar Winds
327.

What is a current of fast moving air in the upper atmosphere

a)
Jet Stream
b)
Gulf Stream
c)
Trade Winds
d)
Polar Vortex
328.

warmer, less dense, rising air that causes cloudy skies

a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
329.

cooler, more dense, sinking air that causes sunny skies

a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Tornado
d)
Hurricane
330.

 the weight of the air pressing down on a surface

a)

Gravity

b)

Wind Speed

c)

Air Pressure

d)
Humidity
331.

What is the source of the thermal energy that heats our planet’s atmosphere?

a)

Earth's core

b)

Green plants

c)

The Sun

d)

Fossil Fuels

332.

The Sun warms the atmosphere and drives convection currents because -

a)

warm air is less dense, so it rises.

b)

the warmed air cools and makes rain.

c)

the cooler land pushes away warm air.

d)

warm air, in contact with cool air, rotates.

333.

Winds in our atmosphere are created as a result of which of the following processes?

a)

Energy that is absorbed in the atmosphere

b)

Gravitational attraction from the Moon

c)

Density of the air particles in the atmosphere

d)

Uneven heating of the air in the atmosphere

334.

The major patterns of movement of air and water on Earth are the result of –

a)

different densities of seawater and fresh water.

b)

diversity in the height of coastal landforms.

c)

uneven heating and the rotation of Earth.

d)

irregular durations of daytime and nighttime.

335.

What is one effect of the uneven heating of Earth caused by the Sun?

a)

Rotation of Earth

b)

Generation of wind

c)

Oceans losing salt

d)

Plants failing to grow

336.

Which of the following changes would remove the source of energy that generates the convection which makes wind here on Earth?

a)

Growing more vegetation in barren areas.

b)

Removing all the salt from sea water.

c)

Blocking all solar radiation.

d)

Reversing the rotation of Earth.

337.

Winds in our atmosphere are created as a result of which of the following processes?

a)

Energy that is absorbed in the atmosphere

b)

Gravitational attraction from the Moon

c)

Density of the air particles in the atmosphere

d)

Uneven heating of the air in the atmosphere

338.

Michael and Isabella are working together on an assignment. They must search some illustrations to find an example of heat transfer by convection. Which illustration best represents convection?

a)

An illustration of heat being transferred by wind

b)

An illustration of heat being transferred by objects in contact

c)

An illustration of heat being transferred between rocks

d)

An illustration of the Sun’s heat moving through empty space

339.

An illustration of how a convection current creates a wind, called a land breeze, is provided.Which of the following best explains what creates this convection current?

a)

The rotation of Earth makes the air above it rotate, but not the same over land and water.

b)

Because of its mass, Earth’s gravity creates a high pressure area over both the land and water.

c)

Salt in the ocean makes it more dense than the land, so its gravity pulls more on the air above it.

d)

During the evening, the land cools off more quickly than the water, so the air is different temperatures.

340.

The energy that generates wind comes from what source?

a)

The energy that generates wind comes from what source?

b)

Solar radiation

c)

Electromagnetic waves

d)

Severe thunderstorms

341.

Convection is the type of heat transfer that occurs in which of the following?

a)

Empty space

b)

Solid materials

c)

Liquids and gases

d)

Objects in contact

342.

Winds in the Northern Hemisphere shift in a clockwise direction. What causes this change in direction?

a)

The magnetic field of Earth

b)

The gravitational pull of the Moon

c)

The rotation of Earth

d)

The heat generated by the Sun’s energy

343.

The energy that generates wind comes from what source?

a)

Solar radiation

b)

Magnetic attraction

c)

Moon's gravity

d)

Coriolis effect

344.

An illustration of how a convection current creates a wind, called a sea breeze, is provided. Which of the following best explains what creates this convection current?

a)

Salt in the ocean makes it more dense than the land, so its gravity pulls more on the air above it.

b)

During the day, the Sun’s energy heats up the land faster, which makes the air above it warmer.

c)

The rotation of Earth makes the air above it rotate, but not the same over land and water.

d)

During the day, Earth’s gravity creates a high pressure area over both the land and water.

345.

The illustrations show the usual wind pattern at the shore during the day and night.What is the most important factor that creates these wind patterns?

a)

Most people visit the shore during the day and are not there at night.

b)

The air above the land heats up and cools off more quickly than the air over the water.

c)

The seawater is capable of having salt dissolved in it, but the land cannot.

d)

The shape of the land is constantly being changed by the motion of the seawater.

346.

A student models convection currents in a laboratory activity.

a)

The warm air in Earth's atmosphere and the warm water in Earth's ocean sink instead of rise.

b)

The heat source for Earth's atmosphere and oceans is the sun, which heats from above instead of below.

c)

Convection cells in Earth's atmosphere and oceans flow in the same direction instead of opposite directions.

d)

Cold air in Earth's atmosphere and cold water in Earth's oceans are less dense than warm air and warm water instead of being more dense.

347.

The weather map shows air pressure in millibars.


Which set of conditions best describes the weather at the area of lowest air pressure?

a)

Bright sun with no wind

b)

Partly cloudy with no wind

c)

Mostly sunny with light winds

d)

Overcast skies with strong winds

348.

In 2011, Typhoon Nesat struck the Philippines and caused widespread flooding. After hitting the Philippines, Typhoon was predicted to hit the large city of Hanoi, Vietnam.


If Typhoon Nesat had continued along the same path, which development would most likely have reduced its strength before it hit Hanoi?

a)

The formation of a low-pressure area south of Bangkok

b)

The formation of a high-pressure area south of Bangkok

c)

Cool water moving into the sea east of Hanoi

d)

Warm water moving into the sea east of Hanoi

349.

Thunderstorms are more common in some areas than in others. The map shows the average number of thunderstorms per year in different part of the United States.


Why are there significantly more thunderstorms in Florida than in California.

a)

The state of Florida is smaller than the state of California

b)

The air in Florida is more stable than the air in California

c)

The air above Florida holds less moisture than the air above California

d)

The ocean currents near Florida are warmer than the ocean currents near California

350.

Hurricanes and similar storm systems begin over oceans. The map shows average surface temperatures of the oceans in the summer.


Based on the map, which area probably produced the most violent storm systems?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

351.

The Jet Stream is a global pattern of atmospheric movement that influences patterns in local weather. Based on the information provided in the weather map, which city shown most recently experienced a temperature rise?

a)

Amarillo

b)

Detroit

c)

Orlando

d)

Reno

352.

The Jet Stream is a global pattern of atmospheric movement that influences patterns in local weather. Based on the information provided in the weather map, which city shown will likely see a drop in temperature in the near future?

a)

Albany

b)

Bismarck

c)

Nashville

d)

San Diego

353.

The Jet Stream is a global pattern of atmospheric movement that influences patterns in local weather. Based on the information provided in the weather map, which city shown most recently saw a rise in air pressure?

a)

Baltimore

b)

Jacksonville

c)

Portland

d)

Rapid City

354.

The Jet Stream is a global pattern of atmospheric movement that influences patterns in local weather. Based on the information provided in the weather map, which city shown most recently experienced a drop in temperature?

a)

Albany

b)

Bismarck

c)

Nashville

d)

San Diego

355.

The Jet Stream is a global pattern of atmospheric movement that influences patterns in local weather. Based on the information provided in the weather map, which city shown will most likely experience a drop in pressure over the next few days?

a)

Baltimore

b)

Jacksonville

c)

Portland

d)

Rapid City

356.
You're trying to explain to a friend how convection works.  You want to draw a diagram showing what happens to air when it's heated by the sun.  What should you draw?
a)
A diagram with cool air in Earth's atmosphere rising
b)
A diagram with cool air near Earth's surface rising
c)
A diagram with warm air in Earth's atmosphere sinking
d)
A diagram with warm air near Earth's surface rising
357.
What type of weather usually goes with this symbol?
a)
Clear, sunny skies
b)
Cloudy skies
c)
Hot temperature
d)
Thunderstorms
358.
Energy for convection on the Earth comes from...
a)
The sun
b)
The moon
c)
Solar winds
d)
The ocean
359.
This is the symbol for a... 
a)
Occluded Front
b)
Stationary Front
c)
Warm Front
d)
Cold Front 
360.
This is the symbol for a... 
a)
Cold Front
b)
Warm Front
c)
Stationary Front
d)
Occluded Front 
361.
Which condition usually means cloudy, stormy weather?
a)
high pressure
b)
low pressure
362.

Major surface currents of the ocean are shown in the diagram.

Ocean currents affect weather patterns by--

a)

Regulating when tides occur in coastal area

b)

Trapping heat at the equator to regulate the global climate

c)

Distributing heat from the uneven absorption of solar energy

d)

Increasing the rate of evaporation to transport water to area experiencing droughts

363.
This is the symbol for a... 
a)
Occluded Front
b)
Stationary Front
c)
Warm Front
d)
Cold Front 
364.
This is the symbol for a... 
a)
Stationary Front
b)
Occluded Front
c)
Cold Front
d)
Warm Front
365.
This is the symbol for a... 
a)
Cold Front
b)
Warm Front
c)
Stationary Front
d)
Occluded Front 
366.
Rain, snow, sleet, and hail are all forms of _____.
a)
precipitation
b)
condensation
c)
evaporation
d)
climate
367.
Which condition usually means cloudy, stormy weather?
a)
high pressure
b)
low pressure
368.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
369.
A high pressure system is located north of New York City. What type of weather will be experienced there?
a)
clear, sunny skies
b)
cloudy and rainy
370.
Which city is experiencing thunderstorms?
a)
Denver
b)
New York 
c)
Miami 
d)
Boise
371.
Which city is closest to a high pressure system?
a)
New York
b)
Miami
c)
Minneapolis
d)
Boise
372.
Which city is close to a warm front?
a)
Chicago
b)
New York
c)
Boise
d)
Denver
373.
Which city is experiencing cloudy skies and rain?
a)
New York 
b)
Seattle
c)
Dallas
d)
Boise
374.
Choose the best forecast for New York on Saturday. 
a)
sunny skies
b)
warmer temperatures
c)
snow
d)
sleet
375.
Choose the best forecast for Los Angeles on Saturday.
a)
cooler temperatures
b)
warmer temperatures 
c)
low pressure
d)
snow
376.
Choose the best forecast for Dallas on Saturday.
a)
thunderstorms
b)
snow
c)
warmer temperatures
d)
clear skies
377.
Choose the best forecast for Minneapolis on Saturday.
a)
snow
b)
cloudy skies
c)
hail
d)
sunny skies
378.
What direction is the cold front moving?
a)
Northwest
b)
Southeast
c)
Northeast
d)
Southwest
379.
What direction is the warm front moving?
a)
Northeast
b)
Northwest
c)
Southeast
d)
Southwest
380.
Which city can expect to see an increase in temperatures over the next 24 hours?
a)
Billings, Montana
b)
Atlanta, Georgia
c)
Minneapolis, Minnesota
d)
Miami, Florida
381.
What happens when a hurricane makes landfall?
a)
Weakens
b)
Picks up sped
c)
Have stronger winds
d)
Smaller storm surge
382.
What causes hurricanes to form
a)
Warm air from the equator mixes with cold air from the poles
b)
Two warm fronts meet over the ocean
c)
Winds circulate around a cool column of air
d)
Warm rising air and circulating winds
383.
Why do most hurricanes occur between June and November?
a)
That is when the winds are strongest.
b)
Water in the Atlantic ocean is warmest
c)
Coriolis effect is strongest
d)
Currents around the equator are strongest 
384.

Where does the Storm Start?

a)

Over Cold Water

b)

Over Antartica

c)

Over Warm Water

d)

Overseas

385.
This diagram is missing labels!  Where should the correct labels go?
a)
Black arrow="Cold Air" because less dense air is rising
b)
White arrows="Hot Air" because less dense air is sinking
c)
White arrows="Cold Air" because more dense air is sinking
d)
Black arrow= "hot air" because more dense air is rising
386.
Hot air rises because...
a)
it is less dense
b)
it is heavier
c)
it is more dense
d)
it contains Helium
387.
The process the causes plate tectonics, wind, and ocean currents is known as...
a)
Radiation
b)
Conduction
c)
Nuclear Energy
d)
Convection
388.
A hurricane forms over the Atlantic Ocean. When it hits land and comes ashore, its wind speed decrease significantly.  This happens because the hurricane:
a)
gains more water from the flooded land than the ocean
b)
meets a land breeze
c)
meets a stronger hurricane moving from land
d)
no longer gains energy from warm ocean water
389.
What is the source for warming up ocean water?
a)
the sun
b)
water movement
c)
wind
d)
fish peeing in the ocean water
390.
In order for a hurricane to form, the water must be ________.
a)
Cool
b)
Warm
c)
Cold
d)
Hot
391.

What destroys a hurricane?

a)

strong vertical winds

b)

Cold water

c)

Movement over land

d)

All of the above

392.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both A and B
393.
Ocean currents have an affect on which two things
a)
climate and weather
b)
temperature and density
c)
land and sea
d)
equator and poles
394.
2. Which are bigger, hurricanes or tornadoes?
a)
Tornadoes
b)
Hurricanes
395.

One of the major ways oceans contribute to weather systems is that the oceans -

a)

provide a diverse habitat for many organisms.

b)

store and transport the Sun’s heat energy.

c)

experience changes in amounts of dissolved salt.

d)

reach depths that can be as much as 12,000 meters.

396.

Most of the water vapor in the atmosphere comes from evaporation of water from oceans. Most of this evaporation occurs where there is the greatest solar radiation, which is -

a)

along the coast of Europe.

b)

around islands in the Pacific.

c)

near the Equator.

d)

at both of the poles.

397.

The majority of heat transfer performed on Earth by oceans is from what region to what other region?

a)

From the Equator to the poles.

b)

From coastal regions to inland.

c)

From North America to South America.

d)

From the Pacific to the Atlantic Ocean.

398.

Which of the following correctly identifies the major source for the energy that creates hurricanes?

a)

Sun's radiation

b)

Ocean currents

c)

Moon's gravity

d)

Earth's rotation

399.

The ocean currents that influence weather are not able to carry heat energy directly from south to north or from north to south. Currents are deflected consistently to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and consistently to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to -

a)

collisions with the coastlines of continents.

b)

the irregular shape of the ocean floor.

c)

the rotation of Earth on its axis.

d)

the strong winds above the ocean.

400.

Which of the following is a major way in which oceans contribute to weather systems?

a)

Ocean water has high salinity.

b)

Oceans transfer energy from the Sun.

c)

Most volcanic activity occurs in the ocean.

d)

Oceans have high levels of biodiversity.

401.

Why are regions that receive more solar energy more likely to develop hurricanes?

a)

Plants are more likely to thrive in those regions.

b)

Those regions have more water evaporation.

c)

Regions that receive more solar energy are typically drier.

d)

Those regions are always located at high elevations.

402.

Thermal energy from evaporating water drives the weather systems. The regions on Earth that would have the most evaporation are those regions -

a)

near the Equator.

b)

along the coasts of Asia.

c)

near tropical rainforests.

d)

along mountain ranges.

403.

Force = Mass x Acceleration

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Newton's 4th Law

404.

"An object in motion (or at rest) will to stay in motion (or at rest) until an outside force acts upon it."

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Newton's 4th Law

405.

In the picture, the vehicle will move because of...

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Newton's 4th Law

406.

If 2 roller coaster cars race with the same force, the car with greater mass will have a lower acceleration. This is an example of Newton's ____ Law of Motion.

a)

Fir

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

407.

To calculate the speed of the coaster, you need to know the distance it travels and...

a)

the time it takes

b)

mass of the cars

c)

height of the hills

d)

how many passengers

408.

In a roller coaster, where is there the most kinetic energy?

a)

As the coaster climbs the second hill

b)

As the coast is at the top of the highest hill

c)

As the coaster speeds down the hill

d)

As the coaster is at the bottom

409.

"For everry action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Newton's 4th Law

410.
What is Newtons 1st law of motion?
a)
Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration 
b)
An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on an unbalanced force. (inertia)
c)
For every action there is a equal and opposite  re-action.
d)
law of gravity 
411.
What law of motion does this picture represent?
a)
Newtons 3rd law
b)
Newtons 4th law
c)
Newtons 1st law
d)
Newtons 2nd law 
412.
What is Newtons 2nd law of motion?
a)
Pancakes 
b)
Force= Mass multiplied by acceleration
c)
For every action there is a equal and opposite  re-action.
d)
Law of gravity 
413.
What law of motion does this picture represent?
a)
Newtons 1st law
b)
Newtons 4th law 
c)
Newtons 3rd law 
d)
Newtons 2nd law
414.
For every action there is a equal and opposite...
a)
action
b)
movement 
c)
re-action 
d)
Newtons law of inertia 
415.
What Newtons law does this picture represent
a)
Newtons 2nd law 
b)
Law of gravity 
c)
Newtons 1st law
d)
Newtons 5th law
416.
__________ is the sum of all forces acting on an object. It is capable of accelerating a mass. 
a)
velocity
b)
gravity
c)
net force
d)
distance
417.
A unbalanced force means that an object is 
a)
zero net force
b)
changing its motion
c)
sitting still
d)
object at rest
418.
What is the tendency of an object to resist a change in motion?
a)
coffee
b)
motion
c)
inertia
d)
gravity
419.

A person’s body is thrown outward as a car rounds a curve on a highway.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

None of them

420.
A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses on a table without disturbing them.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
421.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
422.
A picture is hanging on a wall and does not move.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
423.

A push or a pull is called a

a)

Gravity

b)

Force

424.

What is Newton's 2nd Law?

a)

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

b)

Acceleration depends on two variables, the mass of the object and the amount of force.

425.

What is Newton's 3rd Law?

a)

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

b)

Acceleration depends on two variables, the mass of the object and the amount of force.

426.

What explains why objects resist changes in their state of motion?

a)

gravity

b)

inertia

c)

force

d)

friction

427.

Looking at the image. Decide if this is balanced or unbalanced.

a)

Unbalanced

b)

Balanced

428.

Looking at the image. Decide if this is balanced or unbalanced.

a)

Unbalanced

b)

Balanced

429.

The girl on the sled will remain in motion unless

a)

her motion is changed by magnetic forces.

b)

she is stopped by an outside force.

c)

she accelerates at a constant speed.

d)

the force of friction forcer her to move faster.

430.

"A body at rest tends to remain at rest, and a body in motion, tends to remain in motion, unless acted upon by an unbalanced force."

This is describing the law of

a)

forces

b)

inertia

c)

velocity

d)

gravity

431.

The picture shows a spinning water sprinkler.

Water comes through the hose and is sprayed by the sprinkler.

Which principle best explains why the sprinkler spins?

a)

Energy is released when water condenses.

b)

Most substances expand when heated and contract when cooled.

c)

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.

d)

Solid substances are usually more dense than liquid.

432.

The picture shows a weightlifter holding the barbell over his head.

The force of gravity pulling down on the barbell is 756 newtons.

How many newtons of force are exerted by the weightlifter to hold the barbell up?

a)

No Newtons

b)

756 Newtons

c)

368 Newtons

d)

14767 Newtons

433.

An inflated balloon released from rest moves horizontally.

The law that best explains this event is

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Law of Gravity

434.

The force of an object, with a certain mass accelerating at a certain rate, can be determined by the equation below:

force = mass x acceleration

Which object would have the greatest force?

a)

a 5-kg object accelerating at 100 m/s

b)

a 5-kg object accelerating at 20 m/s

c)

a 20-kg object accelerating at 4 m/s

d)

a 20-kg object accelerating at 3 m/s

435.

A dictionary weighing 15 Newtons is placed on a desk.

What is the force that the desk exerts on the dictionary?

a)

none

b)

15 N

c)

1.5 N

d)

150 N

436.

The diagram below shows unequal opposing forces.

Which way will the wagon move?

a)

The cart will move to the right.

b)

The wagon will move to the left.

c)

The wagon will remain stationary.

d)

The wagon will move left and then right and then stop.

437.

30 mph west is an example of ________

a)

Force

b)

Speed

c)

Velocity

d)

Acceleration

438.

A lamp sitting on a table is best demonstrating Newton's ___ Law

a)

1st

b)

2nd

c)

3rd

d)

4th

439.

Newton's 3rd Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite _____.

a)

Reaction

b)

Refraction

c)

Retraction

d)

Reflection

440.

A ____ is a push or pull on an object

a)

Force

b)

Acceleration

c)

Speed

d)

Velocity

441.

A car traveling 65 mph is an example of its _____.

a)

Force

b)

Speed

c)

Accerelation

d)

Velocity

442.

A force that causes an object to slow down when it touches another object is ____.

a)

Gravity

b)

Interia

c)

Friction

d)

Newton

443.

Newton's 2nd Law says that the acceleration of an object depends on its _____ and _____.

a)

Force

b)

Gravity

c)

Weight

d)

Mass

444.

Which of Newton's Laws explains a rocket's movements during launch?

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

Newton's 4th Law

445.

What is Newton's 1st Law of Motion?

a)

Force = Mass x Acceleration

b)

An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced, external force

c)

What goes up must come down

d)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

446.

What is Newton's 2nd Law of Motion?

a)

Force = Mass x Acceleration

b)

An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced, external force

c)

What goes up must come down

d)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

447.

What is Newton's 3rd Law of Motion?

a)

Force = Mass x Acceleration

b)

An object at rest stays at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced, external force

c)

What goes up must come down

d)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

448.

True or False: objects with greater mass require more force to accelerate when compared to objects with less mass.

a)

True

b)

False

449.

You are testing a slingshot with different objects. You try it with a mini-marshmallow, a quarter, and a large marble. If you pull it back with the same force each time, which object should leave the slingshot with the most acceleration?

a)

Marshmellow

b)

Quarter

c)

Marble

450.

A rocket pushes extremely hot gas (propellant) out of its thrusters, and the propellant pushes back on the rocket, allowing it to take off. Which of Newton's Laws is this an example of?

a)

Newton's 1st

b)

Newton's 2nd

c)

Newton's 3rd

d)

Newton's 4th

451.

A force that causes an object to slow down when it touches another object is ____.

a)

Gravity

b)

Interia

c)

Friction

d)

Newton

452.

A Newton's 1st Law is also called the Law of ____.

a)

Gravity

b)

Interia

c)

Friction

d)

Newton

453.

When an unbalanced force acts on an object, the force ______________________.

a)

changes the motion of the object

b)

is cancelled by another force

c)

does not change the motion of an object

d)

is equal to the weight of the object

454.

When two equal forces act in opposite directions on an object, they are called ______________________.

a)

frictional force

b)

balanced force

c)

centripetal force

d)

gravitational force

455.

The resistance of an object to any change in its motion is called ______________________.

a)

inertia

b)

friction

c)

gravity

d)

weight

456.

According to Newton’s second law of motion, force is equal to mass times ______________________.

a)

inertia

b)

weight

c)

acceleration

d)

direction

457.
What law is best described by inertia?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
458.

The picture is an example of Newton's...

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

459.

The picture is an example of Newton's...

a)

1st Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

3rd Law

460.
"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
461.
Force = Mass x Acceleration
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
462.
"An object in motion (or at rest) will to stay in motion (or at rest) until an outside force acts upon it."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
463.
Any push or pull on an object.
a)
force
b)
velocity 
c)
inertia
d)
momentum
464.
The force that opposes motion between two surfaces in contact with each other.
a)
inertia
b)
friction
c)
momentum
d)
gravity
465.
The combination of all the forces acting on an object is the...
a)
net force
b)
action force
c)
reaction force
d)
balance force
466.
A Newton is a unit of...
a)
force
b)
inertia
c)
acceleration
d)
velocity
467.

Identify which law applies.

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

468.

Identify which law applies.

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

469.

Identify which law applies.

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

470.

Identify which law applies.

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

471.

Identify which law applies.

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

472.

Identify which law applies.

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

473.

You are waiting in line to use the diving board at your local pool. While watching people dive into the pool from the board, you realize that using a diving board to spring into the air before a dive is a good example of which Newton's law?

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

474.

You know the mass of an object and the acceleration it is going. Which of Newton’s laws of motion will help you calculate the force the object has?

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

475.

Identify which law applies: You dribble a basketball while walking on a basketball court.

a)

Newton's 1st law of motion

b)

Newton's 2nd law of motion

c)

Newton's 3rd law of motion

476.
According to Newton’s first law of motion, a moving object that is not acted on by an unbalanced force will
a)
remain in motion.
b)
eventually come to a stop.
c)
change its momentum.
d)
accelerate.
477.
What is the definition of "weight"?
a)
the force in which gravity pulls on an object
b)
the time it takes to get on a ride 
c)
the amount of matter in an object
d)
the size of an object
478.
An empty truck and a fully loaded truck are next to each other at a traffic light. When the light turns green, the lighter truck increases speed more quickly. Which of these best explains this situations
a)
Newton's first law
b)
Newton's second law
c)
Newton's third law
d)
Conservation of momentum
479.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
480.
A person not wearing a seatbelt flies through a car window when someone slams on the breaks because the person’s body wants to remain in continuous motion even when the car stops.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
481.

Pushing a child on a swing is easier than pushing an adult on the same swing, because the adult has more mass.

a)

Newton's 1st Law

b)

Newton's 2nd Law

c)

Newton's 3rd Law

d)

None of them

482.
Acceleration is produced when a force acts on a mass. The greater the mass (of the object being accelerated) the greater the amount of force needed (to accelerate the object).
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
483.
A soccer ball accelerates more than a bowling ball when thrown with the same force.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
484.
The swimmer moves her hand down and to the left and her body goes forward to the right.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
485.
A soccer ball accelerates more than a bowling ball when thrown with the same force.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
486.
A rocket is sent into space.  When the power dies out, the rocket will just keep floating and moving in space forever (unless an unbalanced force, such as a meteor, runs into it).
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
487.

An object's resistance to motion is called

a)

Force

b)

Inertia

c)

motion

d)

Newton's First Law

488.

An object in motion stays in motion and an object at rest stays at rest is which of Newton's Laws?

a)

First Law

b)

Second Law

c)

Third Law

489.

An object has more inertia because it has more

a)

force

b)

speed

c)

mass

d)

acceleration

490.

Force is equal to mass times acceleration is Newton's

a)

First Law

b)

Second Law

c)

Third Law

491.

unbalanced forces cause

a)

reverse

b)

motion

c)

gravity

d)

inertia

492.

What is the rate that gravity pulls objects to the Earth?

a)

9.81 m/s

b)

9.81 m/s^2

c)

9.81 m/hour

d)

9.81 miles/second

493.

The force of gravity is otherwise known as

a)

mass

b)

speed

c)

weight

d)

volume

494.

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction is Newtons

a)

3rd Law

b)

2nd Law

c)

1st Law

d)

Newton Law

495.

What is the unit of force?

a)

gram

b)

mass

c)

kilogram

d)

Newton

496.

A book has a mass of 5 kilograms and an acceleration of 5 m/s/s. What is the force on the book?

a)

220 N

b)

20 N

c)

25 N

d)

10 N

497.

A wagon has a mass of 100 kilograms and an acceleration of 2m/s/s. What is the force on the wagon?

a)

50 N

b)

200 kg

c)

200 m/s^2

d)

200 N

498.

An object has a mass of 1000g (1 kilogram) and an acceleration of 20 m/s/s. What is the force on the object?

a)

20000 m/s^2

b)

20000 N

c)

500 N

d)

20 N

499.

A box has 1000N of force. It has an acceleration of 10 m/s/s. What is the mass of the box?

a)

100 m/s

b)

100 g

c)

100 kg

d)

100 m/s^2

500.

A car has a force of 2000N and a mass of 1000kg. What is the acceleration of the car?

a)

20 m/s^2

b)

20 m/s

c)

2 m/s^2

d)

2 m/s

501.

A robot has a force of 100N and an acceleration of 4m/s/s? What is the mass of the bot?

a)

50 kg

b)

25 meters

c)

25 kg

d)

25 N

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6th - 8th Grade