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7th grade fall Review

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 4hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What causes damage in a hurricane?
a)
Winds
b)
Flooding
c)
Storm Surge
d)
All of the above
2.
Where are hurricanes most likely to do the most damage?
a)
Near the coast
b)
In the forest
c)
In a desert
d)
On the North Pole
3.
What catastrophic event would be of greatest risk to a grassland?
a)
hurricane
b)
flood
c)
tsunami
d)
wildfire
4.
Caused by an unusually large amount of water for an area
a)
Earthquake
b)
Flood
c)
Drought
d)
Volcano
5.

What happens to a rock when it weathers?

a)

It settles out of water that is carrying it.

b)

It creates a valley.

c)

Incorrect It forms a delta.


It forms a delta.

d)

It breaks into small pieces.

6.

Which process describes wind blasting sand at rock and carving out arches?

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

7.

Which process describes water getting into cracks, freezing, and breaking the rocks or pavement apart?

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

8.

This is an example of _____________________________.

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

9.

Abrasion causes

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

both chemical and physical weathering

d)

Neither chemical or physical weathering

10.

The map shows the various ecoregions of Texas. Which ecoregion is most vulnerable to wind erosion from hurricanes originating in the Gulf of Mexico?

a)

Post Oak Savannah

b)

Blackland Prairies

c)

Edwards Plateau

d)

Gulf Prairies and Marshes

11.

The Gulf Prairies and Marshes ecoregion experience significant soil erosion. One would expect the climate in this region to be –

a)

dry and hot.

b)

cold and snowy.

c)

wet and rainy.

d)

warm and humid.

12.

The tall rock formations with smooth surfaces in Big Bend National Park were formed over time by -

a)

rock deposition.

b)

water erosion.

c)

wind weathering.

d)

local vegetation.

13.

The Gulf Prairies and Marshes ecoregion experience significant soil erosion. One would expect the climate in this region to be –

a)

dry and hot.

b)

cold and snowy.

c)

wet and rainy.

d)

warm and humid.

14.

The Brazos River is the longest river in Texas, emptying into the Gulf of Mexico. What type of land formation would you expect to find where the river deposits sediments as it reaches the Gulf?

a)

a cave

b)

a mountain

c)

a delta

d)

a valley

15.

In the Edwards Plateau, the limestone rocks are highly vulnerable to chemical and physical weathering. Which of the following land formations would be expected in this area?

a)

canyons

b)

lakes

c)

caves

d)

rivers

16.

High rains cause the flow in a river to increase. The increase in the river’s flow will most likely have which of the following effects on the environment?

a)

The banks of the river will experience increased erosion.

b)

The river will deposit less material onto its delta.

c)

The path of the river will become more crooked.

d)

The river will dry out completely in a few days.

17.

Sand bars are large deposits of sand that appear close to the shoreline of a beach. Which of the following processes is responsible for creating sand bars?

a)

Constant light breezes

b)

Hurricane precipitation

c)

Wave action and currents

d)

Aquatic organism activity

18.

The Texas High Plains region does not receive much rain. It is reasonable to predict that this region, compared to other ecoregions, would have –

a)

less soil erosion.

b)

larger river deltas.

c)

many mountains.

d)

sandy beaches.

19.

The illustration provided shows exposed layers of sedimentary rock in the High Plains region of Texas. Which of the following best explains the uneven nature of the exposed rock layers?

a)

Different types of rock weather at different rates when exposed.

b)

Wind speeds vary greatly over time in this region of Texas.

c)

An ancient river deposited sediments at different rates over time.

d)

Glacier movement always creates uneven rock formations.

20.

The Rolling Plains region of Texas has a number of deep canyons. One would expect this region to have -

a)

moving glaciers.

b)

deep lakes.

c)

flowing rivers.

d)

high wind.

21.

The Blackland Prairie ecoregion of Texas has many exposed boulders that are smooth and rounded. What feature of this area caused the boulders to take on these characteristics?

a)

Hurricane activity

b)

Wind-blown sand and rain

c)

Severe droughts

d)

Deep and rapid rivers

22.

Rivers carry and deposit sediments all along their course. Where will the sediments made of the largest and heaviest particles be deposited?

a)

Near the start of the river where water travels fastest

b)

In locations where the river banks are the widest

c)

In locations where the river banks are the most narrow

d)

At the river’s mouth where the river meets the ocean

23.
When water, ice and wind move particles of rock and soil from one place to another
a)
sediment
b)
weathering
c)
erosion
24.

An avalanche is an example of which process? (the process by which wind, water, ice, or gravity transports soil and sediment from one location to another)

a)

Weathering

b)

Erosion

c)

Deposition

d)

Volcanic Eruption

25.

What is the process that picks up and moves weathered rocks?

a)

Deposition

b)

Landslide

c)

Weathering

d)

Erosion

26.
The health of an ecosystem is directly related to the:
a)
Air quality
b)
Amount of animals in the area
c)
Water quality
d)
Amount of food in the area
27.
What is all the water that runs off the surface of the land and washes into rivers, streams, and other waterways called?
a)
Runoff
b)
Storm Drain
c)
Surface Water
d)
Tributary
28.

Look closely at the map of the watershed below. If water enters the watershed at the top of the mountain where the arrow is pointing, at which point will it stop draining?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

29.

What definition BEST describes a watershed?

a)

An area where water infiltrates the soil

b)

An area where aquatic plants and animals thrive

c)

An area where snow melts and changes into liquid water

d)

An area that collects precipitation and drains it to the lowest point

30.

An underground layer of rock or sediment that holds water?

a)

Reservoir

b)

Aquifer

c)

Watershed

31.
a)

The proposed law will protect the lake because plant roots between the wetland and the lake will stop pollution from entering the lake.

b)

The proposed law will not protect the lake because animals that live in or near the lake will add pollution to the lake.

c)

The proposed law will not protect the lake because groundwater will carry pollution from the wetland directly into the lake

d)

The proposed law will protect the lake because the high elevation of the water table will block pollution from entering the lake.

32.

A student sets up the investigation shown below. The movement of colored water through the gravel best models —

a)

condensation of water vapor

b)

conservation of water

c)

surface runoff of precipitation

d)

pollution of groundwater

33.

A student’s model of an area near a city depicts many activities that affect the quality of the water in the area. How does the agricultural activity most likely affect the surface water of the area?

a)

Crops absorb pure water from soil, causing the remaining water to contain more salt.

b)

Crops reduce erosion, increasing the amount of soil entering the river.

c)

Excess crop fertilizer is carried by runoff into the river, causing excess growth of water plants.

d)

Excess crop material accumulates on the riverbanks, slowing the movement of the river water

34.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
35.
Which of the following characteristics will most likely be helpful in identifying a butterfly using a dichotomous key?
a)
Migrates north every spring
b)
hangs on branches
c)
flutters wings fast on hot days
d)
Wings have long extensions
36.
A student discovers an arachnid with a segmented abdomen, long legs, and a tail with no stinger. The student uses the dichotomous key below to identify it. Which arachnid has the student found?
a)
Whip Scorpion
b)
Wind Scorpion
c)
Daddy long legs
d)
Scorpion
37.
What is a dichotomous key used for in science?
a)
To organize biomes
b)
Classify organisms
c)
Identify bacteria only
d)
None of these
38.

What is the genus of the organism Geophagus braziliensis?

a)

Geophagus

b)

braziliensis

c)

binomial

d)

unknown

39.
A student discovers an arachnid with a segmented abdomen, long legs, and a tail with no stinger. The student uses the dichotomous key below to identify it. Which arachnid has the student found?
a)
Whip Scorpion
b)
Wind Scorpion
c)
Daddy long legs
d)
Scorpion
40.

The number of different species of plants and animals in an area:

a)

biodiversity

b)

species

c)

biome

d)

ecosystem

41.

Biome found mostly near the equator

a)

Desert

b)

Grassland

c)

Rainforest

d)

Tundra

42.

This animal can store large amounts of water in its body. Which biome is it best adapted to?

a)

Rainforest

b)

Taiga

c)

Desert

d)

Temperate Deciduous Forest

43.
The climate in a tropical rain forest can be described as
a)
cold and wet 
b)
warm and dry 
c)
cold and dry 
d)
warm and wet 
44.

Which biome has the greatest variety of plants and animals?

a)

Temperate Forest

b)

Rainforest

c)

Tundra

d)

Grasslands

45.

Which biome has 4 seasons of equal length?

a)

Taiga

b)

Tundra

c)

Grasslands

d)

Temperate Forest

46.

A student walks the schoolyard and observes that there are many living things such as different plants and animals. She notices that moss grows in moist shady areas but did not see any in the open yard where its sunny. What is the best explanation for her observation?

a)

Different habitats support different plants and animals

b)

All plants and animals can live in any environment

c)

Schoolyards are not able to sustain living things

d)

Schoolyards are the only places where moss can grow.

47.

Even a small area, such as a schoolyard, contains many microhabitats. Each microhabitat would probably contain a wide variety of organisms. What would the organisms in a single microhabitat have in common?

a)

They would all be the same size

b)

They would all depend on each other for food and shelter

c)

They would all be the same species

d)

They would not have anything in common

48.

High biodiversity is a sign of a healthy ecosystem.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

How do biodiversity and stability work together?

a)

The lower the biodiversity the greater the stability of an ecosystem.

b)

The higher the biodiversity, the less stable the ecosystem

c)

The higher the biodiversity, the greater the stability of the ecosystem.

d)

Biodiversity has nothing to do with ecosystem stability.

50.

The tundra is a vast plain with frigid temperatures and plenty of snow. Which of the following adaptations does not help the polar bear survive in the tundra.

a)

Layers of fat for insulation

b)

webbed toes for swimming

c)

white fur for camouflage

d)

total herbivorous diet

51.

A population of birds walks along the shores of a swampy area eating small crabs. Climatic changes cause the water level in the area to increase. Which genetic variation in the bird population will be at an advantage leading to greater survival in the area?

a)

Longer legs for wading.

b)

A thicker coat of feathers.

c)

Shorter, stronger beaks.

d)

Sharper talons on the feet.

52.

Over time, a certain species of hummingbird has developed traits including a small body, brightly colored feathers, a long, narrow beak, and the ability to drop its body temperature while it sleeps. Which of these characteristics is most likely a trait that developed in response to available food sources?

a)

Small size

b)

Bright coloration

c)

Long, narrow beak

d)

Body temperature decrease

53.

Galapagos finches are birds that live on islands off the coast of South America. The finches on the various islands are very different from each other. As a result of the different food resources on the islands, which of the following structures of the Galapagos finches experienced the greatest change through natural selection?

a)

Head size

b)

Eye shape

c)

Feather color

d)

Beak shape

54.

Photosynthesis is a process converting _______ energy to ______.

a)

chemical; mechanical

b)

thermal; chemical

c)

radiant; chemical

d)

chemical; thermal

55.

The oxygen given off by plants comes from _______ the plant takes up and processes.

a)

water

b)

glucose

c)

minerals

d)

respiration

56.

Plants use ____________ given off by humans and other animals to assist in making glucose.

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen

57.

Radiant energy is captured by

a)

heterotrophs

b)

lysosomes

c)

autotrophs

d)

light bulbs

58.

Green plants produce their own food during photosynthesis. Which of these statements about photosynthesis is true?

a)

Water is one product of photosynthesis.

b)

Oxygen is one product of photosynthesis.

c)

Chlorophyll is one product of photosynthesis.

d)

Carbon dioxide is one product of photosynthesis.

59.

How do organisms get the energy they need?

a)

Plants get energy from fertilizers, and animals get energy by drinking water.

b)

Plants get energy from glucose produced in the soil, and animals get energy directly from sunlight.

c)

Plants do not require energy because they do not move, and animals get energy by performing exercise.

d)

Plants break down the glucose they produced in photosynthesis, and animals get energy from eating other organisms.

60.

A severe thunderstorm moved through Dallas producing wind speeds in excess of 60 mph. It stripped all the leaves from the seedlings in its path. These seedlings eventually died. What probably caused the deaths of these young trees?

a)

Heavy rainfall caused severe flooding which drowned the trees.

b)

The wind damaged the trees’ roots, so they were not able to absorb water and nutrients from the soil.

c)

The weakened trees were attacked by insects; which caused them to die.

d)

The trees died due to lack of energy.

61.

Photosynthesis is the process in which cells use oxygen to break down food and release stored energy.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a waste product in the process of photosynthesis.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Hint: click the picture to make it bigger

According to the diagram, Product 2 is -

a)

oxygen produced by photosynthesis

b)

oxygen produced by respiration

c)

carbon dioxide produced by photosynthesis

d)

carbon dioxide produced by respiration

64.

Hint: click the picture to make it bigger


Which of these equations does the diagram support?

a)

Oxygen + Water + Sunlight = Carbon dioxide + Glucose

b)

Glucose + Water + Sunlight = Carbon dioxide + Oxygen

c)

Water + Carbon dioxide + Sunlight = Glucose + Oxygen

d)

Carbon dioxide + Glucose = Sunlight + Water + Oxygen

65.

Hint: click the picture to make it bigger


The glucose produced in the leaf can be described as –

a)

potential chemical energy

b)

kinetic nuclear energy

c)

potential nuclear energy

d)

kinetic chemical energy

66.

What are the Reactants used by plants to perform photosynthesis?

CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

b)

Water (H2O)

c)

Oxygen (O2)

d)

Glucose (C6H12O6)

67.

What are the Products created by plants during photosynthesis?

CHOOSE ALL THAT APPLY

a)

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

b)

Water (H2O)

c)

Oxygen (O2)

d)

Glucose (C6H12O6)

68.

What energy transformation happens during photosynthesis?

a)

Radiant energy from the sun is transformed into Chemical energy stored in glucose

b)

Chemical energy from the sun is transformed into Radiant energy stored in glucose

c)

Carbon Dioxide energy from the sun is transformed into Oxygen energy stored in glucose

d)

Oxygen energy from the sun is transformed into Carbon Dioxide energy stored in glucose

69.
An organism that lives by breaking apart dead organic matter into simpler parts is...
a)
scavenger
b)
consumer
c)
decomposer
d)
carnivore
70.
What does a Primary Consumer eat?
a)
Tertiary Consumers
b)
Secondary Consumers
c)
Producers
71.
A third-level consumer has to be which type?
a)
Carnivore.
b)
Decomposer.
c)
Producer.
d)
Herbivore.
72.
In a food web, arrows point at:
a)
who gets energy.
b)
who gets eaten.
73.
What does a food web represent?
a)
All connections of energy flow throughout all organisms in a ecosystem.
b)
The specific ways that mutualism is carried out.
c)
A single pathway or energy flow between organisms. 
d)
How carnivores get their food. 
74.
Bacteria, fungi, and earthworms are examples of: 
a)
scavengers
b)
predators
c)
prey
d)
decomposers
75.
What is missing from this food chain?
Grass > Grasshopper > Bird > Snake
a)
Producer
b)
Primary Consumer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Decomposer
76.
Which of the following is a herbivore?
a)
cricket
b)
frog
c)
hawk
d)
shrew
77.
__________ is an organism that eats BOTH plants and animals for energy.
a)
Omnivore
b)
Darnivore
c)
Carnivore
d)
Herbiovre
78.
If the grasshopper were to be removed completely from the food web, what organism would be most effected?
a)
The squirrel
b)
The shrew
c)
The deer
d)
The rabbit
79.
Which organism recieves the least amount of energy from the producer?
a)
Owl
b)
Grasshopper
c)
Lilypad
d)
Mouse
80.
Which level will contain plants?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
81.
Which level has the most energy available?
a)
producer
b)
primary consumer
c)
secondary consumer
d)
tertiary consumer
82.
An organism that needs to eat other organisms to obtain energy is known as a:
a)
Autotroph
b)
Producer
c)
Consumer
d)
Mutualist
83.
An organism that uses sunlight to create its own food is known as a:
a)
Producer
b)
Heterotroph
c)
Consumer
d)
Decomposer
84.
How much energy is available to be passed on to the next trophic level in an ecosystem?
a)
100%
b)
10%
c)
50%
d)
75%
85.
The rabbit in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Decomposer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
86.
The fox in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Tertiary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Secondary Consumer
d)
Primary Consumer
87.
The mouse in this food web would be considered a:
a)
Primary Consumer
b)
Producer
c)
Tertiary Consumer
d)
Secondary Consumer
88.
What is a trophic level?
a)
Each level represented within a food chain or web.
b)
Levels of ecosystems that the world is divided into.
c)
Different levels of nutrients present within an organism.
d)
The levels of sunlight an autotroph needs to survive. 
89.
All energy on Earth ultimately comes from what source?
a)
Water
b)
Sun
c)
Consumers
d)
Oxygen
90.
The largest group of organisms found in a food web would be:
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Producers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
91.
Why might an organism have more than one arrow coming from them in a food web?
a)
More than one organism may eat them. 
b)
They may eat more than one other organism. 
c)
This organism gets its energy from multiple sources. 
d)
They have no resources available to them.
92.

Which answer best describes the transfer of energy as it moves up the energy pyramid?

a)

Energy gets larger as you go up the pyramid.

b)

Energy gets smaller as you go up the pyramid.

c)

Energy stays the same as you go up the pyramid.

d)

What is energy?

93.

About how much energy is LOST when an organism consumes another organism from a different trophic level?

a)

10%

b)

90%

c)

50%

d)

25%

94.

Where do producers get their energy from?

a)

Decomposers

b)

Primary Consumers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

The Sun

95.

What is another word for producer?

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Autotroph

96.

What is another word for consumers?

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Autotroph

97.

If the snake has 50 kJ of energy, how much does the grass have?

a)

50

b)

500

c)

5000

d)

5

98.

If the grass has 4360 kJ of energy, how much energy does the owl get?

a)

436

b)

4.36

c)

46

d)

4360

99.

If the rabbit has 240 kJ of energy, how much does the snake get?

a)

240

b)

2400

c)

2

d)

24

100.
A secondary consumer 
a)
eats primary consumers
b)
eats producers
c)
eats plants
101.
Position that an organism occupies based on what it eats
a)
biomass
b)
autotroph
c)
trophic level
d)
carnivore
102.

The entire mass of air that surrounds Earth, and is made of 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and traces of other gases is called...

a)

magnetosphere

b)

ozone layer

c)

atmosphere

d)

none of these

103.

An area that deflects and traps harmful particles, and results from the interaction between Earth's magnetic field and solar winds is called...

a)

atmosphere

b)

ozone layer

c)

magnetic fields

d)

magnetosphere

104.

A gas in Earth's atmosphere that absorbs MOST of the damaging high-energy ultraviolet radiation from the Sun is the...

a)

magnetosphere

b)

atmosphere

c)

solar winds

d)

ozone layer

105.

Magnetic lines of force from Earth's polar north and south; they act like a giant magnet- known as...

a)

the magnetosphere

b)

Earth's Magnetic Field

c)

the Magna Doodle

d)

the magnetic poles

106.

What are two things from the Sun on which all living things depend?

a)

light and heat

b)

water and light

c)

heat and water

107.

Mars cannot have liquid water, because it's too cold and it will freeze, and Venus can't have liquid water because it's too hot and it would boil away or evaporate.

a)

True

b)

False