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Worksheets

Final Review

Total questions: 203

Worksheet time: 3hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What stage of Mitosis is represented by the diagram?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

2.

What stage of Mitosis is represented by the diagram?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

3.

Which stage of mitosis is represented in the diagram?

a)

Prophase

b)

Meaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

4.

What stage of Mitosis is represented by the diagram?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

5.

the chromosomes condense and nucleus dissolves

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

6.

After mitosis is complete, the cell divides its cytoplasm and pinches its membrane in half until two distinct daughter cells are formed. This process is known as –

a)

Prophase

b)

Respiration

c)

Replication

d)

Cytokinesis

7.

What is cohesion?

a)

The ability of a molecule to "stick" to itself

b)

The ability of a molecule to "stick" to other molecules

c)

Large amounts of energy are required to change the temperature of a substance

d)

A well-organized and efficient team

8.

What property of water allows for water to act as a temperature regulator for the world?

a)

Cohesive Behavior

b)

Expansion Upon Freezing

c)

High Specific Heat

d)

Universal Solvent

9.
The 4 macromolecules are
a)
vitamins, lipids, water, micronutrients
b)
micronutrients, macronutrients, water, vitamins
c)
Lipids, Waxes, Vitamin A, Water
d)
Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins, Nucleic Acids
10.
What is the first step in the scientific method?
a)
Make an observation --> Question
b)
Design and conduct an experiment
c)
Make an hypothesis
d)
Share your results
11.
A testable prediction about a scientific investigation is a(n)
a)
Question
b)
Observation
c)
Hypothesis
d)
Experiment
12.

What about the chemical structure of water causes many of the critical properties that support life on Earth?

a)

Hydrogen Bonds

b)

Cohesive behavior

c)

Polarity

d)

Expansion Upon Freezing

13.

A carbohydrate is a macromolecule that is used to...

a)

give cells/systems energy.

b)

build cell parts.

c)

give cells/systems long term energy storage.

d)

help cells with chemical processes.

14.

Which of the following is not one of the four major classes of macromolecules?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbon

c)

Protein

d)

Carbohydrates

e)

Nucleic Acid

15.

Nucleic acids make up which of the two molecules listed below?

a)

FDA

b)

RNA

c)

DNA

d)

FDR

16.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
17.
Nucleotides are monomers of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
18.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
19.
All polymers are made up of...
a)
monosaccharides
b)
monomers
c)
proteins
d)
None of these
20.
How many different amino acids are there?
a)
15
b)
20
c)
25
d)
30
21.
What is a protein: 
a)
A polymer composed of many sugars.
b)
A polymer composed of many amino acids. 
c)
A polymer composed of fatty acids. 
d)
A polymer composed of nucleotides. 
22.
Each amino acid is different from the other due to....
a)
The R group
b)
The amino group
c)
The carboxyl group
d)
The central carbon
23.

What is a long chain of amino acids called?

a)

Polysaccharide

b)

Lipid

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Polypeptide

e)

Nucleic acid

24.

Fatty Acids differ in there chain length and their

a)

protein carriers

b)

Side chains

c)

energy level

d)

degree of saturation

25.

The electron transport chain is fueled by which energy intermediates? Choose all that apply.

a)

NADPH

b)

NAD+

c)

FAD

d)

NADH

e)

FADH2

26.

Which step of cellular respiration does NOT produce ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Pyruvate processing

c)

Citric acid cycle

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation

27.

Which step of cellular respiration requires an input of ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Pyruvate processing

c)

Citric acid cycle

d)

Oxidative phosphorylation

28.

What are the products of pyruvate processing? Choose all that apply

a)

Glucose

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

Acetyl-CoA

e)

NADH

29.

Where does the Kreb's cycle take place in the cell?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

in the space between two mitochondrial membranes

c)

in the matrix of mitochondria

d)

in the endoplasmic reticulum

30.

Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis, enters the citric acid cycle after it has is converted to _____________.

a)

Iso-citrate

b)

Fumerate

c)

Acetyl-CoA

d)

Acetaldehyde

31.

Which of the following are true of meiosis? Select all that apply!

a)

It results in four cells

b)

It results in two cells

c)

The daughter cells are genetically identical

d)

The daughter cells are genetically unique

e)

The daughter cells are haploid

32.

What is the spot where crossing over occurs?

a)

Chiasma

b)

Bivalent

c)

Centromere

d)

Kinetochore

e)

Centrosome

33.

When does crossing over occur?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Prophase I

e)

Anaphase II

34.
By the end of prophase, each of the following has occured except...
a)
tighter coiling of the chromosomes
b)
breaking down of the nuclear envelope
c)
disappearing of the nucleus
d)
lining up of the chromosomes at the equator
35.
A parent cell has 46 chromosomes, How many does each daughter cell have after mitosis? 
a)
12
b)
23
c)
46
d)
92
36.
DNA replication occurs during 
a)
interphase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
telophase
37.
What is the purpose of the cell cycle? 
a)
Growth
b)
Repair
c)
make food for the cell
d)
growth AND repair
38.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
39.

What is the cell's outer barrier that regulates what enters and leaves the cell?

a)

cell wall

b)

cytoskeleton

c)

cytosol

d)

cell membrane

40.

All of the contents within the cell except for the nucleus is also known as the...

a)

cytoskeleton

b)

cytosol

c)

cytoplasm

d)

mitochondria

41.

What is the network of tiny tubes and filaments in the cytoplasm of the cell called?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

cytosol

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

cytosol

42.

Which organelle transports, modifies, sorts, and ships the products made by a cell?

a)

lysosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

43.

What's the digestive organelle which uses enzymes to break down molecules and cell junk?

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosome

c)

lysosome

d)

nucleolus

44.

Which organelle serves as the site of cellular respiration to make energy?

a)

mitochondira

b)

rough ER

c)

smooth ER

d)

Gogli apparatus

45.

The dark region in the nucleus where ribosomes are made.

a)

nucleolus

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

vacuole

46.

Which organelle works to bond amino acids together to make proteins?

a)

ribosome

b)

rough ER

c)

smooth ER

d)

nucleus

47.
The Golgi apparatus _____.
a)
packages cell products for export
b)
eliminates waste
c)
stores DNA
d)
makes energy
48.
This organelle creates energy.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Mitochondria
d)
ER
49.

The picture below shows the steps of DNA replication beginning with step one and ending with step three.


​Because you are reusing the old, or parent, DNA strand DNA replication is said to be

a)

Semi- Conservative

b)

Semi-discontinuous

c)

Continuous

d)

Fully-Conserveative

50.

The picture below shows an enzyme unwinding and unzipping DNA.

​

​What is the name of this enzyme?

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

51.

Match he nucleotide with its complementary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).


Adenine -

a)

Thymine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

52.

Match he nucleotide with its complementary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).


Cytosine-

a)

Thymine

b)

Guanine

c)

Adenine

53.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding the free nucleotides to the replicating DNA? ​

a)

DNA Helicase

b)

DNA Ligase

c)

DNA polyermase

d)

RNA Polymerase

54.

DNA replication runs from ______' to _____' and is said to be ______________________

a)

5, 3, antiparallel

b)

3, 5, antiparallel

c)

5, 3, parallel

d)

3, 5, parallel

55.

Okazaki fragments appear on which strand of DNA during DNA replication?

a)

lagging

b)

leading

56.

What macromolecule makes up the majority of cell membranes?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Carbohydrates

57.

What type of lipid is shown?

a)

Fatty Acid

b)

Phospholipid

c)

Triglyceride

d)

Cholesterol

58.

What is the function of proteins in the cell membrane? Check all that apply:

a)

Transport ions and other large molecules though the bilayer

b)

Signal receptors to indicate what is on the outside of the cell

c)

Makes up the majority of the membrane

d)

Block unwanted materials from entering the cell

59.

What does it mean to be selectively permeable?

a)

Allows some, but not all molecules to cross

b)

Allows all molecules to cross but still regulates how much goes through

c)

It chooses what day it has a certain hairstyle

d)

Rarely allows molecules to cross without the help of channel proteins

60.

Which one identifies the cell?

a)

transport protein

b)

glycoprotein/glycolipid

c)

cholesterol

d)

phospholipid bilayer

61.

Identify a peripheral protein

a)

structure a

b)

strucure b

c)

structure g

d)

structure h

62.

Identify cholesterol molecule

a)

structure a

b)

structure b

c)

structure h

d)

structure i

63.

Identify microfilament of the cytoskeleton

a)

structure i

b)

structure b

c)

structure g

d)

structure c

64.

identify a glycolipid

a)

structure a

b)

structure d

c)

structure e

d)

structure g

65.
What is represented by this image?
a)
metaphase
b)
anaphase
c)
telophase
d)
interphase
66.
What is represented by this picture?
a)
ananphase
b)
prophase
c)
interphase
d)
metaphase
67.
During which part of the cell cycle does the DNA duplicate itself?
a)
Gap 1
b)
Gap 2
c)
Synthesis
d)
Mitosis
68.
The division of the cytoplasm is called _______.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Cycle
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Synthesis
69.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome 
70.
Which stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
71.
Which stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
72.
How many cells are made in the process of MITOSIS?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
four
d)
eight
73.
Cytokinesis happens at the end of mitosis. That is when
a)
the cell membrane splits
b)
the nucleus splits again
c)
the chromosomes merge
74.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
75.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
76.

The cell grows and is synthesizing all material (not DNA) before it can replicate during

a)

G2 phase

b)

G1 phase

c)

S phase

d)

M phase

77.

During mitosis, DNA is found in the condensed form called a

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

78.

In metaphase of mitosis

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the metaphase plate.

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

79.

Which of the following are true of meiosis? Select all that apply!

a)

It results in four cells

b)

It results in two cells

c)

The daughter cells are genetically identical

d)

The daughter cells are genetically unique

e)

The daughter cells are haploid

80.

What is the spot where crossing over occurs?

a)

Chiasma

b)

Bivalent

c)

Centromere

d)

Kinetochore

e)

Centrosome

81.

_____ are separated during Meiosis I, and _____ are separated during Meiosis II.

a)

Chromosomes; spindle fibers

b)

Non-sister chromatids; sister chromatids

c)

Sister chromatids; homologous pairs

d)

Homologous pairs; sister chromatids

82.

Meiosis I results in _________.

a)

2 diploid daughter cells

b)

2 haploid daughter cells

c)

4 diploid daughter cells

d)

4 haploid daughter cells

83.

Meiosis II results in _________.

a)

2 diploid daughter cells

b)

2 haploid daughter cells

c)

4 diploid daughter cells

d)

4 haploid daughter cells

84.

What phase is this cell at?

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Telophase II

85.

What phase is this cell at?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Metaphase I

c)

Telophase I

d)

Prophase I

86.

What phase is this cell at?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Prophase I

d)

Metaphase II

87.

What phase is this cell at?

a)

Prophase II

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Telophase I

88.

Check all of the following that DO occur during Telophase I and cytokinesis. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

The separated homologous chromosomes are at opposite poles of the cell.

b)

The cell divides in two.

c)

The chromosomes do not uncoil, since they are getting ready for Meiosis II.

d)

Sister chromatids are pulled away from each other.

89.

At the start of Meiosis II, which of the following is/are TRUE. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

a)

There are two cells.

b)

The cells are haploid.

c)

The chromosomes are paired up as homologues.

d)

DNA is present as two sister chromatids joined at the centromere.

90.

Which of the following are CORRECT observations about the differences between MITOSIS and MEIOSIS? (Check all that apply.)

a)

Mitosis produces cells that identical to the parent cell.

b)

Meiosis produces cells that have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

All cells go through INTERPHASE as part of the cell cycle, whether it goes to mitosis or meiosis next.

d)

In both types of cell division, the chromosomes are only duplicated once.

e)

Only in Mitosis, do you see chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad. (homologous chromosomes)

91.
____________describes the general process of breaking down large molecules into samller ones.
a)
metabolism
b)
anabolsim
c)
catabolism
d)
dehydration
92.
Metabolism is best described as______
a)
synthesis of macromolecules
b)
breakdown of macromolecules
c)
control of enzyme activity
d)
control of enzyme activity in te synthesis and breakdown of macromolecules
93.
True or False: Catabolic pathways consume energy to build up polymers from monomers.
a)
True
b)
False
94.
A chemical reaction that has a positive change in G is correctly described as _____________
a)
endergonic
b)
exergonic
c)
spontaneous
d)
exothermic
95.
True or False: Enzymes increase the rate of reaction.
a)
True
b)
False
96.
Which of the following reactions would decrease entropy within a cell?
a)
anabolic
b)
catabolic
c)
diffusion
d)
digestion
97.
 Metabolism is _______________
a)
a constant supply of energy from food
b)
an increase of entropy in an organism
c)
all the energy transformation reactions in an organism
d)
biochemical pathways involved in synthesis of macromolecules
98.

What is the function of ATP in living things?

a)

provides energy for cells

b)

stores genetic information

c)

provides structure in the nucleus

d)

uses fat for energy

99.
Which bond of the ATP molecule is broken in order to release energy?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
100.

In order to proceed, endergonic reactions require an input of:

a)

glucose

b)

energy

c)

oxygen

d)

amino acids

101.

What is the only source of energy that cells can use directly for work?

a)

ATP

b)

glucose

c)

fat

d)

protein

102.

What is the purpose of an enzyme?

a)

Allow a reaction to occur

b)

Increase the activation energy

c)

Catalyze reactions

d)

Determine how many reactions will occur

103.

What will happen to the concentrations of A, B, and C when Enzyme 1 is deactivated?

A + Enzyme 1 --> B + Enzyme 2 --> C

a)

A and B will decrease, C will increase

b)

A will increase, B and C will decrease

c)

A, B, and C will decrease

d)

A will decrease, B and C will increase

104.

Which of the following are true of the active sites on enzymes? Select all that apply!

a)

They bind substrates (reactants)

b)

They can catalyze different types of reactions

c)

This is where products are formed

d)

They are highly specific

e)

They are consumed by the reaction

105.

What is activation energy?

a)

Chemical potential energy

b)

The amount of energy needed to overcome the transition state

c)

The amount of energy needed for enzymes to function

d)

The amount of ATP available in a reaction

106.

Enzymes require optimal ___________ to function. Select all that apply!

a)

pH

b)

Temperature

c)

Color

d)

Size

107.

The Plasma membrane mainly consists of

a)

Proteins embedded in carbohydrate-lipid layer

b)

Proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer

c)

Proteins embedded in a phospholipid layer

d)

Proteins embedded in a lipid molecules

108.

The following are the components of plasma membrane. EXCEPT one?

a)

cholesterol

b)

proteins

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleotide

109.

According to the Fluid mosaic model, the quasi-fluid nature of the lipids enable

a)

Lateral movement of carbohydrates within the bilayer.

b)

Lateral movement of proteins within the bilayer.

c)

Free movement of lipids within the bilayer.

d)

Free movement of ions within the bilayer

110.

Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means

a)

anything can pass in and out

b)

the membrane regulates the passage of the material in and out of the cell

c)

glucose cannot enter the cell

d)

cholesterol cannot enter

111.

The head of a phospholipid is attracted to water, and is referred to as:

a)

Hydroscopic

b)

Hydrogenated

c)

hydrophobic

d)

Hydrophilic

112.

What is the component of the plasma membrane that helps to minimize the effects of temperature on fluidity

a)

cholesterol

b)

phospholipids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

proteins

113.

Which one identifies the cell?

a)

transport protein

b)

glycoprotein/glycolipid

c)

cholesterol

d)

phospholipid bilayer

114.

'Which one is the hydrophilic (water-loving) portion of the plasma membrane that can mix with water?

a)

A

b)

B

115.

'Which one is the hydrophobic (water-fearing) portion of the plasma membrane that can't mix with water?

a)

A

b)

B

116.

Identify a peripheral protein

a)

structure a

b)

strucure b

c)

structure g

d)

structure h

117.

Which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing the membrane by diffusing through the bilayer?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

a sodium ion

118.

A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the membane is to

a)

glue cells together to form tissues

b)

allow cells to identify each other

c)

attach membrane to cytoskeleton

d)

help retain shape

119.

When doctors perform organ transplants, they choose a donor tissue match. Which component is being matched?

a)

membrane phospholipids

b)

cytoskeleton

c)

cell surface carbohydrates

d)

cholesterol

120.

What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?

a)

ionic

b)

small and hydrophobic

c)

large polar

d)

large and hydrophobic

121.

Which type of biological macromolecule is the main component of the plasma membrane?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

122.

These are formed during the citric acid cycle which carries electrons and hydrogen ions to the Electron Transport Chain.

a)

CO2 and H2O

b)

NAD+ and FAD

c)

NADH and FADH

d)

GTP and CO2

123.
In what organelle is the genetic material found inside?
 
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Golgi Complex
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Nucleus
124.

The "fuel" for the Kreb's cycle is

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

GTP

d)

Acetyl-CoA

125.

How many FADH2 are formed during two turn of the Krebs cycle?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

0

126.

The chemical reactions of the Citric Acid Cycle take place in

a)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

b)

Outer mitochondrial membrane

c)

Mitochondrial matrix

d)

Intermembrane space of mitochondria

127.

The starting point of the Kreb's Cycle

a)

Acetyl CoA and Citrate

b)

Oxaloacetate and Acetyl CoA

c)

Acetyl CoA and Isocitrate

d)

Acetyl CoA and CO2

128.

The products of a single turn of Citric Acid Cycle.

a)

(1) CO2, (3) NADH, (1) FADH2, (1) GTP

b)

(2) CO2, (1) NADH, (3) FADH2, (1) GTP

c)

(4) CO2, (3) NADH, (1) FADH2, (1) GTP

d)

(2) CO2, (3) NADH, (1) FADH2, (1) GTP

129.
What organelle is called the "powerhouse" of a cell?

a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Nucleolus
130.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
131.
What is the gel-like substance inside of cells called?

a)
photoplasm
b)
photosynthesis
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
cytoplasm
132.
What organelle stores waste and water in both plant and animal cells?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Golgi Complex
c)
Vacuoles
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
133.
Using this image, what organelle is D?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Flagella
c)
Rough ER
d)
Smooth ER
134.
Using this image, what organelle is N?
a)
Centrioles
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Ribosome
135.
What is the function of nucleus?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
136.
What is the function of the mitochondria?
a)
Structure that manufactures ribosomes
b)
Structures that converts nutrients to energy
c)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
d)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell
137.
What is the function of the vacuole?
a)
Sac that stores water, nutrients, and waste products
b)
Sac filled with digestive chemicals
c)
Jelly-like substance within the plasma membrane
d)
stack of membranes that packages chemicals
138.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
139.
What is this?
a)
mitochondria
b)
lysosomes
c)
chloroplast
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
140.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
141.

A long whip like structure used for movement by organisms

a)

Flagella

b)

Pseudopods

c)

Cilia

d)

pili

142.

Tiny (short) hair-like structures uses for movement and gathering food by eukaryotic organisms

a)

Flagella

b)

Pseudopods

c)

Cilia

d)

fimbrae

143.
The difference in the concentration of a substance from one location to another is called 
a)
diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
concentration gradient
d)
passive transport
144.
A molecule that diffuses down a concentration gradient goes from an area of ______ concentration into an area of ______ concentration.
a)
high, low
b)
low, high
c)
passive, active
d)
active, passive
145.
Passive transport requires no
a)
concentration gradients
b)
osmosis
c)
motion
d)
energy
146.
Controlling what goes into or out of the cell without energy is called
a)
active transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
passive transport
d)
exocytosis
147.
Controlling what goes into or out of the cell with the help of energy is called
a)
active transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
passive transport
d)
exocytosis
148.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
149.

This type of solution has equal water concentration in the intracellular and extracellular environment

a)

Hypertonic Solution

b)

Hypotonic Solution

c)

Isotonic Solution

150.

In which osmotic state does the cell shrink?

a)

hypertonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypotonic

151.

In which osmotic state does the cell look normal?

a)

hypertonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypotonic

152.

During which osmotic state does the cell swell and get bigger?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Isotonic

c)

Hypotonic

153.

In a hypotonic solution, where is most of the water?

a)

inside the cell

b)

outside of the cell

154.

In a hypotonic solution, where are most of the solutes?

a)

inside the cell

b)

outside of the cell

155.

In a hypotonic solution, which direction does water want to move to create equilibrium?

a)

into the cell

b)

outside of the cell

156.

What does Gibbs Free Energy tell us?

a)

How much energy is given off by a reaction.

b)

The tendency of a reaction to become "random"

c)

How spontaneous a reaction is.

157.

What information do we need to perform a calculation of Gibbs Free Energy?

a)

Enthalpy of the reaction.

b)

Entropy of the reaction.

c)

The temperature of the reaction in Kelvin.

d)

All of the above are needed.

158.

Where does glycolysis take place?

a)

cytosol

b)

mitochondrial matrix

c)

cristae

d)

thylakoid

159.

Glycolysis requires oxygen.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

What is the starting material for glycolysis?

a)

pyruvate

b)

acetyl CoA

c)

glucose

d)

G3P

161.

What is the main function of glycolysis?

a)

To rearrange the glucose molecule to be broken down

b)

To split the glucose molecule to release energy

c)

To recreate acetyl CoA for the krebs cycle

d)

To absorb and store energy in ATP molecules

162.

What are the products of glycolysis?

a)

2 ATP, 2 NADPH, 2 pyruvate

b)

2 ADP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate

c)

2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate

d)

2 ADP, 2 NADPH, 2 pyruvate

163.

How does glycolysis lead to ATP synthesis?

a)

Glucose provides the phosphate for ADP to synthesize ATP

b)

Glycolysis splits the glucose molecule to create G3P

c)

High energy electrons are stored in NADH for the ETC

d)

Acetyl CoA is synthesized for the Krebs cycle

164.

What are the two parts of oxidative phosphorylation?

a)

glycolysis

b)

Krebs cycle

c)

electron transport chain

d)

chemiosmosis

165.

Where does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

a)

chloroplast

b)

cristae

c)

matrix

d)

cytosol

166.

Which direction are protons pumped during the electron transport chain?

a)

Into the mitochondrial matrix

b)

Into the intermembrane space

c)

Into the cytosol

d)

Into the thylakoid

167.

How does the electron transport chain facilitate the synthesis of ATP?

a)

The ATP is synthesized at the end of the electron transport chain

b)

The ATP is synthesized by the protons combining with the oxygen in the electron transport chain

c)

The ATP is synthesized by the protons flowing down their concentration gradient after being pumped out by ETC

d)

The ATP is synthesized by the ATP synthase found in the electron transport chain

168.

What is the final product of the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

ATP

b)

NADH

c)

FADH2

d)

ADP

169.

Hydrogen ions are pumped from the __________ to the ___________.

a)

matrix; intermembrane space

b)

intermembrane space; matrix

c)

matrix; cytoplasm

d)

intermembrane; cytoplasm

170.

Thin, flexible barrier that surrounds all cells; regulates what enters and leaves the cell

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Cell Membrane

c)

Nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

171.

A researcher wants to film the movement of chromosomes during cell division. Which type of microscope should she choose, and why is it the best choice?

a)

Light microscope because the specimen is alive

b)

Transmission electron microscope because of its high magnifying power.

c)

Transmission electron microscope because of its high resolving power.

d)

Scanning electron microscope because of its ability to visualize the surface of sub cellular objects.

172.

Organism whose cells contain a nucleus

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Chloroplast

173.

In eukaryotic cells, all cellular contents outside the nucleus; in prokaryotic cells, all of the cell's contents

a)

Centriole

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Cytoskeleton

174.

Which of the following is/are likely to limit the maximum size of a cell?

a)

The shape of the cell

b)

The cell's surface-to-volume ratio

c)

All of these answers are correct

d)

The time it takes a molecule to diffuse across a cell.

175.

Specialized structure that performs important cellular functions within a cell

a)

Vacuole

b)

Ribosome

c)

Organelle

d)

Nucleus

176.

In terms of cellular function, what is the most important difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Eukaryotic cells lack many of the organelles found in prokaryotes.

b)

Eukaryotic cells are compartmentalized, which allows for specialization.

c)

Eukaryotic cells can synthesize proteins but prokaryotic cells cannot.

d)

Eukaryotic cells are much more successful than prokaryotic cells.

177.

Cell organelle that stores materials such as water, salts, proteins, and carbohydrates

a)

Centriole

b)

Vacuole

c)

Ribosome

d)

Lysosome

178.

Cell organelle that breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins into small molecules that can be used by the rest of the cell

a)

Vacuole

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

179.

Network of protein filaments in a eukaryotic cell that gives the cell its shape and internal organization and is involved in movement

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

180.

Structure in an animal cell that helps to organize cell division

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Endoplasmic reticulum

d)

Centriole

181.

Which of the following features do prokaryotes and eukaryotes have in common?

a)

Nucleus, plasma membrane, and ribosomes.

b)

Mitochondria, ribosomes and cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria, cytoplasm and plasma membrane

d)

Ribosomes, plasma membrane and cytoplasm.

182.

Consider a protein that is made in the rough ER. You observe that when synthesis of this protein is completed, the protein is located in the ER membrane. Where else in the cell might this protein be found?

a)

In the aqueous interior of a lysosome, functioning as a digestive enzyme.

b)

In a mitochondrion, functioning in ATP synthesis.

c)

Embedded in the plasma membrane, functioning in the transport of molecules into the cell.

d)

In the cytoplasm, functioning as an enzyme in carbohydrate synthesis.

183.

Cell organelle consisting of RNA and protein found throughout the cytoplasm in a cell; the site of protein synthesis

a)

Endoplasmic reticulum

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleus

d)

Nucleolus

184.

What is the functional connection between the nucleolus, nuclear pores, and the nuclear membrane.

a)

The nuclear pores are connections between the nuclear membrane and the endoplasmic reticulum that permit ribosomes to assemble on the surface of the ER.

b)

Subunits of ribosomes are assembled in the nucleolus and pass through the nuclear membrane via the nuclear pores.

c)

Membrane of the endoplasmic reticulum is produced in the nucleolus and leaves the nucleus through the nuclear pores.

d)

The nucleolus contains messenger RNA (mRNA), which crosses the nuclear envelope through the nuclear pores.

185.

Organelle found in cells of plants and some other organisms that captures the energy from sunlight and converts it into chemical energy

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell Wall

d)

Lipid Bilayer

186.

Cell organelle that converts the chemical energy stored in food into compounds that are more convenient for the cell to use

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

187.

What organelle serves as a primary "packaging" area for molecules that will be distributed throughout the cell?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Rough ER

188.

Which of the following statements about mitochondria is false?

a)

The folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane are called cristae.

b)

Mitochondria are involved in energy metabolism.

c)

Mitochondria have more than one membrane.

d)

Mitochondria contain ribosomes in the inter membrane space.

189.

A dish of animal cells was grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorous. The phosphorous largely ended up in nucleotides inside the actively growing animal cells. In which cellular structure or structures would you predict the majority of the radioactive phosphorous to accumulate?

a)

The Golgi apparatus

b)

Rough ER

c)

The nucleus

d)

Rough ER and Gogli Apparatus

190.
The observable traits of an organism are known as its
a)
allele
b)
dominance
c)
phenotype
d)
genotype
191.
The gene makeup of an organism for a particular trait is known as its
a)
dominance
b)
phenotype
c)
allele
d)
genotype
192.
What is the percentage of homozygous recessive offspring?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
193.
Green peas are dominant (G) to yellow peas (g). What is the genotype for a hetereozygous dominant offspring?
a)
Gg
b)
gg
c)
GG
194.
What is the percentage of a homozyogus dominant offspring?
a)
75%
b)
50%
c)
25%
d)
0%
195.
_______ is made during transcription and ________ is made during translation.
a)
mRNA / a protein
b)
a protein / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
196.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that....
a)
Only RNA has the base Uracil
b)
only RNA contains the base Thymine
c)
only RNA contains the base Cytocine
d)
only RNA contained the base Guanine
197.
A triplet (3 bases)  of mRNA is called a
a)
codon
b)
anticodon
c)
amino acid
d)
peptide bond
198.
Every three letters (example: ATC) in DNA codes for what??
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Nucleotide
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
199.

The anti-codon of tRNA

a)

contains a sequence the same as DNA

b)

contains a sequence complementary to the mRNA codon

c)

contains the base thymine

d)

does not exist

200.

Transcribe the following piece of DNA into RNA:

ATCGTA

a)

UAGCAU

b)

TAGCAT

c)

ATCGTA

d)

AUCGUA

201.

The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) from DNA is called

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Division

202.

What is the correct sequence for protein synthesis?

a)

rRNA --> DNA --> Protein---->mRNA

b)

Protein --> rRNA --> DNA---->tRNA

c)

DNA ----> mRNA ---->tRNA----> Protein

d)

DNA --> Protein --> tRNA-->mRNA

203.
How many bases are in one codon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4

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