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Physical Science Semester 1 Review

Total questions: 501

Worksheet time: 8hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Using one or more of your senses to gather information is called...

a)

Infering

b)

Predicting

c)

Observing

d)

Hypothesizing

2.

A testable postulate is a...

a)

Theory

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Law

d)

Conclusion

3.

A statement that describes the most logical explanation based on an experiment is a...

a)

Theory

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Law

4.

Observations that deal with a number or amount are called

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

5.

The Skittles are yellow, red and green is an example of _____________.

a)

Qualitative observations

b)

Hypothesis

c)

Quantitative observations

6.

The statement that correctly lists the steps of the scientific method in order is _______________.

a)

Conclusion, research, hypothesis, ask a question.

b)

Hypothesis, ask a question, research, experiment.

c)

Ask a question, hypothesis, experiment, collect data and analyze.

7.

The part of an experiment that does not change is a __________.

a)

Control

b)

Conclusion

c)

Constant

8.

The steps commonly used by scientists in gathering information to test hypotheses and solve problems are called _____.

a)

Scientific inquiry

b)

Scientific method

c)

Hypothesis

9.

The variable that is changed by the scientist to test a hypothesis is called the ________________.

a)

Dependent variable

b)

Control

c)

Independent variable

10.

A process that uses observation and experimentation to gain knowledge about events in nature is ____________.

a)

Gravity

b)

Scientific method

c)

Science

11.

Which is the best description of the dependent variable?

a)

The variable that is changed by the scientists

b)

The variable that does not change

c)

The measurable variable

12.

Which of the following should be a goal of a scientific investigation?

a)

To help the scientist make money

b)

To help the scientist solve a problem

c)

To prove something

13.

A prediction about a problem that can be tested is __________.

a)

Variable

b)

Theory

c)

Hypothesis

d)

Law

14.

One way to analyze data from a study is to ____________.

a)

Make a graph

b)

Recognize a problem

c)

Develop a hypothesis

15.

Catherine is testing which soil will help grow grass the tallest. The height of the grown grass is the ____________ variable.

a)

Constant (stays the same)

b)

Independent (it's what you change)

c)

Dependent (it's what you measure)

16.

Students took a test after they had studied either in silence or with the television turned on. What is the dependent variable?

a)

Silence

b)

Television turned on

c)

The student

d)

Score on test

17.

What would the independent variable be in an experiment testing which paper airplane design goes furthest?

a)

The paper used

b)

The paper airplane design

c)

The distance of each plane's flight

d)

How hard the plane is thrown

18.

The plant has grown 4 cm since yesterday.

This is an example of what kind of data?

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

c)

Both

d)

Neither

19.

The barn is full of pigs, cows and horses.

This is an example of what kind of data?

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

c)

Both

d)

Neither

20.

Which of the following represents ethical behavior in scientific investigation?

a)

Accurate reporting of results

b)

Not allowing test subjects to be exposed to unnecessary risks in medical trials

c)

Allowing others to review your work

d)

All of these choices

21.

What is the mass of a 25 cm3  liquid if it has a density of 5 g/cm3?

a)

125 g

b)

5 g

c)

5gcm3\frac{5g}{cm^3}  

d)

0.2 cm30.2\ cm^3  

22.

Three liquids and two solids are placed in a graduated cylinder. The substances arrange themselves in the cylinder according to their densities. Use the information to identify the liquids and solids in the graduated cylinder. start with the top solid as substance 1, and the top liquid as substance 2, and so on

a)

Gold

b)

Mercury

c)

water

d)

Gasoline

e)

Cork

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
23.

Which object has the highest density in this picture?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

24.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
25.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
26.

What is the density of the sphere, if its mass is 50 g?

a)

40 grmL\frac{40\ gr}{mL}  

b)

65mLg\frac{65mL}{g}  

c)

2 gcm3\frac{2\ g}{cm^3}  

d)

25gmL\frac{25g}{mL}  

27.

How many eggs were measured altogether in this experiment?

a)

25

b)

40

c)

90

d)

100

28.

What is the independent variable?

a)

Type of fertilizer

b)

Average plant height

c)

The effect of fertilizer on plant height

d)

The effect of plant height on fertilizer

29.

What is the title of this graph?

a)

Type of fertilizer

b)

Average plant height

c)

The effect of fertilizer on plant height

d)

The effect of plant height on fertilizer

30.

What is the dependent variable?

a)

Type of fertilizer

b)

Average plant height

c)

The effect of fertilizer on plant height

d)

The effect of plant height on fertilizer

31.

What is the BEST title for this graph?

a)

The Relationship between Time Spent Studying and Test Grades

b)

The effect of Time Spent Studying and Test Grades

c)

Time Spent Studying

d)

Test Grades

32.

What is the independent variable for this graph?

a)

The Relationship between Time Spent Studying and Test Grades

b)

The effect of Time Spent Studying and Test Grades

c)

Time Spent Studying

d)

Test Grades

33.

Which discipline division awarded the least degrees?

a)

Pyschology

b)

Business

c)

Engineering

d)

Education

e)

Visual & Performing Arts

34.

What is the best TITLE for this graph?

a)

The effect of missed free throws on wins

b)

The relationship between missed free throws and wins

c)

Number of missed free throws

d)

Number of wins

35.

Which variable always goes on the y-axis (vertical)?

a)

Independent

b)

Dependent

c)

Constant

d)

Control

36.

What is the independent variable on this graph?

a)

Year

b)

Number of Visitors

c)

Visitors to a Park

d)

none of these

37.

How many people visited the park in 1997?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

50

e)

35

38.
In which year did exactly 60 students have scholarships?
a)
2010
b)
2011
c)
2012
d)
2013
39.
In August, how many metric tons did Clark's Paper Mill and Tyler Paper Mill produce all together?
a)
10
b)
70
c)
80
d)
90
40.
After the refrigerator, which appliance is used the most on weekdays?
a)
Television
b)
Heater
c)
Lights
d)
Computer
41.
Which appliance is used twice as many hours on the weekends as it is on weekdays?
a)
Lights
b)
Computer
c)
Refrigerator
d)
Television
42.
What is this graph showing you?
a)
The worlds population is staying the same.
b)
The worlds population is going down (decreasing).
c)
The worlds population was growing but now is decreasing.
d)
The worlds population has been growing and will continue to grow. 
43.
What is the general trend of this line graph?
a)
The more you mow, the less money you make.
b)
You make the same amount of money regardless of how long you mow.
c)
The more you mow, the more money you make.
d)
Mowing is dangerous.
44.

Which month had the biggest difference between the high and low temperatures?

a)

January

b)

April

c)

October

d)

November

45.

The graph shows the number of inches a plant grew each week.

Between which 2 weeks did the plant grow the MOST?

a)

Week 1 and Week 2

b)

Week 2 and Week 3

c)

Week 3 and Week 4

d)

Week 4 and Week 5

46.
Between which two times was the greatest increase in number of shoppers?
a)
12pm and 1pm
b)
1pm and 2pm
c)
2pm and 3pm
d)
10am and 11am
47.

An object starts from rest and after 2 seconds has a speed of 5 m/s. Calculate the acceleration

a)

0 m/s^2

b)

5 m/s^2

c)

2.5 m/s^2

d)

10 m/s^2

48.

An object is accelerating if

a)

It has a constant speed

b)

It is changing direction

c)

It is speeding up

d)

It is slowing down

49.

Calculate the acceleration of a car with an initial speed of 10 m/s and a final speed of 2 m/s if it is accelerating for 8 seconds

a)

1 m/s^2

b)

- 1 m/s^2

c)

-1.25 m/s ^2

d)

1 m/s^2

50.

What part of a position-time graph allows you to calculate the speed of the object?

a)

intercept

b)

area under the curve

c)

slope

51.

What part of a velocity-time graph allows you to calculate the acceleration of the object?

a)

intercept

b)

area under the curve

c)

slope

52.

What part of a velocity-time graph allows you to calculate the displacement of the object?

a)

intercept

b)

area under the curve

c)

slope

53.

A car exerts a driving force of 200 N to the right. The resistive forces have a total of 150 N. Describe the motion of the car.

a)

It is travelling at a constant speed to the right

b)

It is accelerating to the right

c)

It is travelling to the right but decelerating

d)

It is accelerating to the left

54.

A car exerts a driving force of 200 N to the right. The resistive forces have a total of 150 N. If the mass is 1000kg, what is the acceleration of the car.

a)

50 m/s^2

b)

0.2 m/s^2

c)

0.5 m/s^2

d)

0.05 m/s^2

55.

Friction depends on what

a)

Normal force

b)

Type of Surface

c)

Gravity

d)

Mass

56.

Newton's First Law

a)

The acceleration is proportional to the force and inversely proportional to mass

b)

For every force, there is an equal and opposite force acting on the other object

c)

An object remains at rest or in constant motion unless acted on by a net force.

57.

Newton's Second Law

a)

The acceleration is proportional to the force and inversely proportional to mass

b)

For every force, there is an equal and opposite force acting on the other object

c)

An object remains at rest or in constant motion unless acted on by a net force.

58.

Newton's Third Law

a)

The acceleration is proportional to the force and inversely proportional to mass

b)

For every force, there is an equal and opposite force acting on the other object

c)

An object remains at rest or in constant motion unless acted on by a net force.

59.

What is the interaction pair of forces for the WEIGHT on a person

a)

The normal force of the person acting on the ground

b)

The normal force of the ground acting on the person

c)

The force of gravity acting on the person by earth

d)

The force of gravity on the earth by the person

60.

What is the acceleration in the first 10 minutes

a)

60 m / min^2

b)

6 m/min^2

c)

0 m/ min^2

61.

What is the acceleration between 10 and 15 minutes?

a)

60 m / min^2

b)

6 m/min^2

c)

0 m/ min^2

62.

What is the acceleration between 15 and 40 minutes?

a)

4 m / min^2

b)

- 4 m/min^2

c)

0 m/ min^2

63.

What does a vector have?

a)

Magnitude Only

b)

Direction Only

c)

Neither

d)

Both magnitude and direction

64.

What is the displacement after 10 minutes?

a)

30 m

b)

60 m

c)

300 m

d)

600 m

65.

What is the total displacement after 55mins.

a)

550 m

b)

1050m

c)

1550 m

d)

-550 m

66.

What do you need to calculate momentum

a)

Mass

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Speed

67.

Momentum is a scalar quantity

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Calculate the momentum of a 500g object travelling at 10 m/s

a)

0.5 kgm/s

b)

5 kgm/s

c)

500 kgm/s

d)

5000kgm/s

69.

An object is travelling towards a wall with a speed of V and bounces back. Its final speed is also V. What is the change in momentum of the object in terms of m and v

a)

0

b)

mv

c)

2mv

d)

-2mv

70.

An 10 kg object is travelling at a speed of 10 m/s and an external force is applied. It has a new speed of 12 m/s. What is the change in momentum?

a)

100 kgm/s

b)

120 kgm/s

c)

20 kgm/s

d)

220 kgm/s

71.

Momentum is conserved when there is:

a)

An external force to the system

b)

Only internal forces between objects in the system

c)

Friction acting on the body

72.

Two cars collide. The system is the two cars. What physics principle is this question talking about?

a)

Conservation of Momentum because the forces are external

b)

Conservation of Momentum because the forces are internal

c)

Conservation of Mass

d)

Conservation of Grass

73.

Two cars collide. The system is only one of the cars. What happens

a)

Momentum is conserved because the forces are internal

b)

Momentum is conserved because the forces are external

c)

There is a change in momentum of the single car because of an external force

d)

There is a change in momentum of the single car because of an internal force

74.

A cannon has a mass of 1000 kg and a cannon ball has a mass of 10 kg. After firing the cannon ball moves at a speed of 30 m/s to the right. What is the speed of the cannon

a)

0.03 m/s to the right

b)

0.03 m/s to the left

c)

30 m/s to the right

d)

30 m/s to the left

75.

A 1000kg car is travelling at 10 m/s when it collides with a stationary 1500kg car. The 1000 kg car comes to a stop. What is the velocity of the 1500kg car?

a)

6.7 m/s

b)

10 m/s

c)

0 m/s

76.

A 1000kg car is travelling at 10 m/s when it collides with a stationary 1500kg car. The 1000 kg car rebounds at 1 m/s. What is the velocity of the 1500kg car?

a)

6 m/s

b)

9 m/s

c)

11 m/s

77.

A 1000kg car is travelling at +10 m/s when it collides with a 1500kg car travelling towards it at a speed of 10 m/s. The cars stick together. What is the final velocity of the cars.

a)

-10 m/s

b)

-2 m/s

c)

2 m/s

d)

10 m/s

78.

How do safety mats protect stunt men when they are falling?

a)

Increase the time it takes to fall so reduces the force

b)

Increases the time of collision so reduces the force

c)

Decreases the time so reduces the force

79.
What is the net force?
a)
20 N 
b)
0 N 
c)
400 N 
d)
40 N 
80.
What is the unit to MEASURE force?
a)
Kilogram
b)
Meter
c)
Pascal
d)
Newton
81.
A ____________ is a push or a pull on an object.
a)
friction
b)
force
c)
magnet
d)
gravity
82.
What is the net force?
a)
30 N 
b)
25 N 
c)
5 N 
d)
55 N 
83.
What is the net force?
a)
10 N
b)
0 N
c)
25 N
d)
1 N
84.
If these teams are pulling with the same amount of force what will happen?
a)
The boy in blue will win.
b)
They will not move at all.
c)
The boy in red will win.
d)
Both will fall down.
85.
Forces that have a net force of zero 
a)
Balanced force
b)
Unbalanced force
86.
The sum of all forces acting on an object.
a)
Contact Force
b)
Balanced Force
c)
Unbalanced Force
d)
Net Force
87.

What will cause an object to accelerate?

a)
Applied forces
b)
Balanced forces
c)
Unbalanced forces
88.
If an object is not moving the forces acting upon it are _____________
a)
unbalanced
b)
weak
c)
balanced
d)
Hulk Smash!
89.
Calculate the Net Force. 
a)
60N, Left 
b)
40N, Right 
c)
0N
d)
60N, Right
90.
Which could be an example of an unbalanced force?
a)
A plate sitting on a dining table
b)
A ball at the top of a hill that is not moving
c)
Earth orbiting the Sun 
d)

A ball that has rolled down a hill and come to rest.

91.
Which has more gravitational force acting upon it?
a)
a bus
b)
a train
c)
a car
d)
a person
92.
Why is person B having a hard time moving down the hill?
a)
Person B has more friction than person A.
b)
Person B has the same friction as person A.
c)
Person B is out of shape.
d)
Person B has less friction has person A.
93.
A force that slows or stops motion when objects rub together.
a)
Friction
b)
Push
c)
Pull
d)
Magnetism
94.
The force that pulls things toward earth.
a)
Speed
b)
Gravity
95.
How are velocity and force similar.
a)
both are described by the grams they  act in.
b)
both are described by the distance they act in.
c)
both are described by the speed they act in.
d)
both are described by the direction they act in.
96.
What famous scientist was the SI units of Force named after?
a)
Isaac Newton
b)
Galileo Galilei
c)
Albert Einstein
d)
Charles Darwin
97.
True or False: The larger the arrow the more the net force.
a)
True
b)
False
98.
Wheels on a skateboard most likely experiences-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
99.
Sally experiences-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
100.
Wheels of a shopping cart experience-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
101.
Friction is a force that acts in an ___________ direction of movement.
a)
similar
b)
opposite
c)
parallel
d)
west
102.
Objects balanced on Timmy's head experiences-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
103.
Which type of friction occurs when objects are not moving?
a)
static
b)
sliding
c)
fluid
d)
rolling
104.
A type of friction that occurs when air pushes against a moving object causing it to negatively accelerate
a)
surface area
b)
air resistance
c)
descent velocity
d)
gravity 
105.
Which of the following is an example of friction that is helpful?
a)
Brakes used on a bike
b)
Tires from a car on the road
c)
Tread on the bottom of your shoes
d)
All are examples that are helpful
106.
How can friction be reduced?
a)
reduce the force acting between the 2 surfaces
b)
reduce the roughness of the 2 surfaces coming in contact
c)
use wax, grease or oil
d)
all of the above are ways of reducing friction
107.
What does friction produce?
a)
light
b)
sound
c)
heat
d)
gravity
108.
Which of the following is an example of friction that is harmful?
a)
Pencil marking on paper
b)
Engine parts wearing out
c)
sand placed on ice in the winter
d)
Using an eraser to erase marks
109.
What is the "bumpy" surface called in friction?
a)
shaky
b)
microweld
c)
atomic stickyness
d)
reprobates
110.
Bumps on two surfaces that are touching.
a)
Energy
b)
Air Resistance
c)
Momentum
d)
Microwelds
111.
Gravity attracts all objects towards one another.
a)
False
b)
True
c)
It depends
112.
Any object with mass has gravity.
a)
True
b)
Sometimes
c)
False
d)
Never
113.
The force of gravity acting on an object is the object's ______.
a)
mass
b)
matter
c)
weight 
d)
friction 
114.
The law of universal gravitation is credited to whom?
a)
Einstein
b)
Galileo
c)
Darwin
d)
Newton
115.
Which of the following never changes no matter where in the universe?
a)
weight
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
116.
A person would weigh less on on the Moon than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Moon has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Moon has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Moon has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Moon has less mass and therefore less gravity
117.
Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are...
a)
mass and distance 
b)
mass and matter
c)
distance and weight 
d)
weight and mass
118.
If Earth's mass was cut in half, what would happen to your weight?
a)
Increase because gravitational force increases
b)
decrease because gravitational force decreases
c)
decrease because gravitational force increases
d)
nothing, weight is not affected by gravitational force
119.
What does this tool measure?
a)
weight
b)
meters
c)
mass
d)
force
120.
What is the value of g on Earth?
a)
9.81 m/s^2
b)
9.81 N
c)
9.81 m
d)
9.81 s/m^2
121.
As distance separating the objects increases the force
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
122.
Two asteroids exert a gravitational force, F, on each other. Some time later, the asteroids are now three times as far from each other as before. Which of the following represents the gravitational force at this distance? 
a)
F/3
b)
F/2
c)
F/6
d)
F/9
123.
You swing a bucket of water attached to a string in a circle above your head. What keeps the water in the bucket?
a)
Friction
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Gravity
d)
Inertia
124.
As this ride starts to spin in a circular motion the swings move outward.  What is the cause of this outward motion
a)
Gravity
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Speed
d)
Inertia
125.
If centripetal force stopped acting on all satellites they would continue traveling in space in a constant direction and constant speed.
a)
True
b)
False
126.

Which of Newton's laws is best described by inertia?

a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
127.
"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
128.
Force = Mass x Acceleration
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
129.
"An object in motion (or at rest) will to stay in motion (or at rest) until an outside force acts upon it."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
130.
The tendency of an object to resist changes in its motion is...
a)
inertia
b)
force
c)
acceleration
d)
velocity
131.
A force that opposes motion between a surface in contact with the atmosphere.
a)
air resistance
b)
gravity
c)
momentum
d)
terminal velocity
132.
An archer pulls the bowstring back, then releases the string and the arrow flies forward. Pulling the string back is the...
a)
action force
b)
reaction force
c)
net force
d)
inertia
133.
An archer pulls the bowstring back, then releases the string and the arrow flies forward. The arrow flying forward is the...
a)
action force
b)
reaction force
c)
net force
d)
inertia
134.
The net force on a ball thrown in outer space is... (you are no longer touching the ball)
a)
there is none
b)
forward
c)
down and backward
d)
forward and down
135.
The net force on a ball thrown on Earth is... (you are no longer touching the ball)
a)
there is none
b)
forward
c)
down and backward
d)
forward and down
136.
Mass x acceleration = ?
a)
force
b)
inertia
c)
momentum
d)
velocity
137.
A 10 lb. bowling ball hits a stationary 20 lb. bowling ball. Which of the following is not true about the 2nd ball?
a)
will have unbalanced forces acting on it
b)
move twice as fast as the original ball
c)
not move unless there is enough force to overcome its inertia
d)
take on the momentum of the original ball
138.
In the picture, the vehicle will move because of...
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 9th Law
139.
In the picture, the blocks are flying out of the truck based on which of Newton's laws?
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 6th Law
140.
To compare the two pictures would require...
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 11th Law
141.
Velocity is both ____ and _____. 
a)
speed , direction 
b)
direction, mass
c)
volume, density 
d)
direction, magnitude 
142.

An object is falling downward through Earth's atmosphere. In which direction is the air resistance force?

a)

Down

b)

Up

c)

Around the object

d)

Through the object

143.

Look at the pictures of the cars. Which car will have the most air resistance force acting upon it? They will be moving at the same speed.

a)
b)
c)
d)

All will have equal air resistance force.

144.

The acceleration of objects falling on Earth due to gravity is

a)

9.8 m/s

b)

9.8 m/s2

c)

9.8 g/mL

d)

9.8 g/m/m

145.

A girl drops a 7 gram bowling ball and a 1gram rock from a cliff. If we ignore air resistance, which will hit the ground first?

a)

Bowling Ball

b)

Rock

c)

Both will hit at the same time.

d)

The cliff

146.

What does it mean for an object to be in free fall?

a)

Only air resistance acting on the object.

b)

Gravity is the only force acting on the obejct.

c)

Any object that is in downward motion.

147.
Which would hit the ground first if dropped from the same height in a vacuum—a feather or a metal bolt?
a)
the feather
b)
the metal bolt
c)
They would hit the ground at the same time.
d)
They would be suspended in a vacuum.
148.
A crumpled piece of paper hits the ground before a flat sheet of paper because
a)
a.  the acceleration of gravity is greater on the crumpled paper.
b)
b. there is more air resistance against the flat paper.
c)
c. the crumpled paper is more massive.
d)
d. the crumpled paper is less massive.
149.
In a collision, momentum is
a)
created
b)
lost
c)
conserved
150.

At point P, the car hits an area of ice and loses all frictional force on it tires. Which path does the car follow on the ice?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

151.

A curved groove is place on the top of a level table as shown in the diagram. A ball is pushed in the groove at P so that it leaves at Q. Which picture shows how the ball will move when it leaves the groove at Q?

a)
b)
c)
d)
152.

At the instant shown in the diagram, the car's centripetal acceleration is directed-

a)

toward E

b)

toward N

c)

toward W

d)

clockwise

153.

The centripetal acceleration of the car at the position shown is directed toward point...

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

154.
The force that is necessary to keep the bucket swinging in a circle is called the:
a)
tangential velocity
b)
centrifugal force
c)
centripetal force
d)
the force of gravity
155.

Magnets A and B are of equal magnetic strength. In which position will magnets A and B be attractive but have the least attractive force toward one another?

a)

b)

c)

d)

156.

Magnets A and B are of equal magnetic strength. In which position will magnets A and B have the greatest force of repulsion away from one another.

a)
b)
c)
d)
157.

A teacher demonstrates a chemical reaction of a hand warmer. Hand warmers are used by people to warm their hands in cold weather. When opened, the iron in the warmer reacts with the air, producing heat and a reddish-brown substance.Select all statements that apply to the hand warmer reaction.

a)

The reactants and products have equal potential energy.

b)

The products have more potential energy than the reactants.

c)

The reactants have more potential energy than the products.

d)

Heat is released to the surroundings.

e)

Heat is absorbed from the surroundings

158.

The diagram below shows a boulder rolling down a hill into a valley and then up the opposite hill. At which position does the boulder have the least gravitational potential energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

159.

Students examine a spring (A)at rest, and then hang different masses from the spring (B & C). How much elastic potential energy does Spring A have compared to the others?

a)

Zero Elastic Potential Energy

b)

More Elastic Potential Energy than both B and C

c)

More Elastic Potential Energy than B and less than C

d)

Less Elastic Potential Energy than both B and C, but it does have some elastic potential energy.

160.

Students examine a spring (A)at rest, and then hang different masses from the spring (B & C). How much elastic potential energy does Spring B have compared to the others?

a)

Zero Elastic Potential Energy

b)

More Elastic Potential Energy than both A and C

c)

More Elastic Potential Energy than A and less than C

d)

Less Elastic Potential Energy than both A and C, but it does have some elastic potential energy.

161.

Students examine a spring (A)at rest, and then hang different masses from the spring (B & C). How much elastic potential energy does Spring C have compared to the others?

a)

Zero Elastic Potential Energy

b)

More Elastic Potential Energy than both A and B

c)

More Elastic Potential Energy than A and less than B

d)

Less Elastic Potential Energy than both A and B, but it does have some elastic potential energy.

162.

One bar magnet sits on a table, and a rubber band suspends another magnet above it. In the view on the left, the upper magnet is held in place and cannot move. In the view on the right, the upper magnet has been released. How did the potential energy change when the upper magnet was released?

a)

Magnetic, elastic and gravitational potential energy increased.

b)

Magnetic, elastic and gravitational potential energy decreased.

c)

Magnetic and elastic potential energy increased, and gravitational potential energy decreased.

d)

Magnetic and gravitational potential energy decreased, and elastic potential energy increased.

163.

A negatively charged particle is lifted 30 cm above a positively charged sphere.How did the potential energy of the negatively charged particle change as it was lifted?

a)

Electric potential energy increased, gravitational potential energy decreased.

b)

Electric potential energy decreased, gravitational potential energy increased.

c)

Electric and gravitational potential energy decreased.

d)

Electric and gravitational potential energy increased

164.

When an archer fires an arrow from a traditional bow, the string of the bow does not change in length. As shown in the diagram, the archer pulls back on the string (Step 1), changing the curve of the bow (Step 2). When the archer releases the string, the bow returns to its original shape (Step 3). How does the elastic potential energy in the bow change as the archer fires an arrow?

a)

It decreases from Step 1 to Step 2, then increases to Step 3.

b)

It increases from Step 1 to Step 2, then decreases to Step 3.

c)

It remains constant from Step 1 to Step 2, then increases to Step 3.

d)

It remains constant from Step 1 to Step 2, then decreases to Step 3.

165.

Four people return home from work and walk up the stairs to their own apartments in the same building.Which person has gained the most gravitational potential energy upon arriving at the door of his or her apartment?

a)

a 50 kg person who lives on the second floor

b)

a 50 kg person who lives on the third floor

c)

a 100 kg person who lives on the second floor

d)

a 100 kg person who lives on the third floor

166.

A gymnast performs on a trampoline. Figure 1 shows the gymnast at her lowest point. Figure 2 shows the gymnast at her highest point.Which table shows how gravitational and elastic potential energy change between Figure 1 and Figure 2?

a)
b)
c)
d)
167.

Two positively charged particles are attached to a spring. A metal sphere is placed near each charged particle, as shown in the diagram. Positive charge is slowly added to Sphere A. An equal amount of negative charge is slowly added to Sphere B. Assume the two systems are isolated from each other. How does the elastic potential energy change for each of the springs?

a)

The elastic potential energy of both springs will increase equally.

b)

The elastic potential energy of both springs will decrease equally.

c)

The elastic potential energy of the spring in set-up A will decrease and the elastic potential energy of the spring in set-up B will increase.

d)

The elastic potential energy of the spring in set-up A will increase and the elastic potential energy of the spring in set-up B will decrease.

168.

Which of the following conversions is illustrated with a solar powered car?

a)

radiant (light) to electrical

b)

radiant (light) to mechanical

c)

mechanical to radiant (light)

d)

electrical to mechanical

169.

As a soccer ball is kicked high into the air, it

a)

loses kinetic energy and loses potential energy.

b)

loses kinetic energy and gains potential energy.

c)

gains kinetic energy and gains potential energy.

d)

gains kinetic energy and loses potential energy.

170.

The maximum kinetic energy of a box sliding from the top of a ramp to the bottom is

a)

at the top.

b)

at the bottom.

c)

at the exact middle of the ramp

d)

stored equally within the box at all locations.

171.

Our bodies convert chemical energy into

a)

light energy.

b)

radiant energy.

c)

mechanical energy.

d)

thermal energy.

172.

Which statement is an inference that could be made about a swinging pendulum?

a)

The pendulum will swing for a minute before it stops.

b)

The pendulum swings slowly because the string is long.

c)

The pendulum string is 30 cm long.

d)

The pendulum string is thick.

173.

Which of the following shows the best examples of the energy conversion in a battery powered flashlight?

a)

Chemical >>> Electrical >>> Radiant

b)

Electrical >>> Mechanical >>> Chemical

c)

Mechanical >>> Radiant >>> Electrical

d)

Radiant >>> Electrical >>> Chemical

174.

A wind turbine makes use of which type of energy to generate electricity?

a)

chemical energy

b)

mechanical energy

c)

electric energy

d)

thermal energy

175.

A television converts electricity into

a)

light.

b)

sound.

c)

light and sound.

d)

light, sound, and heat.

176.

An example of electrical energy transforming to thermal energy is

a)

a fire burning.

b)

using a toaster.

c)

burning coal.

d)

lighting a candle.

177.

Before burning logs in a fireplace, they were a source of

a)

elastic potential energy.

b)

chemical potential energy.

c)

electrical potential energy

d)

gravitational potential energy.

178.

Batteries and food are an example of

a)

potential chemical energy.

b)

potential elastic energy.

c)

potential light energy.

d)

potential electrical energy.

179.

Which best describes what happens when a ball is thrown off mountain top?

a)

The kinetic energy increases and so does the total amount of energy.

b)

The kinetic energy decreases and the total amount of energy increases.

c)

The potential energy decreases and the total amount of energy also decreases.

d)

Both the kinetic and potential energy change, but the total energy remains constant.

180.

An object with kinetic energy must be

a)

at rest.

b)

stopped

c)

in motion.

d)

at an elevated position.

181.

The energy of electromagnetic waves is also known as ________ energy.

a)

chemical

b)

thermal

c)

radiant

d)

chemical

182.

What energy is given off by the sun?

a)

thermal and mechanical

b)

thermal and radiant

c)

radiant and electrical

d)

electrical and chemical

183.

Which kitchen appliance converts radiant energy into thermal energy?

a)

Dishwasher

b)

Microwave

c)

Coffee Maker

d)

Refrigerator

184.

Right before a ball starts to fall, it has

a)

kinetic energy only.

b)

potential energy only.

c)

both kinetic and potential energy.

d)

neither kinetic or potential energy.

185.

We played Jenga the other night. The wooden piece at the top has the greatest amount of ____ potential energy.

a)

falling

b)

elastic

c)

chemical

d)

gravitational

186.

Steve slammed on his brakes when a ball rolled out in front of his bike. During this quick stop, some of the mechanical energy (his motion) was changed into

a)

heat energy.

b)

light energy.

c)

kinetic energy.

d)

potential energy.

187.

Which is a characteristic of both kinetic and potential energy?

a)

Increase with mass

b)

Increase with velocity or speed

c)

Increase with height

d)

Increase with temperature

188.

What is law of conservation of energy?

a)

energy is universal

b)

energy can neither be created nor be destroyed

c)

energy has electrical mass

189.
Some students observing a classroom device being used, noticed the below energy transformations. 
Electrical → Mechanical → Sound
Which device were the students most likely observing?
a)
A triple beam balance measuring an object’s mass.
b)
A pencil sharpener plugged into a wall outlet.
c)
A projector displaying a diagram on the screen.
d)
A working flashlight used to light up a dark corner.
190.
Which type of energy transformation occurs when a flashlight shines?
a)
chemical → thermal → electrical
b)
chemical → electrical → light
c)
thermal → chemical → light
d)
chemical → electrical → chemical
191.
When water falls through a dam and turns a turbine connected to a generator, electricity is produced. This electricity is often used to light our homes and offices. Which of the following shows the energy transformations that occurs?
a)
electrical → light → mechanical
b)
chemical → mechanical → electrical
c)
mechanical → chemical → light
d)
mechanical → electrical → light
192.
A lamp that plugs into a wall socket draws energy which flows through a thin wire in the bulb causing it to glow. What energy transformations are taking place?
a)
chemical → light → electrical
b)
mechanical → sound → light
c)
thermal → solar → electrical
d)
electrical → thermal → light
193.
Which of the following shows the correct order of the energy transformations that occur when green plants produce their food from the Sun’s energy?
a)
chemical → thermal
b)
light → chemical
c)
thermal → light
d)
chemical → electrical
194.
The Theory of the Conservation of Energy states -
a)
Energy can be created, just not destroyed. It changes its form from one type to another.
b)
Energy can never be created nor destroyed. It can only change its form from one type to another.
c)
The total energy in our Universe changes, as different forms of energies can be transformed from each other under certain circumstances.
d)
Energy transformations do not passively occur in our lives, rather we actively make use of energies and transform energies.
195.
Solar Energy is transferred to _____ Energy.
a)
Mechanical
b)
Solar
c)
Sound
d)
Electrical
196.
Electrical Energy is transferred to _____ Energy.
a)
Thermal
b)
Solar
c)
Electrical
d)
None
197.
Kinetic Energy is transferred to _____ Energy.
a)
Solar
b)
Electrical
c)
Thermal
d)
Potential
198.
Which of the following shows an energy transformation from chemical energy to electrical to light energy?
a)
A bolt of lightning lights the night sky.
b)
A candle glows brightly in the dark.
c)
A fire in a fireplace lights up a room.
d)
A battery causes a flashlight to shine.
199.
People get energy from the food that they eat and transform that energy as they move. Which energy transformations occur as a student rapidly rubs the palms of his hands together?
a)
mechanical to thermal to electrical
b)
chemical to mechanical to thermal
c)
mechanical to chemical to sound
d)
chemical to sound to electrical
200.
A television works by transforming electrical energy into what other kinds of energy?
a)
Light, thermal, and sound
b)
Thermal, chemical, and solar
c)
Sound, mechanical, and electrical
d)
Light, chemical, and mechanical
201.
Energy transformations occur when...
a)
energy is created through conduction
b)
energy changes from one form to another
c)
two forces slide together that are touching
d)
a chemical reaction takes place
202.

Energy is the ability to do work or cause changes.

a)

True

b)

False

203.

We receive ________ and heat energy from the Sun.

a)

sound

b)

mechanical

c)

light

d)

kinetic

204.

Vibrations produce _______ energy.

a)

chemical

b)

sound

c)

potential

d)

light

205.

Which of the following is an example of kinetic energy?

a)

A rock at the top of a hill.

b)

Water falling down a waterfall.

c)

A pencil sitting on a desk.

d)

A backpack on the ground.

206.
How much work is being done with 200 N of force over 426 meters?
a)
85,200 J
b)
45,620 J
c)
90,480 J
d)
62,329 J
207.
If 150 Joules of work is needed to move a box 10 meters, what force was used? 
a)
1500 N
b)
15 N
c)
1.5 N
d)
150 N
208.
If 68 Joules were necessary to move a 4 Newton crate, how far was the crate moved?
a)
272 m
b)
17 m
c)
4.05 m
d)
272 cm 
209.
A kid applies a force of 70 N to a ball over 1.1 meters. How much work did he do on the ball? 
a)
77 J
b)
7.7 J 
c)
0.7 J 
d)
770 J 
210.
A weightlifter lifts two 300 newton weights 1.5 meters off the ground. How much work has he done?
a)
600 J 
b)
660 J
c)
900 J 
d)
1200 J 
211.
You do 90 joules of work in 30 seconds. How much power have you generated?
a)
30 watts
b)
3 watts
c)
120 watts
d)
270 watts
212.
You move an 8-newton weight five meters in 4 seconds. How much power have you generated?
a)
160 watts
b)
10 watts
c)
6.4 watts
d)
17 watts
213.
Which of the following would produce the most power?
a)
A mass of 10 kilograms lifted 10 meters in 10 seconds 
b)
A mass of 10 kilograms lifted 10 meters in 5 seconds
c)
A mass of 5 kilograms lifted 10 meters in 5 seconds
d)
A mass of 5 kilograms lifted 5 meters in 10 seconds
214.
A 5000N block is lifted 10 m. How much work was done?
a)
50000 J
b)
5000 J
c)
500 J
d)
50 J
215.
P=25 watts 
W=5000 Joules 
t=???
a)
200 sec
b)
0.0005 s
c)
125000 s
d)
125 s
216.
How much time is needed to produce 720 Joules of work if 90 watts of power is used? 
a)
0.125 s
b)
8 s
c)
64800 s
d)
80 s
217.

What force is applied to an object if 500 J is applied over a distance of 10 m? (Just write the number you calculate)

(a)  

218.

What force is applied to an object if 150 J is applied over a distance of 75 m? (Just write the number you calculate)

(a)  

219.

What distance does an object travel if 300 J is applied with a force of 50 N? (Just write the number you calculate)

(a)  

220.

What distance does an object travel if 10 J is applied with a force of 20 N? (Just write the number you calculate)

(a)  

221.

What work is done on an object if 200 W of power is consumed within 25 s? (Record just the number as your answer)

(a)  

222.

How much work is done on an object if 70 W of power is consumed within 10 s? (Record just the number as your answer)

(a)  

223.

How long would it take a machine to use 100 W of power if 200 J of work is done? (Record just the number as your answer)

(a)  

224.

How long would it take a machine to use 50 W of power if 1000 J of work is done? (Record just the number as your answer)

(a)  

225.

Calculate the potential energy of a car with a mass of 2,500 kg that is on a hill 100 meters above sea level.

a)

250,000 J

b)

2,450,000 J

c)

2,451,663 J

d)

248 J

226.

Lilly's cat ran through your yard. The cat has a mass of 5 kg. He is running at a speed of 3 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the cat as he runs?

a)

8.5 J

b)

45 J

c)

7.5 J

d)

22.5 J

227.

Alice kicks a soccer ball with a mass of 2.1 kg. The ball leaves the ground moving 30 meters per second. What is the kinetic energy of the soccer ball?

a)

567 J

b)

900 J

c)

945 J

d)

30 J

228.

Ty lifts a set of 1250kg weights a vertical distance of 2m in a weight lifting contest. What Potential Energy do the weights now possess?

a)

12,789 Joules

b)

24,500 Joules

c)

4,500 Joules

229.
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
230.
Which point has the most potential energy?
a)
G
b)
f
c)
b
d)
a
231.

A 5 Kg body is having a Kinetic energy of 250 J. What is the velocity of the body?

a)

10 m/s

b)

15 m/s

c)

20 m/s

d)

40 m/s

232.

What is the mass of a ball that has a kinetic energy of 115 J and is traveling at 9 m/s?

a)

1035 kg

b)

23.5 kg

c)

12.8 kg

d)

2.84 kg

233.

A exercise ball is on a table 2.5 m above the ground. What is the mass of the ball if it has a GPE of 56.8 J?

a)

71 kg

b)

22.72 kg

c)

142 kg

d)

2.32 kg

234.

Is it possible for an object to have no gravitational potential energy and have no kinetic energy?

a)

no

b)

yes

c)

not if it is on the planet earth

235.
Which material is the best conductor of heat?
a)
glass
b)
styrofoam
c)
metal
d)
wood
236.
What materials would be good insulators for a handle on a pan or pot that would be used on the stove?
a)
wood or plastic
b)
metal or rubber
c)
wood or rubber
d)
copper or steel
237.
Why does a metal lawn chair get hot in the sun when the grass sitting in the same sunlight remains cool to the touch?
a)
Heat travels easily through plants but not metals.
b)
Heat travels easily through both plants and metals.
c)
Heat travels easily through metal objects but not through plants.
238.
Conduction can only occur between two objects when –
a)
one object is less dense than the other.
b)
both objects are in physical contact with each other.
c)
one of the objects is made of a metal.
d)
both objects are exactly the same temperature.
239.
Which of the following is an example of conduction?
a)
Solar energy warming a room.
b)
Heat rising from the coils of a stove.
c)
Hot air drying a wet towel.
d)
Heat moving from a clothes iron to a shirt.
240.
The particles of a gas move ____than the particles of the same substance in the liquid or solid state.
a)
faster
b)
slower
c)
same speed
241.
Which of the following are kinds of heat transfer.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
d)
All of the above
242.

Heat will always transfer from the ___________ object to the ________ object.

a)

The hottest object to the coolest object.

b)

The coolest object to the hottest object.

c)

The solid object to the liquid object.

d)

The liquid object to the solid object.

243.
Jenny poured some hot chocolate into a cup and stirred it with a metal spoon.  She noticed the spoon was really warm.  What is the best explanation for this?
a)
The spoon is a conductor.
b)
The spoon reflects heat.
c)
The spoon is an insulator.
d)
She touched the spoon first and waited to touch the cup.
244.
Convection is heat transfer by-
a)
Touch an object
b)
The heating and cooling of a fluid
c)
Electromagnetic Waves
245.
Radiation is heat transfer by-
a)
Touch
b)
Circles
c)
Waves
246.
In what direction do hot liquids and gasses move?
a)
Side to Side
b)
Down
c)
Up
d)
Back and Forth
247.
The way the heat is moving from the hot coffee is called...
a)
convection
b)
radiation
c)
insulation
d)
conduction
248.
When the 2nd story of a house is warmer than the 1st floor of a house is heat transfer through 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
thermal equilibrium
249.
The sun warming your skin is an example of heat transfer through 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
thermal electricity
250.
 How many joules of heat are needed to raise the temperature of 10.0 g of aluminum from 22°C to 55°C, if the specific heat of aluminum is 0.90 J/gx°C?    
a)
297 Joules
b)
0.003 Joules
c)
297 J/gx°C
d)
0.003 J/gx°C
251.
What  is the formula to calculate heat energy required to raise the temperature of any substance?
a)
Q=mc∆t
b)
Q=mc
c)
Q= ½mv
d)
m=QC
252.
The energy of moving particles
a)
heat
b)
thermal energy
c)
school
d)
temperature
253.
Is a measure of how hot or cold something is 
a)
Cold
b)
Heat
c)
Temperature
d)
Thermal Energy 
254.
The flow of thermal energy from warmer objects to cooler objects 
a)
Ice Cold
b)
Heater
c)
Heat
d)
Convection 
255.
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every kilogram is called____?
a)
Thermal Energy
b)
Specific Heat
c)
Temperature
d)
Kinetic Energy
256.
What is the symbol for Thermal Energy?
a)
Q
b)
t
c)
m
d)
C
257.
What unit do you use to measure Thermal Energy?
a)
J/Kg ºC
b)
Kg
c)
ºC
d)
J
258.
What is the symbol for Specific Heat
a)
Q
b)
t
c)
m
d)
C
259.
What is the equation to measure change in Thermal Energy?
a)
Q=mc∆t
b)
Q=mc
c)
Q= ∆mct
d)
m=QC
260.
Water has a specific heat of 4184 J/KgºC.  Wood has a specific heat of 1760 J/KgºC.  What material needs more energy to raise the temperature 1ºC
a)
Wood
b)
Water
c)
Both are the same
261.
Copper, Stainless Steel, Carbon Steel, and Zinc were all heated using the same thermal energy.  What material would be the coolest after being heated?
a)
Copper
b)
Carbon Steel
c)
Zinc
d)
Stainless Steel
262.
A material was cooled from 100ºC to 40ºC.  What is the temperature change?
a)
60ºC
b)
40ºC
c)
-60ºC
d)
-40ºC
263.
What does temperature measure?
a)
Heat
b)
ºC
c)
Kinetic Energy
d)
Thermal Energy
264.

Automobile engines and steam engines are examples of .

a)

steam engines

b)

internal combustion engine

c)

external combustion engine

d)

solar collector

265.

Wind and ocean currents are formed by .

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

condusction

d)

condensation

266.

A material that reduces the transfer of thermal energy is a(n) .

a)

conductor

b)

insulator

c)

solar collector

d)

radiator

267.

Which answer best represents what a fluid is?

a)

liquid and gases

b)

liquids

c)

gases and solids

d)

solids and liquids

268.

Solar collectors are parts of _________.

a)

passive solar heating systems

b)

active solar heating systems

c)

internal combustion engines

d)

external combustion engines

269.

A device that converts thermal energy into mechanical energy is a .

a)

heat mover

b)

radiator

c)

heat engine

d)

conductor

270.

The ______________ of an object is a measure of the average kinetic energy of the particles in

the object.

a)

heat

b)

temperature

c)

conductivity

d)

charge

271.

system of pipes carries hot water to radiators

a)

active solar heating

b)

passive solar heating

c)

electrical heating

d)

radiator heating

272.

large windows on south side of building

a)

active solar heating

b)

passive solar heating

c)

electrical heating

d)

radiator heating

273.

use of solar collectors to absorb radiant energy

a)

active solar heating

b)

passive solar heating

c)

electrical heating

d)

radiator heating

274.

The First Law of Thermodynamics describes the conservation of energy

a)

True

b)

False

275.

In the formula of The First Law of Thermodynamics, the ''Q'' represent:

a)

Change in internal energy

b)

Energy transferred as heat

c)

Work done on or by the system

276.

Which of the following is equivalent to the principle of energy conservation?

a)

Newton’s first law

b)

The first law of thermodynamics

c)

Newton’s second law

d)

The second law of thermodynamics

277.
The first law of thermodynamics states that energy is
a)
created
b)
destroyed
c)
conserved
d)
created and destroyed
278.

In the formula of The First Law of Thermodynamics, the ''W'' represent:

a)

Work done on or by the system

b)

Change in internal energy

c)

Energy transferred as heat

279.
An ice cube is placed on a table and begins to melt.  The following conclusion can be made.
a)
Energy is being absorbed by the table which causes the cube to melt.
b)
Energy is being transferred from the table to the ice cube.
c)
Energy is being created by the air and table and making the cube heat up.
d)
Energy  is being created by the ice cube and is being released to the air
280.
A hot cup of tea absorbs thermal energy from a cold room.
a)
True
b)
False
281.
The _____ Law of Thermodynamics says that heat always flows from an object with a higher temperature to an object of lower temperature naturally
a)
Zeroth
b)
First
c)
Second
d)
Third
282.
Entropy increases from solid, liquid to gas. Why?
a)
Molecular disorder increases
b)
Molecular randomness decreases
c)
Molecules are more energetic
d)
Molecules are more reactive
283.
As water in a freezer turns into ice,
a)
the water absorbs energy from the air in the freezer.
b)
the water absorbs the coldness from the air in the freezer.
c)
the freezer air absorbs heat from the water.
d)
the water neither absorbs nor releases energy.
284.

Automobile engines and steam engines are examples of .

a)

steam engines

b)

internal combustion engine

c)

external combustion engine

d)

solar collector

285.

a machine that converts thermal energy into mechanical energy

a)

heating appliance

b)

thermostat

c)

refrigerator

d)

heat engine

286.

Internal combustion engines use ___ energy to produce thermal energy.

a)

Electrical

b)

Chemical

c)

Mechanical

287.

Collects heat as the sun shines through south-facing windows and retains it in materials that store heat (thermal mass)

a)

Passive solar heating

b)

Active solar heating

c)

Partial solar heating

288.

Using solar thermal panels to heat a home or office

a)

Active Solar Heating

b)

Passive Solar Heating

c)

Partial Solar Heating

289.
measure of the average kinetic energy of all  the particles that make up an object.
a)
temperature
b)
thermal energy
c)
heat
d)
specific heat
e)
thermodynamics
290.
sum of the kinetic and potential energy of the particles that make up an object.
a)
temperature
b)
thermal energy
c)
heat
d)
specific heat
e)
thermal insulator
291.
energy that is transferred between objects due to  temperature difference between those objects.
a)
temperature
b)
thermal energy
c)
heat
d)
solar collector
e)
convection
292.
amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1kg of a material.
a)
temperature
b)
thermal energy
c)
heat
d)
specific heat
e)
solar collector
293.
transfer of thermal energy by collisions between the particles that make up matter.
a)
convection
b)
radiation
c)
1st law of thermodynamics
d)
2nd law of thermodynamic
e)
conduction
294.
 transfer of thermal energy in  a fluid by the movement of warmer and cooler fluid from one place to another.
a)
convection
b)
radiation
c)
themal insulator
d)
heat engine
e)
conduction
295.
transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves.
a)
convection
b)
radiation
c)
heat
d)
specific heat
e)
conduction
296.
 a material through which thermal energy moves slowly.
a)
conductor
b)
gas
c)
thermal insulator
d)
internal combustion engine
e)
solar collector
297.
device used in an active solar heating system that transforms radiant energy from the sun into thermal energy
a)
1st Law of Thermodynamics
b)
2nd law of thermodynamics
c)
heat engine
d)
solar collector
e)
internal combustion energy
298.
study of the relationship between thermal energy, heat, and work.
a)
1st Law of Thermodynamics
b)
2nd law of thermodynamics
c)
heat
d)
heat engine
e)
themodynamics
299.
states that if the mechanical energy of a system is constant, the increase in the thermal energy of the system equal the sum of the thermal energy transferred into the system and the work done on the system
a)
1st Law of Thermodynamics
b)
2nd law of thermodynamics
c)
thermodynamics
d)
thermal insulator
e)
law of heat
300.
:states that energy spontaneously spreads from higher concentrations to regions of lower concentrations.
a)
1st Law of Thermodynamics
b)
2nd law of thermodynamics
c)
themal insulator
d)
heat engine
e)
thermodynamics
301.
device that converts some thermal energy into mechanical energy.
a)
thermal insulator
b)
heat engine
c)
enegine
d)
internal combustion engine
e)
solar collector
302.

Which has a greater amount of thermal energy - one liter of water at 50 degrees Celsius or 2 liters of water at 50 degrees Celsius?

a)

One liter of water

b)

Two liters of water

c)

They have the same thermal energy since they are at the same temperature

d)

There is no way to determine the answer without more information

303.

Protons have a ​ (a)   charge and electrons have a ​ (b)   charge.

Choose from the below words
positive
negative
neutral
304.

Two particles with opposite charges​ (a)   each other.

Two particles with the same charge ​ (b)   each other.

Choose from the below words
attract
repel
amplify
destroy
305.

The force between electric charges depends on...

a)

the mass of the charges

b)

the distance between charges

c)

the amount of charge

d)

the velocity of the charges

306.

A(n) ​ (a)   is a material through which electrons (and therefore charge) move easily.

A(n) ​ (b)   is a material through which electrons (and therefore charge) do not move easily.

Choose from the below words
conductor
insulator
circuit
current
307.

Copper is an example of a(n) ​​ (a)  

Rubber is an example of a(n) ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
conductor
insulator
circuit
fuse
308.

I touched a negatively charged rod to a neutral object, and some negative charge was transferred to the object. This is an example of...

a)

charging by induction

b)

charging by friction

c)

charging by contact

d)

charging by polarization

309.

I bring a positively charged rod near a neutral metal sphere, which causes the negative charge within the sphere to move toward the rod, and the positive charge to move away from the rod. This is an example of...

a)

charging by induction

b)

charging by polarization

c)

charging by contact

d)

charging by friction

310.

During a storm, convection currents cause a separation of charges in storm clouds, and then lightening strikes the ground due to...

a)

the force of the convection currents

b)

the attraction between negative and positive charges between the cloud and the ground

c)

the negative and positive charges in the cloud repelling each other

d)

the high potential energy in the cloud flowing to the low potential energy in the ground

311.

How many types of electric charges are there?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

312.

How will these charges interact?

a)

Repel

b)

Attract

c)

No interaction

313.

How will these charges interact?

a)

Repel

b)

Attract

c)

No interaction

314.

How will these charges interact?

a)

Repel

b)

Attract

c)

No interaction

315.
A region around charged objects where the object´s electric force is exerted on other charged objects is an electric: 
a)

Field

b)

Outlet

c)

Socket

d)

Domain

316.
The closer the charges, the ___________ the force between them
a)
closer
b)
further
c)
stronger
d)
weaker
317.
An object becomes charged when the atoms in the object gain or lose
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
all of the above
318.

Which type of charged particle moves from one object to another to cause static electricity?  

a)

Atom

b)

Proton

c)

Electron

d)

Neutron

319.
The electrical force between charges is strongest when the charges are
a)
close together
b)
far apart
c)
 the electric force is constant everywhere.
d)
there is no pattern
320.
If an object has the same number of positive and negative charges, its electrical charge is...
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral or no charge
d)
opposite
321.
If a substance has an excess number of electrons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?
a)
A negative charge
b)
A positive charge
c)
A neutral charge
d)
A nuclear charge
322.
Rubbing a balloon on hair is an example of static charge build up created by....
a)
conduction
b)
friction
c)
induction
d)
hairduction
323.
Your arm hair raising as you approach a television is an example of charging by induction
a)
true
b)
false
324.

A negatively charged rod is brought near a neutral electroscope, what happens in the electroscope?

a)

Electrons move from the plate to the vein to make the vein negatively charged.

b)

Protons move from the plate to the vein to make the vein positively charged.

c)

Electrons move from the vein to the plate to make the vein positively charged.

d)

Protons move from the vein to the plate to make the vein negatively charged.

325.

A 9.0-V battery is connected to a 3.5-Ω resistor and a 2.5-Ω resistor connected in series. Which statement is true?

a)

The total electric potential and the electric potential for each resistor is the same.

b)

The total current out of the battery and the current through each resistor is the same.

c)

The total current out of the battery gets split up among the resistors.

d)

Each resistor outputs the same power.

326.

The current going through the 8.0-Ω resistor is ___ A.

327.

Since there are multiple pathways the current can take from the positive side of the battery to the negative side, in a ​ (a)   circuit, the ​ (b)   is divided up among the pathways, but the potential is the same for each pathway. ​In ​ (c)   circuits with only one pathway for the current, the ​ (d)   is divided up among the different elements.

Choose from the below words
parallel
current
series
potential
328.

Suppose light bulb and socket C was removed from the circuit shown. Wire is used to connect the switch to light bulb and socket B instead. What will happen to the total voltage of the battery when this happens?

a)

It will stay the same.

b)

It will increase so the bulbs A and B burn brighter.

c)

It will decrease so the bulbs A and B will dim.

d)

The circuit cannot work without light bulb and socket C where it is.

329.

A potential difference of 24 V is applied to a 150-Ω resistor. How much current flows through the resistor?

a)

0.15 A

b)

3600 A

c)

6.25 A

d)

0.16 A

330.
What will happen if one light bulb is removed from this circuit?
a)
The other bulbs will go out.
b)
The other bulbs will stay on
c)
The other bulbs will get dimmer.
d)
The battery will become stronger.
331.

A 200-W light bulb is connected across a 100-V dc power supply. What current will flow through this bulb?

a)

0.90 A

b)

0.36 A

c)

0.60 A

d)

2.0 A

332.

The current through the starter motor of a car is 210 A. If the battery maintains 12 V across the motor, how much electrical energy is delivered to the starter in 10.0 s?

a)

2500 J

b)

25200 J

c)

17.5 J

d)

175 J

333.

To measure electric potential, use a ​ (a)   and attach it in ​ (b)   . To measure current, use a ​ (c)   and attach it in ​ (d)   ,

Choose from the below words
voltmeter
parallel
ammeter
series
334.

How many kilowatt-hours does a 550-W microwave use if it is run for 32 minutes per day for 30 days?

a)

8800 kW·hr

b)

293 kW·hr

c)

17600 kW·hr

d)

8.8 kW·hr

e)

0.293 kW·hr

335.

A(n) ​ (a)   is used to ​provide voltage for a circuit. A(n) ​ (b)   is used to either complete or disconnect a branch in a circuit. A(n) ​ (c)   is used to control the flow of current in a circuit. A(n) ​ (d)   is used to prevent the current from going over some maximum value.

Choose from the below words
battery
switch
resistor
fuse
336.

Match the Unit to its quantity

a)

Ampere

1.

Current

b)

Watt

2.

Power

c)

Volt

3.

Voltage

d)

Joule

4.

Energy

e)

Ω\Omega

5.

Resistance

337.

What is the mathematical symbol for current in Ohm's Law Equation?

a)

q

b)

V

c)

R

d)

I

338.

What happens to the total resistance of a parallel circuit as you add resistors?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the Same

d)

Goes to Zero

339.

What happens to the total current of a circuit as you place more and more resistors in parallel?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the Same

d)

Becomes zero somehow

340.

What happens to the total voltage of a circuit as you place more and more resistors in parallel?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the Same

d)

Becomes zero somehow

341.

How do you connect an voltmeter's leads to a circuit to determine voltage?

a)

In series with the rest of the circuit

b)

In parallel with the rest of the circuit

c)

One lead goes to the circuit, the other to ground

d)

Goes between the battery and the first resistor

342.

A resistor has a voltage drop of 18 volts and a current through it of 3 amps. What is its resistance?

a)

54 Ω\Omega

b)

0.167 Ω\Omega

c)

6 Ω\Omega

d)

21 Ω\Omega

343.

A resistor with 10 Ω\Omega has 2 amps flowing through it. How many volts of potential difference?

a)

20 V

b)

5 V

c)

0.2 V

d)

10 V

344.

Which of the following is a unit of power consumption that the electricity utility places on bills to charge customers?

a)

Joule

b)

Amp

c)

Watt

d)

kilowatt ∘ hourkilowatt\ \circ\ hour

345.

Match the following circuits to their pictures

a)
1.

Series Circuit

b)
2.

Parallel Circuit

c)
3.

Short Circuit

d)
4.

Combo Circuit

e)
5.

Open Circuit

346.

What kind of circuit would we find in a cheap strand of holiday lights, if one bulb goes out on the line they ALL go out?

a)

Parallel Circuit

b)

Series Circuit

c)

Simple Circuit

d)

Short Circuit

347.

Which kind of circuit would we find in a household circuit?

a)

Parallel Circuit

b)

Short Circuit

c)

Series Circuit

d)

Complex Circuit

348.

How can you identify a parallel circuit?

a)

It has constant current

b)

Everything is on a common line

c)

It has constant resistance

d)

It has junctions somewhere on the circuit

349.

From this image how could you determine the Resistance that caused this graphical relationship?

a)

y2−y1x2−x1\frac{y_2-y_1}{x_2-x_1}

b)

Determine the y-intercept

c)

runrise\frac{run}{rise}

d)

ΔxΔy\frac{\Delta x}{\Delta y}

350.
A hot water heater rated at 2600 watts is wired to 120 Vac circuit. What is the amperage?
a)
21.67 Ohms
b)
21.67 amps
c)
11.8 amps
d)
16 amps
351.
A heating element resistance is 24 ohms. The current measures 10 Amps. What is the power?
a)
240 watts
b)
1,200 watts
c)
1,000 watts
d)
2,400 watts
352.

If electrical power costs $0.12/kwh, and I use 250 kwh of electrical energy, what will I be charged?

a)

$10

b)

$20

c)

$30

d)

$40

353.

What do electric charges have in common with magnetic poles? Choose all that apply.

a)

These forces can attract and repel without touching.

b)

These forces can only attract.

c)

As the distance of seperation increases the strength of the force decreases.

d)

Electric charges are not similar to magnetic poles.

354.

What is a major difference between electric charges and magnetic poles?

a)

Electric charges can exist on their own.

b)

Magnetic poles can exist on their own.

c)

There are no differences.

355.

What is a magnetic field?

a)

A force field

b)

a magnetic field does not exist

c)

stationary electric charge

356.

What is the source of a magnetic field?

a)

Moving electric charge

b)

Stationary Electric Charge

c)

There is no source.

357.

Why are not all atoms tiny magnets?

a)

Because, the spins must be in the same direction.

b)

Every spinning electron is not a tiny magnet.

c)

Because, the spins must be in opposite direction.

358.

A north pole of the magnet is brought near a south pole

a)

they will repel

b)

they will attract

c)

so? nothing will happen

359.

A magnetic domain is

a)

a cluster of aligned atoms

b)

a singular aligned atom

c)

a cluster of non-aligned atoms

360.

In order to make an electromagnet, you need

a)

a magnet, a nail, some wires

b)

a battery, a nail, and a magnet

c)

a battery, a coil of wire, and a nail

d)

a loop of wire, contacts, and a battery

361.

The source of all magnetism is

a)

tiny pieces of iron

b)

ferromagnetic materials

c)

moving electric charge

d)

stationary charge

362.

How can you destroy a magnet? Choose all that apply.

a)

Drop It

b)

Heat It

c)

Cover it with paper

d)

You can't destroy it

363.

The shape of the magnetic field in a current carrying wire is?

a)

concentric circles

b)

concentric ovals

c)

concentric squares

364.

if you break a bar magnet in half

a)

the poles will seperate

b)

You will have two complete magnets

c)

it becomes unmagnetized

365.

Which pole of the compass needed points to a south pole of a magnet?

a)

South pole

b)

North Pole

c)

Both poles

366.

magnetic fields run from _________ pole to ___________ pole

a)

North, South

b)

South, North

c)

They do not exist

367.

Magnetic domains are..

a)

regions of atoms magnetically aligned

b)

blocks of materials

c)

regions that may or may not be magnetized

d)

cluster of atoms randomly aligned

368.

The reason a magnet can attract an magnetized nails is that

a)

nails become temporarily magnetized in a magnetic field

b)

nails become permanently in a magnetic field

c)

nails really are magnetized

d)

a magnet can attract any metal object

369.

Earth' magnetic field is most likely due to

a)

convection currents in the molten part of Earth's interior

b)

millions of small magnets buried in the Earth

c)

a magnetized solid inner core of Earth

d)

the rotation of Earth acting on all of Earth's electrons

e)

none of the above

370.

If a compass is moved from the Northern Hemisphere to the Southern Hemisphere, its magnetic needle will change direction

a)

by 90 degrees

b)

not at all

c)

by 180 degrees

d)

none of the above

371.

An iron rod becomes magnetic when

a)

its electrons stop moving and point in the same direction

b)

positive ions gather at one end and negative ions at the other end

c)

the magnetic domains of its electrons point in the same direction

d)

positive charges line up on one side and negative charges on the other side

e)

none of the above

372.

If you break a bar magnet in half, each half

a)

becomes a bar magnet with two poles

b)

becomes unmagnetized

c)

contains one magnetic pole

d)

none of the above

373.

Surrounding every moving electron is

a)

a magnetic field

b)

electricity

c)

neutrons

d)

all of the above

374.

A wire carrying a current is bent into a loop. The magnetic field is strongest

a)

at the center of the loop

b)

where the loop is located

c)

at the edges of the loop

375.

If you put a small compass in a magnetic field, the compass will

a)

line up in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field lines

b)

seek electrical charge concentrations

c)

line up in a direction parallel to the magnetic field lines

d)

swing randomly

376.

Which pole of a compass needle points to a south pole of a magnet

a)

south pole

b)

north pole

c)

both A and B

377.

When current passes through a wire, a magnetic field is created around the wire only if the

a)

current makes a complete loop

b)

wire is curved in a loop

c)

wire is absolutely straight

d)

current comes from a battery

e)

A magnetic field is always created around the wire

378.

Magnetic fields are produced by

a)

charges at rest

b)

moving particles

c)

moving particles of Earth

d)

moving charged particles

e)

none of the above

379.
Where is the strongest attraction force of the magnet?
a)
at the poles
b)
in the middle
c)
above the magnet
d)
below the magnet
380.
What will happen when these magnets are brought close together?
a)
They will attract each other.
b)

They will repel each other, spin and align

c)
Both magnets will turn to the left
d)
Both magnets will turn to the right
381.

If the North Pole of a permanent magnet is placed next to a compass as seen in the picture. (Red arrow is a N Pole). Which direction will the needle move?

a)

Right (Repel)

b)

Left (Attract)

c)
It will not move
d)
Need more information
382.

A device that uses a low friction magnetic needle to align to Earth's Magnetic field and show direction is a:

a)
Ruler
b)
magnet
c)
compass
d)
magnetic field
383.
Earth acts like a giant magnet because its center is made up MOSTLY of
a)
granite
b)
limestone
c)
iron
d)
nickel
384.
As the distance between two magnets increases (they get farther apart), the force between them:
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the Same
385.

Which best completes the sentence?

Ferromagnetic material...

a)

a grouping of atoms that have their magnetic fields lined up in the same direction

b)

a visual tool used to represent magnetic fields

c)

the region around a magnet where the magnetic force is exerted

d)

includes iron, nickel, and cobalt which are attracted to magnets.

386.

If this magnet where placed on a raft and alowed to free spin, which direction would the N pole point??

a)

North

b)

South

c)

East

d)

West

387.

Why does a compass needle point north?

a)

The Earth's geographic N pole is magnetic N Pole.

b)

Because the N Pole is attracted to the N pole.

c)

Because The S Pole Repels the N pole.

d)

It aligns with the Earth's magnetic field. Geo N pole is a magnetic S pole.

388.
Magnetic NORTH is actually geographic _________
a)
SOUTH
b)
NORTH
c)
EAST
d)
WEST
389.

Is this material a magnet or just magnetic?

a)

just magnetic

b)

a magnet

c)

both

d)

neither

390.

Which statement below best describes these pictures?

a)

Only A is a magnet

b)

Only C is a magnet

c)

Both A and B are magnets

391.

By sprinkling iron filings in a magnetic field on a flat surface, it is possible to see the __________ of a magnetic field.

a)

shape

b)

distance

c)

mass

d)

temperature

392.

The image above shows how iron filings respond to magnetic fields generated by two magnets with ____________ poles facing each other.

a)

opposite

b)

like

c)

positive

d)

negative

393.

If you cut a magnet in half, what happens to the poles?

a)

One half gets the North Pole, the other half gets the South Pole

b)

The pieces no longer are magnetic.

c)

Both halves will get a South Pole

d)

Both halves will still have a North pole and a South Pole

394.
You know this substance is magnetized because
a)
all the domains have right angles
b)
the arrows are drawn in red
c)
the domains are aligned
d)
the domains are random
395.
This substance is
a)
magnetizecd
b)
unmagnetized
c)
positively charged
d)
negatively charged
396.

What will the magnets in the picture do?

a)

Attract each other

b)

Repel each other

c)

Both attract and repel

d)

Neither attract nor repel

397.

When an iron nail attracts to a magnet, what do its magnetic domains look like?

a)
b)
c)
398.
If you place the North pole of a magnet next to the South pole of another magnet, they will:
a)
Attract
b)
Repel
c)
Do nothing
d)
Shatter
399.
Materials that can be turned into a magnet are called _____.  These include iron, nickel, cobalt, or mixtures of these materials.
a)
domains
b)
rocks
c)
ferromagnets
d)
solids
400.

The picture is an example of an:

a)

Electric generator

b)

Electromagnet

c)

Electric nail

d)

Electric power cell

401.

The area of magnetic force around a magnet is known as its _____________.

a)

magnetic field

b)

magnetic declination

c)

magnetic fan lines

d)

magnetic tan lines

402.

The microscopic regions in a strongly magnetic material that have all the atoms' magnetic fields line up are called ---.

a)

electrolytes

b)

nodes

c)

orbitals

d)

domains

e)

poles

403.

If a current is running through a straight wire, where is the magnetic field created by that current strongest?

a)

Close to the wire

b)

Far from the wire

c)

Where the wire is connected to the battery

d)

Everywhere has the same magnetic field

404.

An electric motor is connected to a battery. Which of the following will not make the motor output more kinetic energy?

a)

Stronger magnetic field from the permanent magnets

b)

More loops of wire in the spinning coil

c)

Higher voltage for the battery

d)

Lower resistance in the coil

e)

Pulling the spinning coil away from the permanent magnets

405.

What energy transformation takes place in an electric fan's motor?

a)

electrical energy into kinetic mechanical energy

b)

kinetic mechanical energy into electrical energy

c)

alternating current to direct current

d)

electrical energy to electric power

406.

Making an electromagnet stronger would not involve which of the following?

a)

More current in the wire

b)

Making the loops wider

c)

Packing the loops tighter together

d)

Having more loops

407.

What effect will changing the number of loops in the coil from 4 loops to 2 loops have when using the coil to induce current with the bar magnet, as shown?

a)

The voltage will double, the current will be cut in half

b)

The voltage will be cut in half, the current will be cut in half

c)

The voltage will double, the current will double

d)

There will be no effect

408.
Passing a current through a solenoid will produce
a)
a magnetic field
b)
an electric field
c)
a current field
d)
nothing is produced
409.

In order to magnetize an object for electromagnetism, it needs to have iron or steel (ex. a rod or nail).

a)

True

b)

False

410.

Electromagnets can be turned on and off.

a)

True

b)

False

411.

Electric currents produce _____________

a)

electron clouds

b)

magnetic fields

c)

sound waves

412.

How can the strength of an electromagnet be increased? (mark all that apply)

a)

increase the current flowing through the coil

b)

increase the number of coils

c)

add an amplifier to it

d)

put iron core inside the coil

413.
Surrounding every magnet is a __________  __________.
a)
magnetic field
b)
electrical current
c)
another magnet
d)
an enemy
414.
If a substance has a higher number of electrons than protons on its surface, what type of charge does it have?
a)
A positive charge.
b)
A negative charge.
c)
A neutral charge
d)
No charge at all
415.
Which is NOT an insulator.
a)
Wool
b)
Plastic
c)
Copper
d)
Glass
416.
What is the difference between a conductor and an insulator?
a)
An insulator allows electricity to flow through it easily and a conductor does not
b)
A conductor allows electricity to flow through it easily and an insulator does not.
c)
An insulator is magnetic and a conductor is not
d)
A conductor is magnetic and an insulator is not
417.

An electric motor uses an electric current to turn a(n)

a)

pointer

b)

brush

c)

axle

d)

wheel

418.

A galvanometer uses an electric current to turn a(n)

a)

pointer

b)

brush

c)

axle

d)

wheel

419.

A galvanometer is used to measure small ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
currents.
magnetic fields.
420.

An electric motor transforms ​ (a)   energy into ​ (b)   energy.

Choose from the below words
electrical
mechanical
421.

What is one difference between a galvanometer and an electric motor?

a)

An electric motor causes something to move.

b)

A galvanometer uses an electric current.

c)

In an electric motor, the armature spins continuously.

d)

An electric motor uses electrical energy.

422.

According to the diagram, which way will the wire move in the magnetic field?

a)

up

b)

down

c)

left

d)

right

423.

If the current in this picture was reversed, which way would the wire move?

a)

up

b)

down

c)

left

d)

right

424.

Choose 2 ways of causing the loop to rotate in the opposite direction.

a)

reverse the current

b)

turn off the current

c)

reverse the magnetic field

d)

turn off the magnetic field

425.

What common electrical device is shown in this diagram?

a)

electric motor

b)

electric generator

c)

electromagnet

d)

galvanometer

426.

Label the parts of an electric motor.

a)

Commutator

b)

Armature

c)

Permanent Magnet

d)

Brushes

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
427.

A(n) ___ converts electricity into magnetism.

a)

electric transformer

b)

electric generator

c)

electromagnet

d)

electric motor

428.

A(n) ___ converts magnetism into electricity.

a)

electric transformer

b)

electric generator

c)

electromagnet

d)

electric motor

429.

A(n) ___ converts electricity into magnetism, and back to electricity.

a)

electric transformer

b)

electric generator

c)

electromagnet

d)

electric motor

430.

Electric charges must ___ in order to create an observable magnetic field.

a)

exist

b)

be moving

c)

be stationary

d)

disappear

431.

Which of the following will increase the strength of an electromagnet?

a)

Use a Bigger Battery (More Current)

b)

Wrap More Coils

c)

Insert an Iron Core

d)

Use a Bigger Magnet

432.

A(n) ___ electric current will create a changing magnetic field.

a)

existing

b)

direct

c)

alternating

d)

stable

433.

The ___ coils a wire has the ___ current is able to be generated.

a)

more; more

b)

less; more

c)

more; less

d)

less; less

434.
Which of the following electrical generators does NOT involving spinning?
a)
Coal
b)
Nuclear
c)
Tidal
d)
Solar panels
435.
What is the best energy chain for coal fired power plants
a)
chemical -> kinetic -> electrical
b)
kinetic -> electrical
c)
electrical -> chemical -> heat
d)
kinetic -> chemical -> electrical
436.
Which is the best energy chain for nuclear power plants?
a)
Thermal -> kinetic -> electrical
b)
light -> kinetic -> thermal
c)
thermal -> electrical
d)
light -> kinetic -> electrical
437.
Which electrical generator has this energy chain?
kinetic -> electrical
a)
wind
b)
natural gas
c)
nuclear
d)
solar panel
438.
What does coal, natural gas and diesel have in common that nuclear is lacking?
a)
They all involve burning.
b)
They all start with a hot material.
c)
There is spinning involved.
d)
They are all renewable resources.
439.
What energy source has this energy chain?
light-> electricity
a)
geothermal
b)
solar panel
c)
nuclear
d)
tidal
440.
What is the energy of something actually falling?
a)
gravitational kinetic energy
b)
gravitational potential energy
c)
kinetic
d)
chemical
441.
What energy type powers a wind turbine?
a)
kinetic
b)
elastic
c)
electrical
d)
solar
442.

The function of a transformer is to ...

a)

raise and lower the apparent power levels

b)

transfer DC voltage from the primary winding to the secondary winding

c)

increase or decrease A.C voltage or A.C current levels

d)

transform mechanical energy into electrical energy

443.

A step up transformer has its primary winding to secondary winding ratio

a)

Greater than 1

b)

Equal to 1

c)

Less than 1

d)

Unknown

444.

Assume primary has 240 turns and secondary has 60 turns. Primary is connected with 120V AC power supply. What is the voltage on the secondary?

a)

30 V

b)

0.333 V

c)

2 V

d)

120V

445.
Ratio of voltages is equal to ratio of
a)
iron sheets in core
b)
coil
c)
number of turns in coil
d)
all of above
446.
This picture is an example of a ___________
a)
Step- Up Transformer
b)
Step- Down Transformer
c)
Motor
d)
Generator
447.

For increasing the voltage ___________ is used.

a)

Step up transformer

b)

Step down transformer

c)

Current transformer

448.

A transformer has primary voltage 200V and secondary voltage 100V , the transformer is called _______ .

a)

Step up

b)

Step Down

c)

None

449.

Transformer transforms _________ from primary to secondary.

a)

Only Current

b)

Only Voltage

c)

Both Voltage and Current

450.

The winding of wire around a core which is connected to a source of energy is called the ....... coil.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

451.

Calculate potential difference in the secondary coil based on the information given below.


Vp = 240 V

Np = 20

Ns = 125

Vs ?

a)

1500

b)

500

c)

1000

d)

2000

452.

Why transformers work with A.C. current but not D.C.

a)

A.C current produces changing magnetic field.

b)

D.C current produces changing magnetic field.

c)

D.C current is weak

d)

A.C current is powerful

453.

A transformer has 100 turns in the primary coil and 25 turns in the secondary coil. When a 120 V is applied to the primary coil, what is the voltage in the secondary coil?

a)

480V

b)

30V

c)

20V

d)

450V

454.

Waves transfer _______.

a)

particles

b)

matter

c)

energy

455.

_____ waves have vibrations that run parallel to the direction the wave travels, and _____ waves have vibrations that run perpendicular to the direction the wave travels.

a)

transverse, longitudinal

b)

longitudinal, transverse

456.

Examples of this type of waves include water waves, waves on a string/jump rope, and light waves.

a)

transverse

b)

longitudinal

457.

Examples of _____ waves include sound waves and earthquake P-waves.

a)

transverse

b)

longitudinal

458.

_______ is the distance between waves, measured from one crest to the next crest.

a)

Wavelength

b)

Frequency

c)

Amplitude

459.

The _______ is the highest point on a transverse wave, and the ____ is the lowest point.

a)

Trough, Crest

b)

Crest, Trough

c)

Compression, Rarefaction

d)

Rarefaction, Compression

460.

The _______ is the size or height of a wave, measured from the equilibrium to the crest or trough.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Frequency

461.

The _______ is the size or height of a wave, measured from the equilibrium to the crest or trough.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Frequency

462.

The _______ of a wave is how many waves pass a given point every second.

a)

Frequency

b)

Wavelength

c)

Amplitude

463.

Frequency is measured in _______.

a)

Hertz (Hz)

b)

Meters per second

c)

Meters

d)

Newtons

464.

Frequency is how many waves pass a point in 1 second. If 100 waves pass a given point in 4 seconds, what is the wave's frequency?

a)

25 Hz

b)

100 Hz

c)

4 Hz

d)

400 Hz

465.

Frequency is how many waves pass a point in 1 second. If 100 waves pass a given point in 4 seconds, what is the wave's frequency?

a)

25 Hz

b)

100 Hz

c)

4 Hz

d)

400 Hz

466.

In a longitudinal wave, a ____ is an area where the particles are spread apart and a ____ is an area where the particles are close together.

a)

crest, trough

b)

compression, rarefaction

c)

rarefaction, compression

d)

trough, crest

467.

Examples of ________ waves include visible light, xrays, ultraviolet, and radio waves.

a)

transverse

b)

longitudinal

468.

Waves that can travel through empty space are called _____ waves. Waves that require a medium to travel, such as air or water, are called _____ waves.

a)

mechanical, electromagnetic

b)

electromagnetic, mechanical

c)

crest, trough

d)

compressional, rarefactional

469.

In the diagram of a compressional wave, A is showing a ___ while B is showing a ___.

a)

compression, rarefaction

b)

trough, crest

c)

rarefaction, compression

d)

crest, trough

470.

In this diagram of a transverse wave, A is showing the wave's _____ and B is showing the wave's _____.

a)

amplitude, trough

b)

amplitude, crest

c)

wavelength, trough

d)

wavelength, crest

471.

In this diagram of a transverse wave, C is showing the wave's _____ and D is showing the wave's _____.

a)

crest, amplitude

b)

trough, amplitude

c)

crest, wavelength

d)

trough, wavelength

472.
7. Which of the following occurs as the frequency of a wave decreases?
a)
A. The wavelength increases
b)
B. The wavelength decreases
c)
C. The wavelength increases and then decreases
d)
D. The wavelength remains the same
473.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)

1

b)

2`

c)

3

d)

4

474.

What types of waves carry energy at a right angle or perpendicular to the direction of the energy flow? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Longitudinal waves
Transverse waves
Sound waves
P-waves
475.

 A wave has frequency of 50 Hz and a wavelength of 10 m. What is the speed of the wave? (a)  

Choose from the below words
500 m/s
50 m/s
5 m/s
0.5 m/s
476.

In this diagram of a transverse wave, C is showing the wave's _____ and D is showing the wave's _____.

a)

crest, amplitude

b)

trough, amplitude

c)

crest, wavelength

d)

trough, wavelength

477.
7. Which of the following occurs as the frequency of a wave decreases?
a)
A. The wavelength increases
b)
B. The wavelength decreases
c)
C. The wavelength increases and then decreases
d)
D. The wavelength remains the same
478.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)

1

b)

2`

c)

3

d)

4

479.

What types of waves carry energy at a right angle or perpendicular to the direction of the energy flow? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Longitudinal waves
Transverse waves
Sound waves
P-waves
480.

 A wave has frequency of 50 Hz and a wavelength of 10 m. What is the speed of the wave? (a)  

Choose from the below words
500 m/s
50 m/s
5 m/s
0.5 m/s
481.

A wave with a wavelength of 2 cm has a frequency of 3 Hz. What is the wave speed?

a)

1.5 m/s

b)

2 m/s

c)

5 m/s

d)

6 m/s

482.
Which electromagnetic waves help doctors detect broken bones inside your body?
a)
gamma rays
b)
x-rays
c)
ultraviolet rays
483.

  1. We classify sound as a mechanical wave because it requires a medium to travel through. We can also classify sound waves based on how they move through the air. Sound waves vibrate ​​ (a)  

To their direction of travel making them ​ (b)   ​ waves.


​ ​

Choose from the below words
Parallel
Perpendicular
Longitudinal
Transverse
Right Angles
484.
What is causing you to be able to see two sets of mountains in this picture? 
a)
refraction of light
b)
reflection of light
c)
transmission of light
d)
absorption of light
485.
The black rectangles represent light waves.  What is happening to them as they move from left to right? 
a)
They are being reflected. 
b)
They are being refracted.
c)
They are being transmitted.
d)
They are being absorbed.
486.
Light waves are hitting an object (that black horizontal line).  What is happening to those light waves? 
a)
They are being reflected.
b)
They are being refracted.
c)
They are being transmitted.
d)
They are being absorbed. 
487.
What word could you use to describe the fish bowl? 
a)
transparent
b)
translucent
c)
opaque
488.
What kind of object is represented by the black horizontal line? 
a)
transparent
b)
translucent
c)
opaque
489.
Hey!  That straw looks broken.  Why?
a)
reflection
b)
refraction
c)
transmission
d)
absorption
490.
Two waves come together and interact to form a new, smaller wave.  This process is called
a)
destructive interference
b)
constructive interference
c)
reflective interference
d)
positive interference
491.
a)

absorption

b)

diffraction

c)

reflection

d)

refraction

e)

transmission

492.
a)

absorption

b)

diffraction

c)

reflection

d)

refraction

e)

transmission

493.
What is a medium?
a)
something between a small and a large?
b)
the substance through which a wave can travel
c)
a pattern of vibration that simulates when a wave is standing still
d)
the distance from any point on a wave to an identical point on the next wave
494.
What type of wave behavior is pictured above?
a)
Refraction
b)
Reflection
c)
Absorption
d)
Diffraction
495.

What is the definition reflection?

a)

The bending of waves as they enter a new medium

b)

Bouncing back of waves from a surface that it can’t pass through

c)

The bending of waves as they pass through openings or around corners

d)

When two interfering waves have a displacement in the same direction, two crests and two troughs overlap. Increased amplitude.

496.

The image depicts which of the following wave behaviors?

a)

Resonance

b)

Doppler Effect

c)

Interference

d)

Polarization

497.

The two blue and purple waves will undergo _________________ when they meet.

a)

Constructive interference

b)

Destructive interference

498.

The image of the two waves depicts

a)

Constructive interference

b)

Destructive interference

499.

Two waves that undergo constructive interference must be...

a)

In phase

b)

Out of phase

500.

Two waves that undergo destructive interference must be...

a)

In phase

b)

Out of phase

501.

Light waves and sound waves are similar in that...

a)

They are both longitudinal waves

b)

They are both transverse waves

c)

They both transmit energy

d)

They both can travel through space.

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