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A2 Physics Mega Quiz

Total questions: 498

Worksheet time: 11hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which represents the acceleration of the ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
2.
Which statement is true about an object that is traveling in uniform circular motion?
a)
The speed of the object varies.
b)
The net force on the object is directed toward the center of the circular path.
c)
The direction of the object's velocity is constant.
d)
The net force on the object is directed away from the center of the circular path.
3.
Centripetal acceleration always points
a)
in the direction of the object's motion
b)
in the opposite direction of the object's motion
c)
towards the center of the circle
d)
towards the outside of the circle
4.
You swing a bucket of water attached to a string in a circle above your head. What keeps the water in the bucket?
a)
Friction
b)
Centripetal Force
c)
Gravity
d)
Inertia
5.

Centrifugal force is a ______

a)

force that pushes you to the outside of a circle during uniform circular motion.

b)

fictitious force that is really just the linear motion of an object in uniform circular motion.

c)

The force that keeps the planets in orbit

6.

What is the velocity formula for uniform circular motion?

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.
Centripetal acceleration is ...
a)
Acceleration toward the center of a curved or circular path
b)
Acceleration toward the outside of a circle
c)
Vertical motion instead of horizontal motion
8.
Is it possible for an object moving with a constant speed to accelerate?  Explain. 
A) No, if the speed is constant then the acceleration is equal to zero.  B) No, an object can accelerate only if there is a net force acting on it.  
C) Yes, although the speed is constant, the direction of the velocity can be changing.  
D) Yes, if an object is moving it can experience acceleration 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
9.
An object moves in a circular path at a constant speed.  Compare the direction of the object's velocity and acceleration vectors.    
A) Both vectors point in the same direction.  
B) The vectors point in opposite directions.  
C) The vectors are perpendicular.  
D) The question is meaningless, since the acceleration is zero
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
10.
When an object experiences uniform circular motion, the direction of the acceleration is     
A) in the same direction as the velocity vector.  
B) in the opposite direction of the velocity vector.  
C) is directed toward the center of the circular path.   D) is directed away from the center of the circular path. 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
11.
When an object experiences uniform circular motion, the direction of the net force is      A) in the same direction as the motion of the object.  
B) in the opposite direction of the motion of the object.  
C) is directed toward the center of the circular path.   D) is directed away from the center of the circular path. 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
12.

Which law determines the direction of an object's velocity as it is moving in uniform circular motion?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

The Universal Law of Gravitation

13.

Which law determines the direction of an object's acceleration as it is moving in uniform circular motion?

a)

Newton's First Law

b)

Newton's Second Law

c)

Newton's Third Law

d)

The Universal Law of Gravitation

14.

The term centripetal means

a)

circular motion

b)

center accepting

c)

center seeking

d)

center fleeing

15.

The term centrifugal means

a)

circular motion

b)

center accepting

c)

center seeking

d)

center fleeing

16.

A 10kg car travels at a constant speed of 20.0 m/s around a horizontal circular track. Which diagram correctly represent the direction of the car's velocity (v) and the direction of the centripetal force (Fc) acting on the car at a particular moment?

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.

Identify the force that determines the centripetal force as a car is turning a corner.

a)

Friction Force

b)

Tension Force

c)

Normal Force

d)

Centripetal Force

18.
Calculate the velocity of an object moved around a circle with a radius of 1.65 m and an acceleration of 3.5 m/s2.
a)
2.4 m/s
b)
3.6 m/s
c)
3.9 m/s
d)
4.2 m/s
19.
Which of the following depict the speed of the blowing ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
20.
Calculate the centripetal force required to make a 5 kg ball move 4 m/s in a circle with a radius of 2 m.
a)
10 N
b)
20 N
c)
30 N
d)
40  N
21.
Bruno the bat flies at a speed of 0.5 m/s in circle of radius 1 m. What is his acceleration?
a)
0.25 ms-2
b)
0.5 ms-2
c)
1 ms-2
d)
2 ms-2
22.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
23.
Calculate the centripetal force required to make a 5 kg ball move 4 m/s in a circle with a radius of 2 m.
a)
10 N
b)
20 N
c)
30 N
d)
40  N
24.
What is the force that causes centripetal acceleration when a car goes around a curve?
a)
Friction
b)
Gravity 
c)
Normal
d)
Tension
25.
What is the velocity of the car?
a)
4.4 m/s
b)
27.9 m/s
c)
37.6 m/s
d)
89 m/s
26.
You are moving a ball in a circle using 72 N of centripetal force. What would the force be if you doubled the radius of the circle.
a)
18 N
b)
36 N 
c)
72 N
d)
144 N
27.
A test car moves at a constant speed around a circular track.  If the car is 48.2 m from the track's center and has a centripetal acceleration of 8.05 m/s2, what is the car's tangential speed?
a)
19.7 m/s
b)
5.99 m/s
c)
0.17 m/s
d)
388.01 m/s
28.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
29.

A tennis ball on a string is spun clockwise around a circle. After the string breaks, which path will the tennis ball follow?

a)

Path I

b)

Path II

c)

Path III

d)

Path IV

30.

•A student on an amusement park ride moves in a circular path with a radius 3.5 m once every 8.9s. The student moves at an average speed of

a)

0.39 m/s

b)

1.2 m/s

c)

2.5 m/s

d)

4.3 m/s

31.

Is the centrifugal force a real force acting on your body in the gravitron?

a)

Yes, you are pushed outwards from the center

b)

No, it just feels like you are being pushed out, but no force is actually pushing you outwards

c)

Maybe...

d)

Bigfoot is always the answer

32.

A body, B, is moving at constant speed in a horizontal circular path around point P. Which diagram shows the direction of the velocity (v) and the direction of the centripetal force (Fc) acting on the body?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

33.

•What is the centripetal acceleration of a toy ball on the end of a 1.44 meter long string if it is moving at 12 meters per second?

a)

0.12 m/s^2

b)

8.33 m/s^2

c)

0.173 m/s^2

d)

100 m/s^2

34.

•What is the centripetal acceleration acting on a 2000 kilogram airplane if it turns with a radius of 1000 meters while moving at 300 meters per second?

a)

180,000 m/s^2

b)

0.3 m/s^2

c)

90 m/s^2

d)

600 m/s^2

35.

•What is the centripetal force acting on a 2000 kilogram airplane if it turns with a radius of 1000 meters while moving at 300 meters per second?

a)

90000N

b)

600N

c)

1.8x105N1.8x10^5N  

d)

1.77x106N1.77x10^6N  

36.
A particle P is moving in a circle with uniform speed. Which one of the following diagrams correctly shows the direction of the acceleration a and velocity v of the particle at one instant of time?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
37.
The velocity is always _____ to the line of a circle. 
a)
outwards
b)
towards the center
c)
tangent
d)
faster
38.
Which statement is true about an object that is traveling in uniform circular motion?
a)
The speed of the object varies.
b)
The net force on the object is directed toward the center of the circular path.
c)
The direction of the object's velocity is constant.
d)
The net force on the object is directed away from the center of the circular path.
39.
Centripetal acceleration always points
a)

in the direction of the object's motion

b)

in the opposite direction of the object's motion

c)

towards the center of the circle

d)

towards the outside of the circle

40.

r3T2 = \frac{r^3}{T^2}\ =\ constant, is known as which law?

a)

Newton's law of gravitation

b)

Kepler's first law

c)

Kepler's second law

d)

Kepler's third law

41.

In Fields, The constant of proportionality, G, is called the

a)

gravitational field strength

b)

universal constant of gravitation

c)

Gibb's free energy

d)

acceleration due to gravity

42.

The units of G are

a)

N m2 kg2N\ m^{2\ }kg^2

b)

N m−2 kg−2N\ m^{-2\ }kg^{-2}

c)

N m2 kg−2N\ m^{2\ }kg^{-2}

d)

N m−2 kg2N\ m^{-2\ }kg^2

43.

Newton's Law of Gravitation assumes the masses are point masses. This means that the masses have zero (a)  

44.

The value of G is

a)

6.67x10−116.67x10^{-11}

b)

6.67x10116.67x10^{11}

c)

6.67x10−16.67x10^{-1}

d)

6.67x1016.67x10^1

45.

True or false:

m s−2 = N kg−1m\ s^{-2}\ =\ N\ kg^{-1}  

a)

True

b)

False

46.

True or false:

You and the Earth exert an equal magnitude gravitational force on each other.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

The path which a small mass would follow towards a large mass is called the line of force or (a)  

48.

The symbol for gravitational field strength is

a)

GF

b)

gfs

c)

g

d)

G

49.

The unit for gravitational field strength is

a)

N s−2N\ s^{-2}

b)

N kg−1N\ kg^{-1}

c)

m s−2m\ s^{-2}

d)

N kgN\ kg

50.

Which definition is correct?

a)

Gravitational potential energy is the energy of an object due to its position in a gravitational field.

b)

Gravitational potential energy is the energy of an object due to its position in a magnetic field.

c)

Gravitational potential energy is the energy of an object due to its position in a field.

d)

Gravitational potential energy is the acceleration of an object due to its position in a gravitational field.

51.

The gravitational potential energy is zero at

a)

just above the surface

b)

the surface

c)

infinity

d)

just before infinity

52.

The gravitational potential, V, at a point is the work done to move a small object from (a)   to that point

53.

Surfaces of constant potential are called

(a)  

54.

True or false:

g = GMrg\ =\ \frac{GM}{r}  

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Which equation shows the gravitational potential, V?

a)

V = − G Mr2V\ =\ -\ \frac{G\ M}{r^2}

b)

V = − G MrV\ =\ -\ \frac{G\ M}{r}

c)

V = G Mr2V\ =\ \frac{G\ M}{r^2}

d)

V =  G MrV\ =\ \ \frac{G\ M}{r}

56.

The radius of the Earth is 6400 km
The mass of the Earth is 6 x 102410^{24}  kg

G = 6.67 x  10−1110^{-11}  N  m2 kg−2m^2\ kg^{-2}  


Which is the correct approximation for the escape velocity of the Earth?

a)

12.0  km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

b)

11.5  km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

c)

11.2   km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

d)

10.8  km s−1km\ s^{-1}  

57.

What is the time period of a geostationary satellite?

a)

24 h

b)

12 h

c)

0 h

d)

6 h

58.

Two isolated masses m1 and m2 are separated by a distance r. Which expression gives the gravitational field strength caused by m1 at m2?

a)

G m1m2 / r

b)

G m1 m2 / r2

c)

G m1 / r2

d)

G m2 / r2

59.

What is numerically equal to the gravitational field strength at a point P on the Earth's surface?

a)

the acceleration of free fall at P.

b)

the change in potential energy per unit distance from P.

c)

the force acting on any body placed at P.

d)

the work done in bringing unit mass from infinity to P.

60.

Which statement about a uniform gravitational field is true?

a)

Its magnitude is the same in all directions.

b)

The gravitational potential has the same value at all points within it.

c)

Its direction is opposite to the direction of motion of a test mass released in it.

d)

Its field strength is the same at all points within it.

61.

At the Earth's surface, the gravitational field strength is about lO N kg-1. At a point outside the Earth and a distance x from its centre, the field strength is about 5 N kg-1. Which expression gives an approximate value for the radius of the Earth?

a)

x/5

b)

x / 2 √2

c)

x / 2

d)

x / √2

62.
An object is moved from A to B in the gravitational field of Earth. The distance between the centre of Earth and B is twice that of A. If the gravitational potential energy of the object at A is –2.0 MJ, what is the gravitational potential energy of the object at B?
a)
zero
b)
-0.5MJ
c)
-1.0MJ
d)
-4.0MJ
63.
Gravitational potential at a point is....
a)
the work done in bringing a unit mass from infinity to the point
b)
the work done in bringing a unit mass from the point to infinity
c)
the work done in bringing a unit charge from infinity to the point
d)
the work done in bringing a unit mass from twice the radius of the mass to the point
64.
Gravitational field strength is measured in:
a)
N
b)
J/kg
c)
m/s
d)
N/kg
65.

The gravitational potential energy is zero at

a)

just above the surface

b)

the surface

c)

infinity

d)

just before infinity

66.

Which equation shows the gravitational potential, V?

a)

V = − G Mr2V\ =\ -\ \frac{G\ M}{r^2}

b)

V = − G MrV\ =\ -\ \frac{G\ M}{r}

c)

V = G Mr2V\ =\ \frac{G\ M}{r^2}

d)

V =  G MrV\ =\ \ \frac{G\ M}{r}

67.

Consider a body of mass m which needs to be moved from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R. What is the energy required

a)

GMm/R

b)

GMm/R2

c)

GMm/6R2

d)

GMm/6R

68.

At the Earth's surface, the gravitational field strength is about lO N kg-1. At a point outside the Earth and a distance x from its centre, the field strength is about 5 N kg-1. Which expression gives an approximate value for the radius of the Earth?

a)

x/5

b)

x / 2 √2

c)

x / 2

d)

x / √2

69.

Gravitational potential energy, 𝑈 stored in a test mass 𝑚 placed at a distance 𝑟 from the center of planet 𝑀 is defined as the ____________ by gravitational force in bringing a test mass from infinity to that point.

a)

energy

b)

power

c)

velocity

d)

work done

70.

Gravitational PE= (a)   x mass

71.

Which equation represents general gravitational potential energy?

a)

Eg = GMm/r2

b)

Eg = -GMm/r2

c)

Eg = GMm/r

d)

Eg = -GMm/r

72.

As the distance between an object and Earth increases,

a)

the gravitational constant G increases

b)

the gravitational constant G decreases

c)

the gravitational potential energy relative to Earth approaches infinity

d)

the gravitational potential energy relative to Earth approaches zero

73.

Planet N has a gravitational potential –V at its surface. Planet M has double the density and double the radius of planet N. Both planets are spherical and have uniform density.


What is the gravitational potential at the surface of planet M?

a)

–16V

b)

–8V

c)

–4V

d)

–0.2V

74.

X and Y are two stars of equal mass M. The distance between their centres is d.


What is the gravitational potential at the mid-point P between them?

a)
b)
c)
d)
75.

Which one of the following could be a unit of gravitational potential?

a)

N

b)

J

c)

N kg–1

d)

J kg–1

76.

Mars has a diameter approximately 0.5 that of the Earth, and a mass of 0.1 that of the Earth.

The gravitational potential at the Earth’s surface is −63 MJ kg–1.

What is the approximate value of the gravitational potential at the surface of Mars?

a)

−13 MJ kg–1

b)

−25 MJ kg–1

c)

−95 MJ kg–1

d)

−320 MJ kg–1

77.

For an ideal gas several assumptions are made about the particles including

a)

they collide elastically with each other and the container wall

b)

they experience significant intermolecular forces

c)

the volume they occupy as individual particles is insignificant compared to the volume of the container

d)

there are a very large number of particles inside the container

78.

An ideal gas has a density of 2.0 kgm-3 at a pressure of 2.2 x 105 Pa and a temperature of 295 K. Calculate the mean square speed of the gas atoms.

a)

330 kms-1

b)

110 000 ms-1

c)

373 ms-1

d)

19 ms-1

79.

In the equation of state for an ideal gas pV = nRT

a)

n = number of particles in the gas

b)

p = pressure of the gas

c)

R = the molar gas constant 8.31 JK-1mol-1

d)

T = temperature in degrees celcius

80.

This is the

a)

root mean square speed

b)

mean square speed

c)

mean square root speed

d)

squared root mean speed

81.

Rewriting the equation of state gives : pV = NkT

where:

a)

N = the number of moles x 6.022 x 1023

b)

V = volume occupied by the gas

c)

T = temperature in degrees celsius

d)

k = 1.38 x 10-2 JK-1

82.

Given the equation Ek = 3/2 kT, calculate the temperature of Helium atoms that are able to leave the atmosphere with a speed of 1.1 x 104ms-1. The mass of an individual Helium atom is 6.6 x 10-27kg. (k = 1.38x10-23)

a)

1.9 x 104 K

b)

1.9 x 103 o C

c)

1.5 x 102 K

d)

200 K

83.

The mean square speed of atoms of Neon gas at 273 K with density 0.900 kgm-3 is 3.4 x 105 ms-1. Calculate the r.m.s. of the same gas at 546 K.

a)

820 ms-1

b)

680 000 ms-1

c)

240 ms-1

d)

340 000 ms-1

84.

For an ideal gas at constant temperature and density ρ what effect would doubling the density have on the mean square speed?

a)

none

b)

mean square speed would double

c)

mean square speed would halve

d)

mean square speed would quadruple

85.

For an ideal gas at constant temperature and pressure p at volume V, what affect would halving the pressure have on the volume?

a)

volume would double

b)

volume would halve

c)

volume would triple

d)

none

86.

For an ideal gas trapped inside a container of fixed volume, which of these statements is true?

a)

all particles are moving rapidly and randomly

b)

particles exchange momentum with the wall over very short time frames

c)

all particles are moving idly and haphazardly

d)

the particle volume accounts for most of the space in the container

87.

Select all true statements

a)

nR = Nk

b)

NA = 6.022 x 1023

c)

k = R/NA

d)

3/2RT = NAEk

88.

An ideal gas has a density of 2.0 kgm-3 at a pressure of 2.2 x 105 Pa and a temperature of 295 K. Calculate the root-mean-square speed of the gas atoms.

a)

570 ms-1

b)

110 000 ms-1

c)

373 ms-1

d)

19 ms-1

89.

Which of the following is the ideal gas equation?

a)

pV = nRT

b)

pT = nRV

c)

pR = nRV

d)

pn = VRT

90.

How many atoms are there in a mole of helium gas?

a)

6.02 × 1013

b)

6.02 × 1023

c)

1.20 × 1014

d)

1.20 × 1024

91.

Which assumptions are made in the kinetic theory of gases?

a)

No forces between molecules.

b)

Volume of molecules is negligible.

c)

Molecules move in sync all the time.

d)

Molecules collide inelastically with each other.

92.

A bar of gold has a mass of 1.00 kg. Calculate the number of moles of gold in the bar. (Relative atomic mass of gold = 197.)

a)

1.97 × 10−3 mol

b)

0.197 mol

c)

5.08 mol

d)

5.08 × 10−3 mol

93.

In the equation
pV=13Nm<c2>pV=\frac{1}{3}Nm<c^2>

what is the origin of the factor 13\frac{1}{3}  ?

a)

molecules move in 1-dimensional space

b)

molecules move in 2-dimensional space

c)

molecules move in 3-dimensional space

d)

molecules move in 4-dimensional space

94.

What is the graph we'll get if we plot mean kinetic energy EkE_k of a molecule of an ideal gas against thermodynamic temperature TT ?

a)

straight line with positive gradient

b)

straight line with negative gradient

c)

quadratic curve

d)

circle

95.

The following gases are at the same temperature. Which molecule will have the slowest r.m.s. speed?

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

helium

96.

A bar of gold has a mass of 1.00 kg. Calculate the number of atoms of gold in the bar. (Relative atomic mass of gold = 197.)

a)

3.1 × 1024

b)

3.06 × 1024

c)

5.08 × 1023

d)

3.08 × 1022

97.

All of the following are properties of ideal gases except:

a)

Small amounts of energy are lost during collisions between gas molecules

b)

Volume occupied by molecules is negligible compared to the volume occupied by the gas

c)

Gas molecules do not interact with each other except during collisions

d)

Gas molecules do not interact with each other except during collisions

98.

How many diagrams showing relationships between pressure, volume, and temperature below is/are incorrect for ideal gases?

a)

None

b)

Only one

c)

Only two

d)

Only Three

99.

At a given temperature T and pressure P, a person's lung holds a set volume of V of air. Given that air is roughly 20% oxygen, how many moles of oxygen are in his lungs?

a)

0.2*(PT/RV)

b)

5*(PT/RV)

c)

0.2*(PV/RT)

d)

5*(PV/RT)

100.

Gases found in the environment are most likely to exhibit properties similar to that of ideal gases under conditions of:

a)

low temperatures and high pressures

b)

high temperatures and high pressures

c)

high temperatures and low pressures

d)

low temperatures and low pressures

101.

Assume an experiment vessel which is well fitted with a piston. The airtight piston has negligible mass and can move up and down freely. There is 1 mol of an ideal gas contained within the vessel under the piston at pressure of 100 kPa. The piston rests at 10 cm from the base of the vessel. The pressure in the vessel increases to 200 kPa as force is applied to the piston. What would be the new resting position of the piston from the base of the vessel? Assume the temperature is held constant at 300 K throughout the experiment.

a)

5 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

1 cm

d)

8 cm

102.

The behavior of which of these real gases will be reflected most closely with the ideal gas law?

a)

CO2

​

b)

Ar

c)

CH4

​

d)

He

103.

Assuming ideal gas properties, which of the following occupies the most volume at 273 K and 1 atm of pressure?

a)

One mole of hydrogen gas

b)

They all occupy the same volume

c)

One mole of oxygen gas

d)

One mole of nitrogen gas

104.

Atmospheric air is comprised, roughly, of 80% nitrogen and 20% oxygen. A 100 L sample of atmospheric air is kept at 300 K and 100 kPa. How many moles of oxygen molecules are found in this gas sample? Use R = 10 (L kPa)/(mol K)

a)

4/5

b)

2/3

c)

3/2

d)

1/5

105.

Process B on the PV diagram is an ______________ process.

a)

adiabatic

b)

isobaric

c)

isochoric

d)

isothermal

106.

which of the following laws is applicable for the behaviour of perfect gas...

a)

Boyle's law

b)

Charle's Law

c)

Gas Lussac law

d)

All of the above

107.

A thermodynamic system where no exchange of heat takes place between system and surrounding is...

a)

Isothermal process

b)

Adiabatic process

c)

Isobaric process

d)

Isochoric process

108.

dQ=dU+dW refers to which law of Thermodynamic?

(a)  

109.
What does the "U" stand for the formula ∆U = Q + W
a)
Heat
b)
Temperature
c)
Work
d)
Internal energy
110.

A thermodynamic system where no exchange of heat takes place between system and surrounding is...

a)

Isothermal process

b)

Adiabatic process

c)

Isobaric process

d)

Isochoric process

111.

Heating a closed, steel container is an example of an

a)

Adiabatic process

b)

Isovolumetric process

c)

Isothermal process

d)

Isobaric process

112.

Which of the following equations is the equation for calculating the work done by a gas in a piston?

a)

W=Fd

b)

W=PΔV

c)

ΔV=Ad

d)

A=πr2

113.

For an isovolumetric process, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

a. Work, heat, and internal energy all undergo changes.

b)

b. Work and heat balance each other, so that there is no change in internal energy.

c)

c. No energy is transferred as heat; internal energy change is due to work.

d)

d. No work is done; internal energy change is due to heat.

114.

For an isothermal process, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

a. Work, heat, and internal energy all undergo changes.

b)

d. No work is done; internal energy change is due to heat.

c)

c. Work and heat balance each other, so that there is no change in internal energy.

d)

d. No energy is transferred as heat; internal energy change is due to work.

115.

For an adiabatic process, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

a. Work, heat, and internal energy all undergo changes.

b)

b. Work and heat balance each other, so that there is no change in internal energy.

c)

c. No energy is transferred as heat; internal energy change is due to work.

d)

d. No work is done; internal energy change is due to heat.

116.

Symbol that indicates that energy is released.

a)

U

b)

Q

c)

-Q

d)

W

117.

In an adiabatic process, what equals zero?

a)

Q

b)

W

c)

ΔU

d)

T

118.

The PV diagram for an adiabatic process looks similar to the PV diagram for...

a)

... Isochoric process

b)

...Isothermal process

c)

... Isobaric process

d)

It does not look similar to any of these charts

119.

Pistons moving in a car is an example of an adiabatic process

a)

True

b)

False

120.

In Isothermal process which property remains constant

a)

Volume

b)

Pressure

c)

Concentration

d)

Temperature

121.

What is the name of the process in which pressure remains constant.

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Adiabatic process

c)

Isobaric process

d)

Isolated process

122.

Process B on the PV diagram is an ______________ process.

a)

adiabatic

b)

isobaric

c)

isochoric

d)

isothermal

123.

which of the following laws is applicable for the behaviour of perfect gas...

a)

Boyle's law

b)

Charle's Law

c)

Gas Lussac law

d)

All of the above

124.

A thermodynamic system where no exchange of heat takes place between system and surrounding is...

a)

Isothermal process

b)

Adiabatic process

c)

Isobaric process

d)

Isochoric process

125.

dQ=dU+dW refers to which law of Thermodynamic?

(a)  

126.
What does the "U" stand for the formula ∆U = Q + W
a)
Heat
b)
Temperature
c)
Work
d)
Internal energy
127.
When applying the first law of thermodynamics to a system, when is heat a positive quantity?
a)
when the system does work
b)
when the system has work done on it
c)
when the system absorbs heat
d)
when the system loses heat
e)
when no work is done either on the system or by the system
128.

A thermodynamic system where no exchange of heat takes place between system and surrounding is...

a)

Isothermal process

b)

Adiabatic process

c)

Isobaric process

d)

Isochoric process

129.

Heating a closed, steel container is an example of an

a)

Adiabatic process

b)

Isovolumetric process

c)

Isothermal process

d)

Isobaric process

130.

Which of the following equations is the equation for calculating the work done by a gas in a piston?

a)

W=Fd

b)

W=PΔV

c)

ΔV=Ad

d)

A=πr2

131.

For an isovolumetric process, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

a. Work, heat, and internal energy all undergo changes.

b)

b. Work and heat balance each other, so that there is no change in internal energy.

c)

c. No energy is transferred as heat; internal energy change is due to work.

d)

d. No work is done; internal energy change is due to heat.

132.

For an isothermal process, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

a. Work, heat, and internal energy all undergo changes.

b)

d. No work is done; internal energy change is due to heat.

c)

c. Work and heat balance each other, so that there is no change in internal energy.

d)

d. No energy is transferred as heat; internal energy change is due to work.

133.

For an adiabatic process, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

a. Work, heat, and internal energy all undergo changes.

b)

b. Work and heat balance each other, so that there is no change in internal energy.

c)

c. No energy is transferred as heat; internal energy change is due to work.

d)

d. No work is done; internal energy change is due to heat.

134.

Symbol that indicates that energy is released.

a)

U

b)

Q

c)

-Q

d)

W

135.

In an adiabatic process, what equals zero?

a)

Q

b)

W

c)

ΔU

d)

T

136.

The PV diagram for an adiabatic process looks similar to the PV diagram for...

a)

... Isochoric process

b)

...Isothermal process

c)

... Isobaric process

d)

It does not look similar to any of these charts

137.

Pistons moving in a car is an example of an adiabatic process

a)

True

b)

False

138.

In Isothermal process which property remains constant

a)

Volume

b)

Pressure

c)

Concentration

d)

Temperature

139.

What is the name of the process in which pressure remains constant.

a)

Isochoric process

b)

Adiabatic process

c)

Isobaric process

d)

Isolated process

140.

A simple Pendulum has a period T on the earth. What is the Period T of this same pendulum on the moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is 1/6 that of the earth.

a)

T/sqrt6

b)

T/6

c)

sqrt(6)*T

d)

6T

141.

A particle moves in a circular motion according to the functions x=Acos(wt) and y=Asin(wt), where A=2.0 meters and w=3.0 rad/second. What is the magnitude of the particles centripetal acceleration.

a)

2 m/s^2

b)

18 m/s^2

c)

24 m/s^2

d)

0 m/s^2

142.

An enormous pendulum-driven clock, located on the earth, is set into motion by releasing its 10 meter long simple pendulum from a maximum angle of less then 10 degrees relative to the vertical. At what what approximate time t will the pendulum have fallen to a perfectly vertical orientation?

a)

pi/10 seconds

b)

pi/5 seconds

c)

pi/4 seconds

d)

pi/2 seconds

143.

The mass m is attached to the bottom of a string of negligible mass and length L to form a simple pendulum. The mass is pulled back a small angle and released so that the pendulum swings back and forth with simple harmonic motion. Which of the following statements is true of this pendulum?

a)

The acceleration of m is a minimum when displacement is a minimum.

b)

The period of the pendulum varies as a function of m.

c)

The Kinetic energy of the pendulum is a maximum when its displacement is a maximum.

d)

The frequency of the pendulum varies with angle.

144.

In simple harmonic motion, when is the speed the greatest?

a)

When the potential energy is a maximum

b)

When the displacement is a maximum

c)

when the potential energy is zero

d)

when the magnitude of the acceleration is a minimum

145.

The total mechanical energy of a simple harmonic oscillating system is

a)

zero as it passes the equilibrium point

b)

a minimum when it passes through the equilibrium point

c)

a non-zero constant

d)

zero when it reaches the maximum displacement

146.

A mass on a spring undergoes SHM. When the mass is at its maximum distance from the equilibrium position, which of the following statements about it are true?

a)

Its speed is zero

b)

Its acceleration is zero

c)

Its kinetic energy is a maximum

d)

Its total mechanical energy is zero

147.

Two simple pendulum, A and B, are each 3.0 m long, and the period of a pendulum A is T. Pendulum A is twice as heavy as Pendulum B. What is the period of pendulum B.

a)

T sqrt2

b)

T/sqrt2

c)

2T

d)

T

148.

An object is attached to a vertical sprig and bobs up and down between points A and B. Where is the object located when its kinetic energy is a maximum?

a)

midway between A and B

b)

at either A or B

c)

one-fourth of the way between A and B

d)

none of the above

149.

A leaky faucet drips 40 times in 30.0 s. What is the frequency of the dripping?

a)

1.6 Hz

b)

0.63 Hz

c)

1.3 Hz

d)

0.75 Hz

150.

What is Hooke’s Law?

a)

Force is inversely proportional to displacement.

b)

Force is directly proportional to displacement.

c)

Force is inversely proportional to the square of displacement.

d)

Force is directly proportional to the square of displacement.

151.

Which equation defines Hooke’s Law?

a)

F = x

b)

F = k x

c)

F = ½ k x

d)

F = ½ k x2

152.

Which equation defines Elastic Potential Energy?

a)

U = x

b)

U = k x

c)

U = ½ k x

d)

U = ½ k x2

153.

Which equation defines work done by the spring?

a)

U2 – U1

b)

U2 + U1

c)

U1 – U2

d)

U1 + U2

154.

What force causes the spring and block system to move back and forth?

a)

Gravitational force

b)

Friction

c)

Spring force

d)

External force

155.

Which equation defines the acceleration of the spring and block system?

a)

a=−kxa=-kx

b)

a=−kxma=-\frac{kx}{m}

c)

a=kxa=kx

d)

a=kxma=\frac{kx}{m}

156.

For a simple harmonic oscillator, which of the following pairs of vector quantities CAN’T both point in the same direction? (The position vector is the displacement from equilibrium.)

a)

position & velocity

b)

velocity & acceleration

c)

position & acceleration

d)

None of them.

157.

In simple harmonic motion, the maximum displacement is called...

a)

period

b)

frequency

c)

amplitude

d)

position

158.

In simple harmonic motion, the time to make one complete oscillation is called…

a)

period

b)

frequency

c)

amplitude

d)

position

159.

At which position is the acceleration of an oscillating object equal to zero?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

160.

At which position is the kinetic energy of an oscillating object maximum?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

161.

A block on the end of a horizontal spring is pulled from equilibrium at x = 0 to x = A and released. What total distance does it travel in one full cycle of its motion?

a)

½ A

b)

A

c)

2 A

d)

4 A

162.

Which equations defines the total energy of simple harmonic motion?

a)

½ mv2

b)

½ kx2

c)

½ mv2 + ½ kx2

d)

½ kA2

163.

Which are true for Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)?

a)

The acceleration is constant.

b)

The restoring force is proportional to the displacement.

c)

The frequency is independent of the amplitude.

d)

The energy is dependent on amplitude.

164.

Resonance results in a/an increased

a)

frequency

b)

period

c)

amplitude

d)

restoring force

165.

To get an oscillator into resonance, the driving force must

(select all that apply)

a)

have a large amplitude

b)

be applied at the natural frequency of the oscillator

c)

have a very high frequency

166.

Refer to the graph below of the displacement x versus time t for a particle in simple harmonic motion. Which of the following graphs shows the kinetic energy K of the particle as a function of time t for one cycle of motion?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

167.

A block on a horizontal frictionless plane is attached to a spring, as shown below. The block oscillates along the x-axis with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A.

Which of the following statements about the block is correct?

a)

At x = 0, its velocity is zero.

b)

At x = 0, its acceleration is at a maximum.

c)

At x = A, its Force is at a maximum

d)

At x = A, its velocity is at a maximum.

e)

At x = A, its acceleration is zero.

168.

A block on a horizontal frictionless plane is attached to a spring, as shown below. The block oscillates along the x-axis with simple harmonic motion of amplitude A.

Which of the following statements about energy is correct? Select two answers.

a)

The potential energy of the spring is at a minimum at x = 0.

b)

The potential energy of the spring is at a minimum at x = A.

c)

The kinetic energy of the block is at a minimum at x =0.

d)

The kinetic energy of the block is at a minimum at x =A.

e)

The kinetic energy of the block is always equal to the potential energy of the spring.

169.

A pendulum with a period of 1 s on Earth, where the acceleration due to gravity is g, is taken to another planet, where its period is 2 s. The acceleration due to gravity on the other planet is most nearly

a)

g/4

b)

g/2

c)

g

d)

2g

e)

4g

170.

An ideal massless spring is fixed to the wall at one end, as shown above. A block of mass M attached to the other end of the spring oscillates with amplitude A on a frictionless, horizontal surface. The maximum speed of the block is vm. The force constant of the spring is

a)

Mg/A

b)

Mgvm/2A

c)

M(vm)2/2A

d)

M(vm)2/A2

e)

M(vm)2/2A2

171.
For a system in simple harmonic motion, which of the following is the time required to complete a cycle of motion?
a)
amplitude
b)
period
c)
frequency
d)
revolution
172.
For a system in simple harmonic motion, which of the following is the number of cycles or vibrations per unit of time?
a)
amplitude
b)
period
c)
frequency
d)
revolution
173.

What is the relationship between frequency and period?

a)

f = t/n

b)

f = 1/T

c)

f = 2 T

d)

f = T/2

174.
A pair of trapeze performers at the circus is swinging from ropes attached to a large elevated platform. Suppose that the performers can be treated as a simple pendulum with a length of 16 m. Determine the period for one complete back and forth cycle.
a)
2 sec
b)
12 sec
c)
8 sec
d)
10 sec
175.
The period of a pendulum may be decreased by
a)
Increasing the mass of the bob
b)
moving the equilibrium point
c)
decreasing the mass of the bob
d)
shortening the length of pendulum
176.

What is the amplitude of the wave shown in the image?

a)

30 cm

b)

20 cm

c)

15 cm

d)

10 cm

177.

The graph shows the reducing amplitude of a body in Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM).

This reduction in amplitude is known as ...

a)

dumping

b)

damping

c)

dampening

d)

doodling

178.

What is the period of the wave shown in the image?

a)

10 sec

b)

20 sec

c)

30 sec

d)

40 sec

179.

Which of the pendulums would have the shortest period?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

180.

A pendulum oscillates as shown. At which of the following position(s) is the kinetic energy equal to the total energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

Not enough information given.

181.

An object of mass 𝑚 is attached to a horizontal spring, stretched to a displacement 𝐴 from equilibrium and released, undergoing harmonic oscillations on a frictionless surface with period 𝑇 . The experiment is then repeated with a mass of 4𝑚. What’s the new period of oscillation?

a)

2T

b)

T

c)

4T

d)

T√2

182.

A block attached to the lower end of a vertical spring oscillates up and down. If the spring obeys Hooke’s law, the period of oscillation depends on which of the following?

I. Mass of the block

II. Amplitude of the oscillation

III. Force constant of the spring

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

I and III

183.

A block of mass 0.5kg on a horizontal surface is attached to a horizontal spring of negligible mass and spring constant 50N/m. The other end of the spring is attached to a wall, and there is negligible friction between the block and the horizontal surface. When the spring is unstretched, the block is located at x=0m. The block is then pulled to x=0.3m

and released from rest so that the block-spring system oscillates between x=−0.3m and x=0.3m. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the block and the direction of the net force exerted on the block when it is located at x=0.3m?

a)
b)
c)
d)
184.

A student attaches a block to a vertical spring so that the block-spring system will oscillate if the block-spring system is released from rest at a vertical position that is not the system’s equilibrium position. The system oscillates near Earth’s surface. The system is then taken to the Moon’s surface, where the gravitational field strength is nearly 1/6 that of the gravitational field strength near Earth's surface. Which of the following claims is correct about the period of oscillation for the system?

a)

The system has a longer period on Earth than on the Moon.

b)

The system has a shorter period on Earth than on the Moon.

c)

The system has the same period on Earth as the Moon.

d)

The period of oscillation cannot be determined without knowledge of the spring constant, the mass of the block, and the exact gravitational field strength near Earth’s surface and the Moon’s surface.

185.
In any system in SHM, the restoring force acting on the mass in the system is proportional to
a)
the displacement
b)
the length of the pendulum
c)
the mass
d)
the frequency
186.

What is the unit of charge?

a)

Newton

b)

Joule

c)

Coulomb

d)

Farad

187.

What is the direction of electric field at a given point?

a)

It has same direction as the force experienced by a negative charge at a given point.

b)

It has same direction as the force experienced by a positive charge at a given point.

c)

It depends on the sign of charge.

d)

It always points towards the center of the charge.

188.

What is the unit of electric field?

a)

C

b)

N/C

c)

C/N

d)

Cm

189.

What is the equation for the electric field of a point charge?

a)

E=kQr2E=\frac{kQ}{r^2}  

b)

E=kQrE=\frac{kQ}{r}  

c)

E=kQr3E=\frac{kQ}{r^3}  

d)

E=kQrE=kQr  

190.

Four point charges of equal magnitude but difference signs are arranged on the corners of a square as shown left. Which of the vectors shown represents the direction of the net force acting on the charge at the upper left-hand corner of the square due to the other charges?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

191.

The ratio qcqB\frac{q_c}{q_B}  is?

a)

9/4

b)

1/1

c)

4/9

d)

1/4

192.

Which of the following statements must be true of the signs of the charges?

a)

only qA and qB have the same sign.

b)

only qA and qC have the same sign.

c)

only qB and qC have the same sign.

d)

Charges qB and qC have difference signs.

193.

Which of the following is true about the sign of charge qA?

a)

The sign of qA must be same as qB.

b)

The sign of qA must be same as qC.

c)

The sign of qA must be same as either qB or qC, whichever has the greater magnitude.

d)

It is possible that qA could be either positive or negative.

194.

Which statement accurately describes the charged particles in Diagram A?

a)

The particles have opposite charges:

Blue: Negative Red: Positive

The particles repel one another.

b)

The particles have like charges:

Blue: Negative Red: Negative

The particles attract one another.

c)

The particles have opposite charges:

Blue: Positive Red: Negative

The particles attract one another.

d)

The particles have like charges:

Blue: Positive Red: Positive

The particles attract one another.

195.

Electrical field lines of a negatively charged object flow _______________.

a)

Inwards

b)

Outwards

c)

Clockwise

d)

Counter-Clockwise

196.

If a charged particles has very dense field lines, that means the particle has a ___________ charge.

a)

Strong

b)

Weak

c)

Neutral

d)

None of the above.

197.
Consider the electric field lines shown in the diagram below. From the diagram, it is apparent that object A is ____ and object B is ____.
a)
+,+
b)
+,-
c)
-,+
d)
-,-
198.
The electrical force between charges is strongest when the charges are
a)
close together
b)
far apart
c)
 the electric force is constant everywhere.
d)
there is no pattern
199.
Which of the following is a true statement about the electric field between the two plates?
a)
The field is attractive between the plates and uniform in strength
b)
The field is repulsive between the plates and uniform in strength
c)
The field is attractive between the plates and strongest near the positive
d)
The field is repulsive between the plates and strongest near the positive
200.

The electric field lines for a positive charge is always directed away from the charge. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

201.

Which graph best represents the relationship between the strength of an electric field and distance from a point charge?

a)
b)
c)
d)
202.

Based on the arrangement of the electric field lines in the diagram, what are the charges?

a)

both charges are the same

b)

the charges are opposite

c)

they are neutral; no charge

203.

Which statement best describes the electric fields in the image?

a)

The charges are neutral.

b)

Both charges are negative, so the field lines are alike.

c)

The field lines move toward a positive charge and away from a negative charge.

d)

The field lines move away from a positive charge and toward a negative charge.

204.

Where can an electric field be found?

a)

below a force field

b)

in a gravitational field

c)

in the space surrounding a charged object

d)

outside of a magnetic field

205.

Which diagram correctly shows the field lines between two like charges?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Both

d)

Neither

206.
In the diagram below, P is a point near a negatively charged sphere. Which direction best represents the direction of the electric field at point P?
a)
Right
b)
Left
c)
Up 
d)
Down
207.
Which quantity and unit are correctly paired?
a)
electric field strength and N/C
b)
electricity and Coulombs
c)
electrostatic force and electrons
d)
electric field strength and E
208.
Which of the following statements is false about electric field lines
a)
electric field lines cannot cross
b)
electric field lines point away from positive charge
c)
electric field lines are always straight lines
d)
electric field lines show how a proton would move in an electric field
209.

The net force due to different charges around a single charge can be determined using superposition principle. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

210.

Electric field is directly proportional to the charge and inversely proportional to the magnitude of electric force. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

211.

What is the symbol for electric field strength?

a)

B

b)

E

c)

F

d)

T

212.

Where would you find a uniform electric field?

a)

around a single charge

b)

between two charged metal plates

c)

inside a coil that carries a current

d)

around a magnet

213.

Which of the following features of an electrostatic line of force is NOT correct?

a)

It is an imaginary line which a positive charge would describe if it is free to move

b)

The tangent drawn at any point on a curved line of force shows the direction of the electric field intensity at that point

c)

It is sometimes curved

d)

It can cross another line of force in a region of intense electric field

214.
The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor can be increased by: 
a)
increasing the charge 
b)
decreasing the charge 
c)
increasing the plate separation
d)
decreasing the plate separation 
215.
What is the voltage across   the plates of the capacitor if  the capacitance is 10 uF and the Charge stored is  30 uC?
a)
0.333 V
b)
3 V
c)
300 V
216.
------------------------ is created out of two metal plates and an insulating material called a dielectric.
a)
An inductor
b)
A capacitor
c)
A fixed resistor
d)
A variable resistor
217.
In the capacitor, the dielectric can be made out of all sorts of ---------- materials and the plates are made of a -------------- material.
a)
conductive, insulating 
b)
conductive, conductive
c)
insulating, conductive
d)
insulating, insulating
218.
The figure to the right represents:
a)
Capacitor
b)
Diode
c)
Inductor
d)
Resistor
219.

With respect to the capacitor, which relationship is true? •

a)

C = Q×V

b)

V = C×Q

c)

V = Q/C

d)

Q = C/V

220.
With respect to the capacitor, which relationship is true?
a)
C = Q/V
b)
V = C×Q
c)
Q = C/V
d)
Q = V/C
221.

How is the capacitance (C) of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the charge on the plates ?

a)

C depend on the charge on the plates

b)

C is vanished when there are plates

c)

C does not depend on the charge on the plates

d)

C is accumulated on one side only

222.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the potential difference across the capacitor ?

a)

C depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

b)

C does not depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

c)

C partially depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

d)

C sometime depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

223.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the area of each plate?

a)

C is directly proportional to the area A of each plate

b)

C is inversely proportional to the area A of each plate

c)

C is partially proportional to the area A of each plate

d)

C is fully proportional to the area A of each plate

224.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the distance between the plates ?

a)

C is directly proportional to the area A of each plate

b)

C is inversely proportional to the distance d between the plates

c)

C is partially proportional to the area A of each plate

d)

C is not affected by the area A of each plate

225.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by filling the space between the plates with an insulator ?

a)

C stable when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

b)

C reduces when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

c)

C increases when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

d)

C fluctuate when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

226.
If C is the capacitance in Farads, ϵ permittivity of the dielectric, A area of plate overlap in square meters and d distance between plates in meters, then:
a)
C = ϵd/A 
b)
C = A/ϵd
c)
C = ϵA/d
d)
C = d/ϵA
227.
If the capacitance is 47μF, and the voltage difference across the capacitor terminals is 6V, then the energy stored in that capacitor is:
a)
846×10-6Joule
b)
7.23×10-3 Joule
c)
6.76×10-5Joule
d)
5.94×10-2Joule
228.
What is the voltage across   the plates of the capacitor if  the capacitance is 10 uF and the Charge stored is  30 uC?
a)
0.333 V
b)
3 V
c)
300 V
229.

The plates of a parallel-plate capacitor are 2.50mm apart, and each carries a charge of magnitude 80.0nC. The plates are in vacuum. The electric field between the plates has a magnitude of 4.00x106V/m. What is the potential difference between the plates?

a)

2.00x104V

b)

1.75x104 P.D.

c)

1.00x10-4P

d)

1.00x104V

e)

not solvable! because capacitor has no potential difference because it should have an insulator in between.

230.

from question 16:


The plates of a parallel-plate capacitor are 2.50mm apart, and each carries a charge of magnitude 80.0nC. The plates are in vacuum. The electric field between the plates has a magnitude of 4.00x106V/m.


What is the area of each plates?

a)

2.26x10-3cm2

b)

2.26x10-3m2

c)

22.6m2

d)

2.26cm2

e)

none of the above

231.

The plates of a parallel-plate capacitor are 2.50mm apart, and each carries a charge of magnitude 80.0nC. The plates are in vacuum. The electric field between the plates has a magnitude of 4.00x106V/m.


what is the capacitance?

a)

zero

b)

same as potential difference 4.00pF

c)

8.99pF

d)

8pF

e)

8.00x10-9F

232.

Is it correct to say that the capacitance is inversely proportional to the area of the parallel plates?

a)

True

b)

False

233.

Capacitor is a device use to store energy. Therefore a solar cell is a type of capacitor.

a)

True

b)

False

234.
The capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor can be increased by: 
a)
increasing the charge 
b)
decreasing the charge 
c)
increasing the plate separation
d)
decreasing the plate separation 
235.
------------------------ is created out of two metal plates and an insulating material called a dielectric.
a)
An inductor
b)
A capacitor
c)
A fixed resistor
d)
A variable resistor
236.
The figure to the right represents:
a)
Capacitor
b)
Diode
c)
Inductor
d)
Resistor
237.

With respect to the capacitor, which relationship is true? •

a)

C = Q×V

b)

V = C×Q

c)

V = Q/C

d)

Q = C/V

238.

How is the capacitance (C) of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the charge on the plates ?

a)

C depend on the charge on the plates

b)

C is vanished when there are plates

c)

C does not depend on the charge on the plates

d)

C is accumulated on one side only

239.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the potential difference across the capacitor ?

a)

C depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

b)

C does not depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

c)

C partially depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

d)

C sometime depend on the potential difference across the capacitor

240.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the area of each plate?

a)

C is directly proportional to the area A of each plate

b)

C is inversely proportional to the area A of each plate

c)

C is partially proportional to the area A of each plate

d)

C is fully proportional to the area A of each plate

241.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by the distance between the plates ?

a)

C is directly proportional to the area A of each plate

b)

C is inversely proportional to the distance d between the plates

c)

C is partially proportional to the area A of each plate

d)

C is not affected by the area A of each plate

242.

How is the capacitance of a parallel-plate capacitor affected by filling the space between the plates with an insulator ?

a)

C stable when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

b)

C reduces when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

c)

C increases when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

d)

C fluctuate when the space between the plates is filled with an insulator, εr >1

243.
If C is the capacitance in Farads, ϵ permittivity of the dielectric, A area of plate overlap in square meters and d distance between plates in meters, then:
a)
C = ϵd/A 
b)
C = A/ϵd
c)
C = ϵA/d
d)
C = d/ϵA
244.

If the capacitance is 47μF, and the voltage difference across the capacitor terminals is 6V, then the energy stored in that capacitor is:

a)

846×10-6Joule

b)

846×10-7Joule

c)

846×10-9Joule

d)

846×10-3Joule

245.

What does the following represent?

⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗

⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗

⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗

a)

Multiplied by a billion

b)

A piece of modern art

c)

Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you

d)

Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you

246.

Are the magnetic field lines in the picture correct?

a)

Yes, because they point from north to south.

b)

No, because they point from north to south (they're supposed to go the other way).

c)

Yes, because the North pole is on the left in all pictures.

d)

No, because the North pole is on the left in all pictures (it's supposed to be on the right).

247.

The strongest part of a magnet is...

a)

the bars .

b)

the force field.

c)

the poles.

d)

the middle.

248.
What does the following represent?
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
a)
A crowd with binoculars
b)
A bunch of coaxial cables 
c)
Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you
d)
Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you
249.
A north pole and a south pole will attract.
a)
True
b)
False
250.
What happens when two north poles of a magnet are placed together?
a)
they repel
b)
they attract
c)
they cancel each other out
d)
the strength of the magnet is doubled
251.

The area of magnetic force around a magnet is known as its _____________.

a)

magnetic field

b)

magnetic declination

c)

magnetic fan lines

d)

magnetic tan lines

252.
what is the earths magnetic field useful for 
a)
deflecting the solar wind, charged particles that come from the Sun.
b)
wind
c)
sun
d)
light
253.
Ancient people discovered magnetic rocks called lodestone. What did they use them for?
a)
fires
b)
compasses
c)
sculptures
d)
weapons
254.
Why does a compass needle point north?
a)
The compass is a bar magnet
b)
Because north is up
c)
Because it's magic
d)
It lines up with the Earth's magnetic field
255.
In this image, matching north poles from two magnets are introduced.  What do you predict will be the outcome?
a)
There will be no interaction.  The poles of magnets do not have an effect on one another.
b)
The two north poles will attract each other
c)
The two north poles will repel each other
d)
The two magnets will combine and become one magnet
256.

Looking at the field lines in this picture, these two magnets are ________

a)

Attracting

b)

Repelling

c)

Attracting and Repelling

d)

Doing nothing

257.
Why are paper clips attracted to magnets?
a)
They contain silver.
b)
They contain aluminum
c)
They contain tin.
d)
They contain iron. 
258.
Magnetic poles that are unlike ________and magnetic poles that are alike ___________.
a)
run; stay
b)
attract; repel
c)
stay; repel
d)
repel; attract
259.
Are the magnetic field lines in the picture correct?
a)
Yes, because they point from north to south.
b)
No, because they point from north to south (they're supposed to go the other way).
c)
Yes, because the North pole is on the left in all pictures.
d)
No, because the North pole is on the left in all pictures (it's supposed to be on the right).
260.
What does the following represent?
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙⊙
a)
A crowd with binoculars
b)
A bunch of coaxial cables 
c)
Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you
d)
Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you
261.
What does the following represent?
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗⊗
a)
Multiplied by a billion
b)
A piece of modern art
c)
Uniform magnetic field directed into the screen away from you
d)
Uniform magnetic field directed out of your screen at you
262.

What is the shape of a magnetic field around a wire?

a)
b)
c)
d)
263.

What is the shape of a magnetic field around a solenoid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
264.
What is the direction of the current in the wire?
a)
up
b)
down
c)
left
d)
right
265.
What is direction of the magnetic field around the wire?
a)
clockwise
b)
counterclockwise
266.
What is the direction of the force?
a)
into the page
b)
out of the page
c)
left
d)
right
267.
What is the direction of the force acting on the wire?
a)
into the page
b)
out of the page
c)
up the page
d)
none
268.

Using the right hand grip rule, A represents the direction of the

a)

current

b)

magnetic field

269.

Using the right hand rule, B represents the direction of the

a)

current

b)

magnetic field

270.

Which equation describes the strength of the magnetic force exerted on a current-carrying wire?

a)

Σ F=ma\Sigma\ F=ma

b)

FB=qvBsin⁡θF_B=qvB\sin\theta

c)

FE=qEF_E=qE

d)

FB=ILBsin⁡θF_B=ILB\sin\theta

271.

What is the symbol for magnetic field?

a)

I

b)

B

c)

M

d)

F

272.

What is the UNIT for magnetic field?

a)

T

b)

A

c)

B

d)

unitless

273.

Which equation describes the strength of a magnetic field produced by a solenoid (current-carrying loops of wires)?

a)

B=μoI 2πRB=\frac{\mu_oI\ }{2\pi R}

b)

B=FBILsin⁡θB=\frac{F_B}{IL\sin\theta}

c)

B=FBqvsin⁡θB=\frac{F_B}{qv\sin\theta}

d)

B= μoIN LB=\frac{\ \mu_oIN\ }{L}

274.

Which variable describes the number of loops in a solenoid?

a)

L

b)

B

c)

N

d)

R

275.
A magnetic field exerts a force on a charged particle:
a)
always 
b)
never 
c)
if the particle is moving across the field lines
d)
if the particle is moving along the field lines 
276.
An electron travels due north through a vacuum in a region of uniform magnetic field  that is also directed due north. It will: 
a)
be unaffected by the field 
b)
speed up
c)
slow down
d)
follow a right-handed corkscrew path 
277.
An electron and a proton are both initially moving with the same speed and in the same direction at 90˚ to the same uniform magnetic field. They experience magnetic forces, which are initially: 
a)
identical
b)
equal in magnitude but opposite in direction 
c)
in the same direction and differing in magnitude by a factor of 1840 
d)
in opposite directions and differing in magnitude by a factor of 1840 
278.
Magnets can interact without touching.
a)
True
b)
False
279.
What happens when two north poles of a magnet are placed together?
a)
they repel
b)
they attract
c)
they cancel each other out
d)
the strength of the magnet is doubled
280.
A north pole and a south pole will attract.
a)
True
b)
False
281.

Dylan puts two magnetic toy trains very close to each other on a track. What will happen next, and why?

a)

The trains will not move because the magnets are not touching.

b)

The trains will move closer to each other because the magnetic force will pull the trains together.

c)

The trains will move away from each other because the magnetic force will push the trains apart.

d)

The trains will move away from each other because the magnets are not touching.

282.
Which way will the magnets move after they are released?
a)
Towards each other
b)
Away from each other
c)
Not enough information
283.
How can magnets cause objects to have kinetic energy?
a)
A magnetic force can convert kinetic energy stored in a magnetic field to potential energy.
b)
Kinetic energy can convert potential energy stored in a gravitational field.
c)
A magnetic energy can convert potential energy stored in a gravitational field to kinetic energy.
d)
A magnetic force can convert potential energy stored in a magnetic field to kinetic energy.
284.
The energy something has because it is moving
a)
kinetic energy
b)
potential energy
c)
magnetic energy
d)
force
285.
Which picture has the most potential energy?
a)
Picture A
b)
Picture B
286.
The energy that is stored in an object or system
a)
kinetic energy
b)
potential energy
c)
magnetic energy
d)
force
287.
How is energy being transferred in the scenario shown below?
a)
Potential --> Kinetic
b)
Kinetic --> Potential
c)
Kinetic --> Kinetic
d)
Neither
288.
How does a system of magnets store potential energy in the magnetic field?
a)
The energy used to move a magnet with (same direction as) a magnetic force.
b)
The energy used to move a magnet against (opposite direction as) a magnetic force.
c)
Magnets get their potential energy from kinetic energy.
289.

If the proton is released at the equator and falls toward the earth under the influences of the gravity, the magnetic force on the proton will be toward the

a)

north

b)

south

c)

east

d)

west

290.

All of the following have the same units except:

a)

inductance.

b)

capacitive reactance.

c)

impedance.

d)

resistance.

291.

A resistor is connected to an AC power supply. On this circuit, the current

a)

leads the voltage by 90°.

b)

lags the voltage by 90°.

c)

is in phase with the voltage.

d)

none of the given answers

292.

A pure inductor is connected to an AC power supply. In this circuit, the current

a)

leads the voltage by 90°.

b)

lags the voltage by 90°.

c)

is in phase with the voltage.

d)

none of the given answers.

293.

If the frequency of the AC voltage across an inductor is doubled, the inductive reactance of that inductor

a)

increases to 4 times its original value.

b)

increases to twice its original value.

c)

decreases to one-half its original value.

d)

decreases to one-fourth its original value.

294.

What is the phase angle between the voltages of the inductor and capacitor in a RLC series circuit?

a)

zero

b)

90°

c)

180°

d)

270°

295.

Which of the following diagrams is the correct phasor diagram for VR, VL and V?

a)
b)
c)
d)
296.

Quantity of charge can be measured in

a)

time (s)

b)

Ampere (A)

c)

coulombs (C)

d)

Joule (J)

297.
The function of a generator is to change ____. 
a)
mechanical energy to electrical energy
b)
electrical energy to mechanical energy 
c)
electrical energy to chemical energy
d)
chemical energy to electrical energy 
298.

The formula for inductive reactance is

a)

1ωL\frac{1}{\omega L}

b)

ωC\omega C

c)

1ωC\frac{1}{\omega C}

d)

ωL\omega L

299.

The equations for alternating emf and alternating current in a circuit containing capacitor are

a)

V = V0 sin⁡ ωt, I = I0 sin⁡(ωt−π2)V\ =\ V_0\ \sin\ \omega t,\ I\ =\ I_0\ \sin\left(\omega t-\frac{\pi}{2}\right)

b)

V=V0 sin⁡ ωt , I = I0 sin⁡(ωt +π2)V=V_0\ \sin\ \omega t\ ,\ I\ =\ I_0\ \sin\left(\omega t\ +\frac{\pi}{2}\right)

c)

V = V0 sin⁡ωt, I =I0 sin⁡ ωtV\ =\ V_0\ \sin\omega t,\ I\ =I_0\ \sin\ \omega t

d)

V = V0 sin⁡(ωt +π2), I = I0 sin⁡ ωtV\ =\ V_0\ \sin\left(\omega t\ +\frac{\pi}{2}\right),\ I\ =\ I_0\ \sin\ \omega t

300.

What happens at resonance?

a)

Current is maximum

b)

Impedance is maximum

c)

Resistance is maximum

d)

Power factor is maximum

301.

A Capacitor blocks

a)

Only a.c.

b)

Only d.c.

c)

Both ac and dc

d)

None of these

302.

The instantaneous current in an ac circuit is i=2.0 sin314t, what is its frequency?

a)

100 Hz

b)

60 Hz

c)

50 Hz

d)

2π

303.

The instantaneous current in an ac circuit is i=2.0 sin314t, what is rms value of the current.

a)

1.414 A

b)

2.828A

c)

1 A

d)

2 A

304.

Average power dissipated in an ideal inductor in a.c. circuit is:

a)

Infinite

b)

100

c)

0

d)

1

305.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

306.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

307.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

308.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

309.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

310.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

311.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

312.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

313.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

314.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

315.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

316.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

317.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

318.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

319.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

320.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

321.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

322.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

323.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

324.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

325.

A resistor is connected to an AC power supply. On this circuit, the current

a)

leads the voltage by 90°.

b)

lags the voltage by 90°.

c)

is in phase with the voltage.

d)

none of the given answers

326.

The instantaneous current in an ac circuit is i=2.0 sin314t, what is rms value of the current.

a)

1.414 A

b)

2.828A

c)

1 A

d)

2 A

327.

What is alternating current

a)

the process of inducing an emf (voltage) with a change in magnetic flux

b)

Electric currents whose direction and magnitude change periodically depending on time are called alternating current

c)

Steady current which delivers the same average power as the a.c. to a resistive load.

d)

Making a rectified current more steady (or smooth) by placing a capacitor in parallel with the resistor​

328.

The electricity in our house is

a)

AC

b)

DC

c)

BC

d)

AD

329.

An electric current that continually reverses direction over time is known as a(n)

a)

direct current

b)

alternating current

c)

simple current

330.

If an electric bulb is connected to an AC source, which of the following statement is true about the phase difference between the voltage across the bulb and current flowing in it?

a)

In phase.

b)

Not in phase.

c)

The voltage is leading the current.

d)

The current is leading the voltage.

331.

Which of the following general equations represent AC current

a)

I=Iosin⁡(2πft)I=I_o\sin\left(2\pi ft\right)

b)

I=Iosin⁡(2πft)I=I_o\sin\left(\frac{2\pi}{f}t\right)

c)

I=Iocos⁡(ωt)I=I_o\cos\left(\omega t\right)

d)

I=Iocos⁡(t)I=I_o\cos\left(t\right)

332.

Which is the correct equation of 

VrmsV_{rms} ? 

a)

Vrms=VoV_{rms}=V_o  

b)

Vrms=2VoV_{rms}=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{V_o}  

c)

Vrms=Vo2V_{rms}=\frac{V_o}{\sqrt{2}}  

d)

Vrms=Vo2sin⁡ 2tV_{rms}=\frac{V_o}{\sqrt{2}}\sin\ 2t  

333.

The highest value reached by the voltage or current in one cycle is called:

a)

Instantaneous value

b)

Peak to peak value

c)

Peak value

d)

Root mean square value

334.

rms value of ac current is the equivalent direct current which produces

a)

the same average energy

b)

the same power dissipation

c)

the same rate of current flow

d)

the same rate of power use

335.

A pure resistor is connected to an a.c. source where its current is given by I=5.0 sin 628t. Which of the following statements is not true about the circuit?

a)

The peak value of current flowing through the resistor is 5.0 A

b)

The root mean square current flowing through the resistor is 3.5 A

c)

The frequency of the current flowing through across the resistor is 120 Hz

d)

The equivalent direct current which gives the same average heating power in the resistor is 3.5 A

336.

A sine wave has a peak value of 354 V, What is the RMS value?

a)

250 V

b)

500 V

c)

354 V

d)

200V

337.

A power supply has a peak value of 433 Volts sine wave, what is the effective dc voltage of this power supply?

a)

306 V

b)

433 V

c)

612 V

d)

220 V

338.

What is the Peak voltage of the signal shown on the multimeter?

a)

1000 V

b)

1414 V

c)

1500 V

d)

707 V

339.
A heater is rated as 230 V, 10 kW. The value 230 V refers to
a)
average voltage
b)
r.m.s voltage
c)
peak voltage
340.

Photoelectrons will be ejected from a material surface if?

a)

The threshold frequency is greater than the photon frequency

b)

The work function is less than the photon energy

c)

The intensity of light is high enough

d)

The wavelength of photon is maximum

341.

A monochromatic light beam with a quantum energy of 9.0 eV is incident upon a photocell. The work function of the photocell is 4.1 eV. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the electron.

a)

4.2 eV

b)

4.4 eV

c)

4.7 eV

d)

4.9 eV

342.

In an experiment, photoelectric effect is observed in metal A when light with frequency (f ) falls on the metal. If the light frequency used in this experiment is doubled, the photoelectrons

a)

Will not be ejected

b)

Will be ejected as observed in the previous

c)

Will be ejected with greater number of photoelectrons

d)

Will be ejected with greater kinetic energy

343.

A metal surface is struck with light of λ = 400 nm, releasing a stream of electrons. If the 400 nm light is replaced by λ= 300 nm light of the same intensity, what is the result?

a)

More electrons are emitted in a given time interval

b)

Fewer electrons are emitted in a given time interval

c)

Emitted electrons are more energetic

d)

Emitted electrons are less energetic

344.

A metal surface is struck with light of λ = 400 nm, releasing a stream of electrons. If the light intensity is increased (without changing λ ), what is the result?

a)

More electrons are emitted in a given time interval

b)

Fewer electrons are emitted in a given time interval

c)

Emitted electrons are more energetic

d)

Emitted electrons are less energetic

345.

True or False? The wavelength and frequency of all waves are inversely proportional to each other.

a)

True

b)

False

346.

If waves can behave like particles, then particles can behave like a wave. This is the idea behind...

a)

Quantization of Energy

b)

Photoelectric Effect

c)

Compton Effect

d)

deBroglie Waves

e)

Uncertainty Principle

347.

When light of specific frequencies is shined on a surface, electrons are ejected from the surface. This is the idea behind...

a)

Quantization of Energy

b)

Photoelectric Effect

c)

Compton Effect

d)

deBroglie Waves

e)

Uncertainty Principle

348.

The energy of an emitted photon can be calculated from ...

a)

Plancks constant x frequency of the photon

b)

h x c / wavelength of the light emitted

c)

the difference in the energy levels

d)

all of the above

349.

De Broglie equation

a)

relates the momentum of a mass to its wavelength

b)

relates the energy of a mass to its wavelength

c)

relates the frequency of a mass to its wavelength

d)

relates the work function of a mass to its wavelength

350.
The photoelectric effect only occurs if the light shining on the metal is:
a)
coherent.
b)
above a minimum intensity.
c)
above a minimum frequency.
d)
above a minimum wavelength.
351.

the minimum frequency for which the photoelectric effect can occur is called the

a)

absolute frequency

b)

cut off frequency

c)

Lyman frequency

d)

threshold frequency

352.

Planck's constant can be found ...

a)

energy of a particle x speed of light / wavelength

b)

energy of a particle x speed of light / frequency of light

c)

energy of a particle x wavelength / speed of light

d)

slope of the cut-off voltage vs frequency graph

353.

Wave -particle duality is supported by...

a)

electrons behaving as particles with ordinary matter

b)

electrons behaving as waves when travelling through space

c)

the photo electric effect

d)

all of the above

354.

The electron volt is a measure of

a)

charge

b)

velocity

c)

electric potential

d)

momentum

e)

energy

355.
What is the energy of an X-ray with a frequency of 1.0 x 1017 Hz?
a)
6.63 x 10-34 J
b)
6.63 x 10-17 J
c)
1.51 x 1016 J
d)
1.51 x 10-16 J
356.

What is the energy of a photon of wavelength 400 nm?

a)

2.95 eV

b)

3.00 eV

c)

3.09 eV

d)

3.12 eV

357.

An electron is moving freely with kinetic energy 10 eV. It's de-Broglie wavelength is

a)
b)
c)
d)
358.

A ____ is a discrete, quantized bundle of energy

a)

Photoelectric effect

b)

Photon

c)

Quantized

d)

Proton

359.

The energy of photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface can be increased by

a)

using monochromatic, polarized light

b)

using light of longer wavelength

c)

using light of higher intensity

d)

using light of higher frequency

360.

Who proposed that electrons are only found in specific, discrete circular orbits around the nucleus?

a)

Alber Einstein

b)

Erwin Schrodinger

c)

Ernest Rutherford

d)

Niels Bohr

361.
This image is an illustration of
a)
photoelectric effect
b)
Dalton's atomic theory
c)
Bohr model
d)

thermionic emission

362.

The arrows in this energy diagram depict...

a)

Absorption of light energy because the arrows are pointed up.

b)

Emission of light energy because the arrows are pointed up.

c)

Absorption of light energy because the arrows are pointed down

d)

Emission of light energy because the arrows are pointed down

363.

Which are absorption arrows?

a)

a, b, c, d

b)

e, f, g, h

c)

a, e, b

d)

d, c, h

364.

The arrows in this diagrams depict...

a)

Emission of light energy

b)

Absorption of light energy

c)

Absorption and Emission of light energy

d)

Neither absorptions and emission of light energy

365.

What is the photoelectric effect?

a)

The emission of electrons from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

b)

The emission of protons from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

c)

The emission of photons from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

d)

The emission of neutrons from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

366.

What are photoelectrons?

a)

Electrons emitted from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

b)

Protons emitted from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

c)

Photons emitted from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

d)

Neutrons emitted from the surface of a metal upon the absorption of electromagnetic radiation

367.

What does the photoelectric effect provide evidence for?

a)

Light is quantised, or carried in discrete packets

b)

Light is continuous and has no discrete packets

c)

Light is a wave and not a particle

d)

Light is a particle and not a wave

368.

What determines whether a photoelectron is emitted?

a)

The frequency of the light

b)

The intensity of the light

c)

The wavelength of the light

d)

The speed of the light

369.

When an electron absorbs energy, it moves ________.

a)

from a higher energy level to a lower energy level

b)

from a lower energy level to a higher energy level

c)

in a circle

d)

toward the nucleus

370.

When an electron moves from a higher energy level to a lower energy level, it ____________.

a)

it releases energy in the form of light

b)

it absorbs energy in the form of light

c)

it breaks in half

d)

it releases a sonic boon

371.

A ground state electron is

a)

freshly crushed into a fine powder.

b)

in the highest possible energy level.

c)

in the lowest possible energy level.

d)

constantly emitting light.

372.

In the speed of light equation, c stands for

a)

frequency

b)

wavelength

c)

the speed of light

d)

Carbon

373.

If waves can behave like particles, then particles can behave like a wave. This is the idea behind...

a)

Quantization of Energy

b)

Photoelectric Effect

c)

Compton Effect

d)

deBroglie Waves

e)

Uncertainty Principle

374.

A ____ is a discrete, quantized bundle of energy

a)

Photoelectric effect

b)

Photon

c)

Quantized

d)

Proton

375.

A monochromatic light beam with a quantum energy of 9.0 eV is incident upon a photocell. The work function of the photocell is 4.1 eV. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the electron.

a)

4.2 eV

b)

4.4 eV

c)

4.7 eV

d)

4.9 eV

376.

In an experiment, photoelectric effect is observed in metal A when light with frequency (f ) falls on the metal. If the light frequency used in this experiment is doubled, the photoelectrons

a)

Will not be ejected

b)

Will be ejected as observed in the previous

c)

Will be ejected with greater number of photoelectrons

d)

Will be ejected with greater kinetic energy

377.

Planck's constant can be found ...

a)

energy of a particle x speed of light / wavelength

b)

energy of a particle x speed of light / frequency of light

c)

energy of a particle x wavelength / speed of light

d)

slope of the cut-off voltage vs frequency graph

378.

the minimum frequency for which the photoelectric effect can occur is called the

a)

absolute frequency

b)

cut off frequency

c)

Lyman frequency

d)

threshold frequency

379.

De Broglie equation

a)

relates the momentum of a mass to its wavelength

b)

relates the energy of a mass to its wavelength

c)

relates the frequency of a mass to its wavelength

d)

relates the work function of a mass to its wavelength

380.

The energy of an emitted photon can be calculated from ...

a)

Plancks constant x frequency of the photon

b)

h x c / wavelength of the light emitted

c)

the difference in the energy levels

d)

all of the above

381.

The figure above shows part of the energy level diagram for a hypothetical atom. Which of the transitions indicated produces the most energetic photons?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

382.

The ground state of a certain type of atom has energy -E0 . What is the wavelength of a photon with enough energy to ionize an atom in the ground state and give the ejected electron a kinetic energy of 2E0?

a)

2hc/E0

b)

hc/3E0

c)

hc/2E0

d)

hc/E0

383.

Which graph best shows the maximum kinetic energy K of the photoelectrons as a function of the frequency of incident light?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
384.

The approximate work-function of this material is

a)

1.5 eV

b)

2.0 eV

c)

2.7 eV

d)

4.0 eV

e)

6.0 eV

385.

What does the slope of this graph represent?

a)

The work-function of the material

b)

Planck's constant in eV-s

c)

the cut-off frequency of the material

d)

Planck's constant in J-s

e)

the kinetic energy of the electrons

386.
Light emitted from a laser has wavelength 350 nm.  Each pulse of light from the laser lasts for only 1.2 × 10–13 s.  The power delivered in a pulse is 8.0 × 104 W.  Calculate the number of photons in a single pulse.
a)
1.7 x 1010
b)
2.2 x 1011
c)
2.9 x 106
d)
6.7 x 1017
387.
The graph shows maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons against frequency of incident light for a number of different metals.
The work function is determined by:
a)
the x-intercept.
b)
the y-intercept.
c)
the gradient.
d)
the area under the graph.
388.
The graph shows maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons against frequency of incident light for a number of different metals.
The threshold frequency is determined by:
a)
the x-intercept.
b)
the y-intercept.
c)
the gradient.
d)
the area under the graph.
389.

Photoelectric effect provides the evidence for the ______ nature of radiation.

a)

dual

b)

wave

c)

particle

d)

electromagnetic

390.

What is the energy, in eV, of a photon that has a wavelength of 620 nm?

a)

1eV

b)

2eV

c)

3eV

d)

4eV

391.

What is the energy, in eV, of a photon that has a wavelength of 620 nm?

a)

1eV

b)

2eV

c)

3eV

d)

4eV

392.

A metal with a work function of 3.5 eV is exposed to photons with an energy of 3.7 eV. What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons?

a)

0.2 eV

b)

0.9 eV

c)

1.1 eV

d)

7.7 eV

393.

What is the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted from caesium (Cs), when light of frequency 1x 1015 Hz falls upon the metal? (work function for Cs is 2.0eV)

a)

8.0x10-19 J

b)

4.0 eV

c)

2.0 x10-19 J

d)

2.0 eV

394.

Use the graph to find the threshold frequency.

a)

−12×10-19 Hz

b)

0 Hz

c)

2×1015 Hz

d)

4×1015 Hz

395.
Protactinium has a half-life of 70 s. A sample of protactinium is prepared and monitored over a period of time. Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
The activity of the protactinium will be zero after 140 s.
b)
The activity of the protactinium will be 25% of its initial value after 140 s.
c)
The activity of the protactinium will be 12.5% of its initial value after 280 s.
d)
The activity of the protactinium will never become zero.
396.
In a famous thought experiment, Schrödinger imagined that a cat is locked in a box, along with a radioactive atom that is connected to a tube containing a deadly poison. If the atom decays, it causes the tube to smash and the cat to die. The random nature of radioactive decay means that the radioactive atom will
a)
decay after one half life
b)
probably decay after one half-life. 
c)
have a fixed probability of decaying in a given time interval
d)
have a number of possible decay paths. 
397.
The fuel used in a nuclear fission reactor is uranium. Which of the following is required for fission to proceed?
a)
Neutrons must be removed from the reactor core.
b)
The reactor core must be very hot
c)
The uranium nuclei must absorb neutrons
d)
The uranium nuclei must absorb protons
398.
A radioactive source is placed a few cm away from a detector. There is no change in the count rate when a thin aluminium foil is placed between the source and the detector, but the count rate is reduced to the background rate when a 0.5 cm aluminium plate is introduced. These observations show that the source must be emitting
a)
alpha and beta radiation
b)
beta and gamma radiation
c)
beta radiation only
d)
gamma radiation only
399.
The force that causes protons and neutrons in the nucleus to attract to one another is the
a)
strong nuclear force
b)
electric repulsion
c)
gravity
d)
weak force
400.
Fission and fusion are both nuclear processes. Which of the following statements is correct for both processes?
a)
Neutrons are released
b)
No harmful radiation is produced
c)
The binding energy per nucleon increases.
d)
The total mass increases
401.
When measuring the count rate from a radioactive source it is usual to also measure the background count rate. The background count rate must be
a)
as large as possible for an accurate experiment
b)
measured when the source is in place
c)
recorded for the same time as the count rate
d)
subtracted from the count rate measured from the source
402.
The ionising properties of radiations determine their penetrating power. Which of the following statements is correct?
a)
Alpha particles are not very ionising so they are stopped by thin paper
b)
Alpha particles are very ionising so they can only travel a few cm in air
c)
gamma radiation is very penetrating because it's very ionising
d)
gamma radiation is not very penetrating because it is very ionising
403.
Radioactive decay is sometimes described as being spontaneous.  In this context spontaneous means 
a)
nothing can influence the decay
b)
the decay is random
c)
the decay can be predicted
d)
the decay is exponential
404.
The total number of free neutrons immediately after a fission reaction 
a)
goes down
b)
goes up
c)
may increase or decrease
d)
must stay constant
405.
Which of the following statements about nuclear fission is correct?
a)
A uranium-235 nucleus can only undergo fission after absorbing a proton.
b)
Kinetic energy is conserved during fission
c)
Linear momentum is not conserved during fission.
d)
The fission fragments have a total mass less than that of the nucleus just before fission.
406.
Which particle type travels the fastest?
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
neutrons
407.
A(n) ______ nucleus will have a longer half-life.
a)
stable
b)
unstable
c)
heavy
d)
light
408.
Which produces more energy--nuclear fission or nuclear fusion?
a)
Fusion
b)
Fission
c)
They produce the same amount
d)
It depends on the elements used
409.
If we start off with element 24X50 after an alpha decay we get another element Y that looks like
a)
22Y50
b)
22Y46
c)
20Y48
d)
26Y54
410.
If we start off with element 24X50 after an gamma decay we get another element that looks like
a)
24X50 
b)
23X50 
c)
24X50 
d)
25X50 
411.
The count rate of an isotope falls from 1000 to 100 in a time of 6 hours. Which of the follwing is closest to the half life of the isotope?
a)
1 hour
b)
2 hours
c)
4 hours
d)
6 hours
412.
What is meant by the statement that 15P32 has a half life of 14 days
a)
It takes 7 days to go down to 50% radioactivity each time
b)
It takes 14 days to go down to 50% radioactivity each time
c)
After 14 days it starts to become less radioactive
d)
It takes 14 days to go up by 50% radioactivity each time
413.
Critical Mass
a)
is a splitting of a heavy atom into lighter atoms
b)
is the amount of material required so that each fission produces 1 more fission reaction
c)
2 light atoms together form a heavier atom
d)
4 hydrogen nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus
414.
Half life
a)
process of changing one element to another
b)
amount of time it takes for half of the nucleotides to decay
c)
half of your life is over
d)
1/2 of the substance
415.
If you start with 100 grams of iodine-131 and the half life is 2 days, how many grams is left after 6 days?
a)
25
b)
12.5
c)
50
d)
200
416.
Protons and neutrons are made of even smaller particles called
a)
electrons
b)
atoms
c)
quarks
d)
metal
417.
A proton is made up of two up quarks and one down quark with charges of +2/3, +2/3, and –1/3. 
a)
True 
b)
False
c)
More information is needed
418.
A baryon is
a)
made of a quark and an anti-quark
b)
made of 3 quarks
c)
a fundamental particle
419.
A neutrino is emitted during
a)
alpha decay
b)
beta decay
c)
positron decay
d)
gamma decay
420.

This type of particle is a high speed electron released from a nucleus that turns a neutron into a proton

a)

α particle\alpha\ particle  

b)

β−particle\beta^-particle  

c)

β+particle\beta^+particle  

d)

Gamma ray

421.

What device acts as the source and the detector of ultrasound waves

a)

A Transducer

b)

A Microphone

c)

A Speaker

d)

An Oscilloscope

422.
Sound travels at 1400m/s in water. If a ship sends a sonar signal to map the bottom of the ocean and it returns after 2 seconds, how deep is the ocean?
a)
700m
b)
1400m
c)
2800m
d)
6000m
423.

As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body it will not undergo a change in

a)

Frequency

b)

Amplitude

c)

Phase

d)

Wavelength

424.

What is ultrasound?

a)

Sound waves above the range of human hearing

b)

Sound waves within the range of human hearing

c)

Sound waves below the range of human hearing

425.

Which scan is used to see fetal movement in pregnant women

a)

PET scan

b)

CT scan

c)

Ultrasound scan

d)

MRI scan

426.

Which of the following is the most penetrating wave on the EM spectrum?

a)

Microwave

b)

Radiowave

c)

Visible light

d)

Gamma rays

427.

Which of the following absorb x-rays the most?

a)

Soft tissue

b)

Organs

c)

Bones

d)

Skin

428.

CT scans give us more detailed 2-D and 3-D views of...

a)

Organs

b)

Bones

c)

Soft tissue

d)

Blood vessels

429.

During a CT scan, the x-ray detector rotates around you.

a)

True

b)

False

430.

Which of the following is a x-ray image?

a)
b)
c)
d)
431.

Which of the following is a CT scan image?

a)
b)
c)
d)
432.

What is the Piezo-Electric effect?

a)

Causing a crystal to shrink and expand at the same frequency using direct current

b)

Causing a crystal to shrink and expand at the same frequency using alternating current

c)

Causing a crystal to shrink and expand at the same frequency using alternating voltages

d)

Passing electricity through a body and giving it a charge

433.

Acoustic impedance is a product of ...

a)

Density x Distance

b)

Density x Voltage

c)

Speed of Sound x Distance

d)

Density x Speed of Sound

434.

The most common piezoelectric material used in ultrasound imaging is

a)

Quartz

b)

Barium Titanate

c)

Lead Metaniabate

d)

Lead Zirconate Titanate

435.

The purpose of the coupling gel is to

a)

Eliminate reflection at the skin's surface due to air

b)

Increase the impedance between the skin and transducer

c)

Decrease the wavelength of sound so that it will be transmitted better into the body

d)

All of the above

436.

A highly compressible medium, such as air, has a low speed of sound, while a less compressible medium, such as bone, has a higher speed of sound.

a)

True

b)

False

437.

A high-frequency ultrasound beam (small wavelength) provides better resolution and image detail than a low- frequency beam

a)

True

b)

False

438.

Calculate the HVT(half value thickness) for bone absorbing ultrasound if the coefficient of absorption is 0.13 cm-1.

a)

5.3 cm

b)

0.21 cm

c)

2.1 cm

d)

8.2 cm

439.

PET stands for (a)   Emission Tomography

440.

When an electron and positron meet and destroy each other it is called...

a)

destruction

b)

combustion

c)

emission

d)

annihilation

441.

Isotopes used in PET scanning should have a...

a)

very short half-life (seconds)

b)

long half-life (days)

c)

medium half life (minutes)

442.

The PET scanner detects at least three pairs of gamma rays to locate a tumour. This is called...

a)

detection

b)

triangulation

c)

echolocation

d)

annihilation

443.

PET scans use x-rays.

a)

True

b)

False

444.

PET scans require an incision.

a)

True

b)

False

445.

Which of the following lists the electromagnetic waves in order of increasing frequency?

a)

X-rays, visible light, radio waves

b)

gamma rays, microwaves, UV rays

c)

infrared rays, x-rays, gamma rays

d)

UV rays, visible light, gamma rays

446.

A wave with a high freqency will have a ______ wavelength and _____ energy

a)

short, low

b)

long, high

c)

short, high

d)

long, low

447.

PET scan patients are injected with a special substance called a

a)

gammatracer

b)

raytracer

c)

radiotracer

d)

UVtracer

448.

Radiotracers can be stored for a long time before they are used

a)

true

b)

false

449.

Small, focused doses of high energy radiation passes through the subject, casting a "shadow" on the machine's sensors

a)

MRI

b)

X-Ray

c)

CT

d)

PET

e)

Ultrasonography

450.

A sectional X-ray. Okay for soft tissues. Great for dense tissues.

a)

MRI

b)

X-Ray

c)

CT

d)

PET

e)

Ultrasonography

451.

high frequency vibrations are focused on the subject. The vibrations are reflected back to the sensor.

a)

MRI

b)

CT

c)

PET

d)

Ultrasonography

e)

X-Ray

452.

Which of the following is an X-ray

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
453.

Produces grainy images of soft tissues. Used exclusively on abdominal structures because it cannot pass through bone.

a)

MRI

b)

X-Ray

c)

CT

d)

PET

e)

Ultrasonography

454.

What is the usual frequency of waves used for ultrasound scanning?

a)

15 kHz

b)

<10 kHz

c)

12 kHz

d)

>20 kHz

455.

An X-rays beam passes through 2 cm of bone and 3 cm of soft-tissue. What is the ratio of transmitted intensity to incident intensity, ITI0\frac{I_{\text{T}}}{I_0} ? (μbone=3.0 cm−1, μmuscle=0.90 cm−1)\left(\mu_{\text{bone}}=3.0\ \text{cm}^{-1},\ \mu_{\text{muscle}}=0.90\ \text{cm}^{-1}\right)

a)

2.5×10−32.5\times10^{-3}  

b)

1.7×10−41.7\times10^{-4}  

c)

6.0×1036.0\times10^3  

d)

0.0670.067  

456.

What of the following are disadvantages of CT scan compared to conventional X-rays scan?

a)

better contrast

b)

more expensive

c)

CT image is 3D

d)

greater dose

457.

Fat has density 925 kg m−3. Speed of sound in fat is 1450 m s−1. What is the acoustic impedance of fat?

a)

0.34 × 106 kg m−2 s−1

b)

1.43 × 106 kg m−2 s−1

c)

1.34 × 106 kg m−2 s−1

d)

4.31 × 106 kg m−2 s−1

458.

A pulse of ultrasound is incident normally on the boundary of muscle and bone. What is the ratio of IrI0\frac{I_r}{I_0} where I0I_0 is incident intensity and IrI_r is reflected intensity?

( Zmuscle=1.7×106 kg m−2 s−1Z_{\text{muscle}}=1.7\times10^6\ \text{kg m}^{-2}\text{ s}^{-1} , Zbone=6.4×106 kg m−1s−2Z_{\text{bone}}=6.4\times10^6\ \text{kg m}^{-1}\text{s}^{-2} )

a)

0.66

b)

0.34

c)

0.58

d)

0.42

459.

What is a CAT scan?

a)

A scan for you cat

b)

Catalysed Anatomical Scanning - an X-Ray that detects higher rates of metabolic reactions

c)

Complete Arterial Topography - multiple X-Rays that take 3D images of the body's arterial topography

d)

Computerised Axial Tomography - multiple X-Ray images that can be combined to give 3D images

460.
In order to improve x-ray image quality and to minimise the radiation dosage...
a)
Keep the x ray source close to the patient.
Have a lead grid to absorb scattered rays.
Put the detection plate as close to the patient as possible.
b)
Keep the x ray source far away from the patient.
Have a lead grid to absorb as many x rays as possible.
Put the detection plate as close to the patient as possible.
c)
Keep the x ray source close to the patient.
Have a lead grid to absorb as many x rays as possible.
Put the detection plate as close to the patient as possible.
d)
Keep the x ray source far away from the patient.
Have a lead grid to absorb scattered rays.
Put the detection plate as close to the patient as possible.
461.
What substance absorbs the most X-ray radiation?
a)
Air
b)
Soft Tissue
c)
Bone
462.

The reason 2 gamma ray photons are produced during positron - electron annihilation is

a)

to balance the mass-energy

b)

to conserve momentum

c)

to conserve the total charge

d)

to balance the number of quarks

463.

The photon has an antiparticle

a)

called the lepton

b)

called the positron

c)

called the meson

d)

false

464.

Ensuring the x-ray beam is parallel and removing any scattered x-rays improves

a)

contrast

b)

depth of view

c)

brightness

d)

power

465.

Astronomical Unit (AU)

a)

distance from Earth to Sun-used to measure distances within our solar system (ex. distance between Mars and Jupiter)

b)

distance light travels in one year-used to measure distances outside our solar system (ex. measuring distances between stars/galaxies)

c)

Theory of early astronomers. Earth is at the center of the universe. The sun and planets would revolve around the Earth.

d)

Sun is at the center of the solar system.

466.

Light Year

a)

distance from Earth to Sun-used to measure distances within our solar system (ex. distance between Mars and Jupiter)

b)

distance light travels in one year-used to measure distances outside our solar system (ex. measuring distances between stars/galaxies)

c)

Theory of early astronomers. Earth is at the center of the universe. The sun and planets would revolve around the Earth.

d)

Sun is at the center of the solar system.

467.

'Spectrum of frequencies emitted due to electron transitions from a higher energy level to a lower one' is the definition of which key term?

a)

Continuous spectrum

b)

Absorption spectrum

c)

Transition spectrum

d)

Emission spectrum

468.

Which of the following are evidence for the big bang?

a)

Cosmic microwave background radiation

b)

Doppler effect

c)

Static electricity

d)

Isotropic

469.

What is a comet?

a)

Large rocky ball of ice that orbits the sun

b)

Cluster of billions of stars

c)

Lumps of rock or iron that orbit the sun

d)

Minor planets

470.

Sirius and Canopus are the 2nd and the 3rd brightest stars after the Sun.

Canopus has a much greater luminosity than Sirius but is it is dimmer than Sirius. This is because Canopus is much (a)   .

471.

Which of the following is the correct relationship for Wein's displacement law?

a)

λmax⁡T=\lambda_{\max}T=  constant

b)

fmax⁡T=f_{\max}T=  constant

c)

λmax⁡T=\frac{\lambda_{\max}}{T}=  constant

d)

fmax⁡T=\frac{f_{\max}}{T}=  constant

472.

The peak of the distribution of wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by the Sun is in the region of ________.

a)

infrared

b)

X-rays

c)

visible light

d)

microwave

473.

What phenomenon leads to the idea that the Universe is expanding?

a)

redshift

b)

greenshift

c)

blueshift

d)

purpleshift

474.

Light from almost all galaxies are red-shifted. This means that the galaxies _____ .

a)

are not moving

b)

are moving away from us

c)

are moving towards us

d)

are moving around us.

475.

One absorption line observed from a distant star has a wavelength of 722 nm. This line has a wavelength of 705 nm in the lab. What is the speed of the star?

a)

7.2×1067.2\times10^6 m s-1

b)

3.6×1063.6\times10^6 m s-1

c)

4.2×1064.2\times10^6 m s-1

d)

7.6×1067.6\times10^6 m s-1

476.

Hubble's law states that ......

a)

the recession speed of a galaxy is not related to the its distance from the Earth

b)

the recession speed of a galaxy is directly proportional to its distance from the Earth

c)

the recession speed of a galaxy is inversely proportional to its distance from the Earth

d)

the recession speed of a galaxy is inversely proportional to the square of its distance from the Earth

477.

Which of the following statements is true according to the Big Bang theory? (Select all.)

a)

The universe started from a single point.

b)

Galaxies are moving away from each other because of the expansion of

c)

The universe will continue to expand in size forever.

d)

The early universe is much smaller and hotter.

478.

What is the current best estimate of the age of the Universe?

a)

14,000 years (14 kyr)

b)

14,000,000 years (14 Myr)

c)

14,000,000,000 years (14 Gyr)

d)

14,000,000,000,000 years (14 Tyr)

479.

Which of the following states that: The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater the galaxies recessional speed and therefore its comological redshift?

a)

Hubble's Law

b)

Einsteins Theory of Relativity

c)

String Theory

d)

Inflationary Model of the Universe

480.

What is the name of the galaxy in which we live?

a)

Snickers

b)

Andromeda

c)

Polaris

d)

Milky Way

481.

What is meant by cosmic background radiation?

a)

It is radiation of distant quasars.

b)

It is radiation from hot gas in intergalactic space.

c)

It is radiation created by the early universe.

d)

It is radiation leftover from supernovas.

482.

What is Hubble's Law?

a)
Hubble's Law is a law of physics that states that the universe is constantly expanding
b)
Hubble's Law is a law of physics that states that the universe is constantly contracting
c)
Hubble's Law is a law of physics that states that the universe is static
d)
Hubble's Law is a law of physics that states that the universe is constantly rotating
483.

What is the Doppler Effect?

a)
A change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer
b)
The effect of gravity on light
c)
The effect of temperature on sound waves
d)
The effect of humidity on radio waves
484.

Red-Shift: Light moving _____

a)
away from the observer
b)
towards the observer
c)
in a circular path
d)
in a straight line
485.

Blue-Shift: Light moving _____

a)
away from the observer
b)
in a straight line
c)
in a circular path
d)
towards the observer
486.

What is the current accepted age of the universe according to many Big Bang cosmologists?

a)
13.8 billion years
b)

10.4 billion years

c)

15.4 billion years

d)

20.9 billion years

487.

The diagram below shows the spectral lines for an element.


Which diagram best represents the spectral lines of this element when its light is observed coming from a star that is moving away from Earth?

a)
b)
c)
d)
488.

The diagram shows a standard spectrum (the star’s fingerprint) compared to a spectrum produced from a distant star.


Which conclusion can be made by comparing the standard spectrum to the spectrum produced from this distant star?

a)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum and the star is moving toward Earth.

b)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum and the star is moving away from Earth.

c)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the red end of the spectrum and the star is moving toward Earth.

d)

The star’s spectral lines have shifted toward the red end of the spectrum and the star is moving away from Earth.

489.

In the diagram, the spectral lines (fingerprint) of hydrogen gas from three galaxies, A, B, and C, are compared to the spectral lines of hydrogen gas observed in a laboratory.

What is the best conclusion that can be made about the movement of galaxies A, B, and C?

a)

Galaxy A is moving away from Earth, but galaxies B and C are moving toward Earth.

b)

Galaxy B is moving away from Earth, but galaxies A and C are moving toward Earth.

c)

Galaxies A, B, and C are all moving toward Earth.

d)

Galaxies A, B, and C are all moving away from Earth.

490.

The Doppler effect predicts that light from a source moving away from Earth will have

a)

shorter wavelengths.

b)

longer wavelengths.

491.

Calculate the peak wavelength of an object with a surface temperature of 5000 K using Wein's Displacement Law.

a)

580 nm

b)

4500 nm

c)

2000 nm

d)

3500 nm

492.

If the peak wavelength of an object is 600 nm, what is its surface temperature according to Wein's Displacement Law?

a)

7000 K

b)

5500 K

c)

3000 K

d)

4833 K

493.

λmax⁡T\lambda_{\max}T = constant is the equation of

a)

Stefan-Boltzmann's law

b)

Hubble's law

c)

Wien's displacement law

d)

Big Bang theory

494.

In Stefan-Boltzmann's expression, L=4πσ2r2T4L=4\pi\sigma^2r^2T^4 , σ\sigma is

a)

radius of the star

b)

luminosity of the star

c)

surface temperature of the star

d)

Stefan-Boltzmann constant = 5.67 ×10−8 Wm−2K−45.67\ \times10^{-8}\ Wm^{-2}K^{-4}

495.

The surface temperature of the sun is 5800 K and wavelength of light at peak intensity is 500 nm.

The wavelength at peak intensity for Sirius-B (a white dwarf star) is 120 nm.

What is the surface temperature of Sirius-B in Kelvin?

(a)  

496.

In the laboratory, an emission spectral line is observed at a wavelength of 656.4 nm.

The same spectral line, in the spectrum from a distant galaxy, has a wavelength of 663.1 nm.

Calculate the speed v of the galaxy.

a)

3.06×106 ms−13.06\times10^6\ ms^{-1}

b)

2.9×108 ms−12.9\times10^8\ ms^{-1}

c)

3.06×108 ms−13.06\times10^8\ ms^{-1}

d)

2.9×106 ms−12.9\times10^6\ ms^{-1}

497.

The gradient of this graph shows you

a)

the luminosity L of the star

b)

the Stefan-Boltzmann constant, σ\sigma

c)

the Hubble constant, H0H_0

d)

the product of peak wavelength and surface temperature,

λmax⁡T\lambda_{\max}T

498.

Standard candle is:

a)

The total radiant power emitted from the star.

b)

An astronomical object of unknown luminosity.

c)

An astronomical object of known luminosity.

d)

an idealised object that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation falling on it.

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11th Grade - University