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Unity Certification Prep-Chapters 1-5

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Concept art:

a)

Lays our every light and material used

b)

Is only useful in a first-person game

c)

Provides a unifying point for art direction

d)

Helps defines gameplay and mechanics

2.

Possible release of information about work at a studio is often governed by this kind of legal contract

a)

Non-Disclosure Agreement

b)

Constitution of Intellectual Property

c)

Civil Disclosure Agreement

d)

Contract of Binding

3.

Some accumulation, attacking and player health are examples of

a)

Game narrative

b)

Audio implementations

c)

Game mechanics

d)

Physics implementation

4.

This game type often features mechanics such as card games, board games, simple arcade style games and puzzles:

a)

Installation games

b)

Casual games

c)

Console games

d)

Exploration games

5.

At a game studio, this person is responsible for ensuring the overall look and feel is consistent:

a)

Concept artist

b)

Game Designer

c)

Level Designer

d)

Art Director

6.

The first thing to consider when making a game is

a)

The game platform

b)

The target audience

c)

The game engine

d)

The distribution channel

7.

One of the most significant difference between players and how they engage in games is?

a)

Play style (core vs. casual)

b)

Culture

c)

Gender

d)

Age

8.

The term game platform refers to

a)

The computing hardware and operating system

b)

The game engine

c)

The programing language

d)

The table the game system rests upon

9.

All of the following can be considered game technology EXCEPT.

a)

Game Code

b)

Operating system

c)

Game engine

d)

Game Players

10.

On a small team (less than 5 people), the primary game development roles are all the following EXCEPT?

a)

Artist

b)

Designer

c)

Producer

d)

Programmer

11.

During what phase of game production do artists work on the Concept Art, Storyboards, and animatics?

a)

Pre-production

b)

Conceptualization

c)

Production

d)

Post Production

12.

The document that helps express the vision of the game and plan for implementation.

a)

Concept Document

b)

Design Document

c)

Technical Design Doc

d)

Standards Guide

13.

The equipment requirements, development schedule and naming convention is documented in the?

a)

Standards Guide

b)

Design Document

c)

Concept Document

d)

Technical Design Doc

14.

All of the following are advantages of game engines EXCEPT

a)

Allows you to access the hardware directly to achieve maximum performance

b)

May allow you to move your game from one game platform to another easier

c)

Others are using the engine so there is a community of knowledge available

d)

Provide core functionality so you can focus on what is unique in your game

15.

Game engines such as Unity, usually also come with

a)

Engine source code

b)

Game Editor Tools

c)

Blueprint mode

16.

What do you use to manage Unity installations?

a)

Unity Hub

b)

Unity Collaborate

c)

Unity

17.

What must you have in order to use Unity Cloud Build

a)

Source Control

b)

Unity Collaborate

c)

Visual Studio

18.

What role in game development is often split into further specialization for overseeing characters, environments and effects?

a)

Technical Artist

b)

Level Designer

c)

Animator

19.

What game genre focuses on your timing and reflexes?

a)

Casual

b)

Strategy

c)

Adventure

d)

Action

20.

The game platform, genre and target market dictates the

a)

Game mechanics

b)

Narrative

c)

Physics

21.

Which window allows parenting (grouping) of gameObjects

a)

Hierarchy Window

b)

Scene View Window

c)

Project Window

d)

Inspector Window

22.

Which window in the Unity Editor allows you to view, sort and organize all of the assets for the game?

a)

Hierarchy Window

b)

Scene View Window

c)

Project Window

d)

Inspector Window

23.

The project Window allows you to:

a)

Parent Objects in a hierarchy

b)

Modify the file structure of assets

c)

Add components to GameObjects

d)

Chance the minimum size of textures

24.

To reconfigure the Unity Editor user interface:

a)

Drag windows by their tabs into new locations

b)

Choose > Window Locations from the menu

c)

Open the windowsprefs.cs script and enter positions

d)

Control + click on the tabs and choose Reposition

25.

The Scene View is used for building scenes.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

26.

What is the Game tab used for?

a)

promoting your game

b)

compiling your projects into standalone games

c)

designing gameplay

d)

play-testing your projects

27.

A Unity Project is considered a single file in storage

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

What does the Object Inspector let you do?

a)

edit properties for selected objects

b)

export properties from selected objects

c)

edit mesh vertices

d)

import assets into your project

29.

In Unity you assemble what in the Unity scene view?

a)

Game models

b)

Game objects

c)

Components

d)

Game Assets

30.

In Unity, the entire hierarchy (not just a selected element in the hierarchy) corresponds to what is in the?

a)

Components

b)

Project Panel

c)

Inspector

d)

Scene

31.

A transform contains all the following EXCEPT

a)

Scale

b)

Mass

c)

Position

d)

Rotation

32.

Changes made in the inspector window during play mode are permanent changes after exiting play mode.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

33.

Modifying the organization of assets is done in the?

a)

Inspector Window

b)

Scene View Window

c)

Hierarchy Window

d)

Project Window

34.

In the Project Window you can search by all of the following EXCEPT

a)

Date

b)

Name

c)

Tag

d)

Type

35.

Which of the following statements best differentiates a Quad from a Plane?

a)

The plane has internal divisions and more polygons

b)

The plane has less geometry

c)

Quads can be sculpted using terrain tools

d)

The Quad is double-sided

36.

A prefab in Unity Editor is?

a)

An asset type that stores a GameObject with components and properties

b)

A special kind of GameObject that assesses Animators without scripting

c)

A modular component attached to a GameObject for scripting and animation

d)

A file format that allows the transfer of assets between Unity Projects and scenes

37.

Saving a scene saves?

a)

The current placement of objects in the scene and hierarchy

b)

Object transforms, project setting and undo history

c)

All associated scenes and assets bundles in a project

d)

The inspector settings, scripts, assets and nested Prefab structure

38.

Unity can import this transfer file format for models having mesh, bones, skin weights, and animations

a)

FBX

b)

HCQ

c)

OBJ

d)

DXF

39.

Which tool allows you to manually slice an image into multiple sprites?

a)

The Sprite Editor

b)

The UI Canvas

c)

The 2D Prefab Editor

d)

The Bitmap Tool

40.

Which of the following components is applied to every gameObject?

a)

Transform

b)

RigidBody

c)

Collider

d)

Animator

41.

What is the keyboard shortcut for the move tool?

a)

W

b)

E

c)

R

d)

Q

42.

What colors (in order) are X, Y, and Z-axes represented as typcially?

a)

Red, Green, Blue

b)

Purple, Yellow, Orange

c)

Blue, Red, Green

d)

White, Black, Grey

43.

Components can be removed from a gameObject if they are no longer needed

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What is the preferred file format for importing models into Unity?

a)

FBX

b)

MAX

c)

OBJ

d)

MAYA

45.

What type of texture is used to create faux texture on models?

a)

Normal maps

b)

Sprite

c)

Default

d)

Lightmap

46.

Working with textures sized to the "Power of 2" will compress better

a)

True

b)

False

47.

All GameObjects must be made in an external application and be important as assets into Unity.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Which of the following texture file formats are NOT supported by Unity?

a)

AI

b)

PSD

c)

TIFF

d)

JPG

49.

Dragging a GameObject from the Hierarchy into the assets folder will create a(n)?

a)

Prefab

b)

Copy

c)

Image

d)

None of the answers are correct

50.

Acceptable formats for audio are:

a)

AIFF, MP3, WAV, and Ogg

b)

WAV, MP4, Ogg and AVI

c)

MIDI, RCA, IFF, and MP3

d)

MP3, QuickTime and Ogg

51.

The project window toolbar allows searching assets by

a)

Label and Type

b)

Type and Tag

c)

Label and Color

d)

Tag and Parent

52.

Modifying the organization of assets is done in the?

a)

Project Window

b)

Hierarchy

c)

Inspector

d)

Services

53.

Which script type is supported by Unity?

a)

C#

b)

Python

c)

Lua

d)

Pascal

54.

The Breadcrumb trail in the project window shows?

a)

The file path of the selected assets

b)

The structure of the open project

c)

The local repository clone

d)

The file path of the Unity Project

55.

One of the first parts to successful asset management is good?

a)

Naming Structure

b)

Version Control

c)

File Formats

d)

Commenting

56.

To help Unity locate project assets, it will create hidden

a)

Meta Files

b)

Database

c)

Backup files

d)

Text files

57.

Which of the following will help you quickly search for an asset using the search feature?

a)

Tagging Assets

b)

Using Camel case naming

c)

Organizing by folder

d)

Using a prefix naming convention

58.

Typically, textures are created at what resolution?

a)

2X the requirement

b)

Exact size needed

c)

No bigger than 1024 pixels

d)

High resolution 4K

59.

In larger scale projects, which of the following naming convention examples might be used, for a version one of a specific static environment model?

a)

ESMo_A01_v01.fbs

b)

Environment Model001.fbx

c)

StaticModel_Environment.fbx

d)

Environment.fbx

60.

The albedo of a material is defined as:

a)

The color of the material without any lighting data

b)

The diffuse color of the material in general light

c)

The blocking of bounced light by adjacent surfaces

d)

A raw diffuse color before any weathering is applied

61.
  1. The _______ material property causes polygons to appear and light as if they had more surface detail? 

a)

Normal

b)

Emission

c)

Smoothness

d)

Metallic

62.

The specular property of a material

a)

Controls the color and strength of reflection

b)

Modifies the surface to sow more detail than polygons actually have

c)

Controls the spreading of light on microsurface detail

d)

Defines where the surfaces will receive high or low amounts of indirect light

63.

Which material rendering mode uses black in the alpha channel to define where a material is exactly NOT appearing?

a)

Cutout

b)

Opaque

c)

Transparency

d)

Fade

64.

This material property controls the spreading of light on a microsurface detail

a)

Smoothness

b)

Normal

c)

Metallic

d)

Ambient occlusion

65.

Which of the following is NOT a guideline for clean polygonal modeling?

a)

Keep polygon count high

b)

Work with quads

c)

Merge and weld all vertices

d)

Keep mesh uniformed and balanced (symmetry)

66.

You should always paint your model textures at the minimum resolution required

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Texture maps should be at what ratio?

a)

1:1

b)

4:3

c)

16:9

d)

16:10

68.

The preferred format for exporting models is:

a)

FBX

b)

OBJ

c)

MAX

d)

MAYA

69.

Before exporting you should delete history on your static meshes, i.e. collapse to editable poly

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Which of the following is NOT supported in import to Unity from a 3D application?

a)

NURBS

b)

Bone-based animations

c)

Translate, Rotate, Scale

d)

Multiple materials and textures

71.

What material shader allows for a procedural sky

a)

Skybox

b)

Standard

c)

UI

d)

FX

72.

When creating Unity materials, it is best to work with an unlit scene

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

73.

To make a glass like material which material rendering mode should you use?

a)

Transparent

b)

Cutout

c)

Opaque

74.

Textures which seamlessly repeat allow for using better resolution, repeating over space.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE