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AP Biology MidTerm Review (Unit 1-4 CED)

Total questions: 209

Worksheet time: 3hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following does not result from hydrogen bonding in water molecules?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Surface Tension

d)

Dissolving fats

2.

Why is water considered polar?

a)

Nonpolar covalent bonds in structure

b)

Ionic bonds in structure

c)

Polar covalent bonds in structure

d)

Hydrophobic interaction in structure

3.

Which macromolecule(s) have nitrogen?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Nucleic Acids & Proteins

4.

Which macromolecule(s) have phosphorus?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

5.

Which macromolecule(s) have sulfur?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Fats

6.

Describes the forming of a bond between monomers with the removal of a water molecule.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

7.

Describes the breaking of a bond within a polymer using water.

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration

8.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a nucleic acid?

a)

pentose sugar

b)

nitrogenous base

c)

phosphate

d)

amino acid

9.

Which of the following is NOT in the monomer of a protein?

a)

Amine Group

b)

R Group

c)

Carboxyl Group

d)

Nitrogenous Base

10.

Describe the orientation of the phospholipids in the membrane.

a)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophilic heads on exterior

b)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophilic head on extracellular

c)

Phospholipids orient in bilayer with hydrophobic tails on exterior

d)

Phospholipids orient in monolayer with hydrophobic tails on extracellular

11.

How is DNA/RNA synthesis directionally oriented?

a)

new nucleotides are added to 5' phosphate

b)

new nucleotides are added to 3' phosphate

c)

new nucleotides are added to 5' hydroxyl

d)

new nucleotides are added to 3' hydroxyl

12.

Identify the pairing and number of bonds in DNA double helix

a)

A pairs with T (2 bonds) & G pairs with C (3 bonds)

b)

A pairs with G (2 bonds) & T pairs with C (3 bonds)

c)

A pairs with T (3 bonds) & G pairs with C (2 bonds)

d)

A pairs with G (3 bonds) & T pairs with C (2 bonds)

13.

What component of the polypeptide is the next amino acid added forming the peptide bond?

a)

amino group

b)

hydrogen

c)

carboxyl group

d)

R groups

14.

Which protein involves R group bonding to form the final three dimensional structure?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

15.

Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

16.

DNA and RNA differ on many qualities, which of the following is NOT a difference?

a)

Sugar

b)

Nitrogenous Base

c)

Phosphate Group

d)

Strandedness

17.

What type of bond is found BETWEEN water molecules?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Ionic bonds

c)

Nonpolar covalent bonds

d)

Polar covalent bonds

18.

Surface tension of water is the cohesive force between water molecules and other molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Cohesive force between water molecules and adhesive force between water molecules and other molecules enable this phenomenon to occur.

a)

Surface tension

b)

Capillary action

c)

Float on water

d)

Photosynthesis

20.

Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?

a)

The hydrogen end

b)

The oxygen end

c)

Both ends are slightly positive

d)

Neither end is positive

21.

What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Capillary action

d)

Surface tension

22.

When water molecules stick easily to other water molecules, this is called what?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Solution

d)

Polar molecule

23.

Water beads up on the surface of a penny because of what property?

a)

Adhesion

b)

High surface tension

c)

Universal solvent

d)

Changes in density

24.

The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that water's solid form is _____________ than its liquid form.

a)

Less polar

b)

More polar

c)

Less dense

d)

More dense

25.

The tightness across the surface of water that enables insects to walk on it is

a)

Adhesion

b)

Capillary action

c)

Surface tension

d)

Polarity

26.

Which statement explains why water molecules stick together?

a)

Both sides are negative

b)

One side has a positive charge and the other side has a negative charge

c)

One side has a negative charge and the other side has a neutral charge

d)

Both sides are positive

27.

Large bodies of water help to keep nearby climates from being too hot or too cold because they

a)

Absorb heat in the spring and slowly release that heat in the fall

b)

Absorb heat in the fall and slowly release that heat in the spring

c)

Absorb heat in the summer and slowly release that heat in the winter

d)

Absorb heat in the winter and slowly release that heat in the summer

28.

A difference between RNA and DNA

a)

The sugar involved

b)

No pyrimidines

c)

No purines

d)

Different phosphates

29.

A difference between RNA and DNA

a)

Ionic bonding

b)

Covalent bonding

c)

Thymine and Uracil

d)

Guanine and Cytosine

30.

The ratio of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in carbohydrates

a)

2:1:1

b)

1:2:1

c)

1:2:2

d)

1:1:1

31.

Why is the bottom part of this triglyceride bent?

a)

A nitrogen is added

b)

It just is

c)

Deformed

d)

Double bond

32.

Which of the following element(s) are the main components in lipids?

a)

Carbon and Hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sulfur

33.

Which of the following describes why lipids are hydrophobic?

a)

Lipids are composed mostly of hydrocarbons which are nonpolar

b)

Lipids have hydrogen bonds that repel the hydrogen bonds in water

c)

Lipids have more neutrons in their atoms, making the compound neutral

d)

Lipids are gaseous materials that do not dissolve in water

34.

Which of the following functional groups would you always find in an amino acid?

a)

-OH

b)

-NH2

c)

-CO

d)

CH3

35.

Which of the following is true of RNA?

a)

Double stranded helix

b)

Single stranded

c)

Has the base Thymine

d)

Has the sugar deoxyribose

36.

 

Amino acids are classified according to

a)

Sequence of amino acids

b)

If they are single stranded or double stranded

c)

The properties of the R group

d)

The properties of the carboxyl group

37.

The tertiary structure of a protein is dependent on

a)

the sequence of amino acids

b)

interactions between the amino acid backbone

c)

the interactions of the R groups

d)

Binding of two or more polypeptides together

38.

Which molecules would contain the element phosphorus?

a)

Carboyhydrates and lipids

b)

Nucleic acids and lipids

c)

Proteins and carbohydrates

d)

Proteins and nucleic acids

39.

Which statement describes an ionic bond?

a)

Two atoms share a pair or electrons equally

b)

Two atoms share a pair of electrons unequally

c)

One atom gives up an electron to another, and oppositely charged atoms form a bond

d)

One atom shares a proton equally

40.

Why is ice less dense than liquid water?

a)

Partial charges of water molecules repel each other

b)

Water has a high surface tension, keeping ice on the surface

c)

As water cools the hydrogen bonds keep molecules separate from each other

d)

As water cools the hydrogen bonds draw the molecules more closely together

41.

What is the monomer of proteins?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Nucleotides

42.

What is the monomer of carbohydrates?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Nucleotides

43.

What is the monomer of nucleic acids?

a)

Fatty acids

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Nucleotides

44.

What type of reaction is shown in the image?

a)

Dehydration synthesis

b)

Hydrolsis

c)

DNA replication

d)

RNA translation

45.

In an experiment testing the effect of fertilizer on plant height, what is the dependent variable?

a)

Amount of fertilizer

b)

Amount of sunlight

c)

Amount of water

d)

Plant height

46.

Which of the following might denature proteins?

a)

Increased temperature

b)

Change in pH

c)

Ultraviolet light

d)

All of these would denature proteins

47.

In an experiment looking at the effects of supplemental growth hormone on the weight of rats, what would go on the y axis?

a)

amount of growth hormone

b)

weight of rats

c)

time of rats in a maze

d)

temperature of the rats' environment

48.

Which of the following is correctly defined as the attraction of the hydrogen from one molecule to the oxygen of a different molecule?

a)

amphipathic

b)

hydrophobic

c)

hydrogen bonding

d)

adhesion

49.

In DNA, Thymine bonds with

a)

Adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Guanine

d)

Uracil

50.

Structures of carbohydrates are

a)

monomers

b)

chains of monomers

c)

branched structures

d)

all of the options

51.

The process in the picture is called

a)

Dehydration synthesis

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Glyosidic linking

d)

Atomic bonding

52.

Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?

a)

Water is an acid

b)

Water has a high heat capacity.

c)

Water acts as a buffer.

d)

Water is a versatile solvent.

53.

Small insects can walk across the surface of calm water. Their feet push the surface of the water down slightly, somewhat like a person walking across a trampoline, but they do not break the surface. What is the best explanation for why this happens?

a)

The insects are light enough so that they do not break the hydrogen bonds holding the water molecules together

b)

The insects actually use their wings to hover slightly above the water's surface and they only skim it with their feet

c)

The insects' feet are non-polar, so they are repelled by the polar water molecules and are pushed away from the water's surface

d)

The insects are small enough to see the individual water molecules, so they are able to step carefully from one molecule to the next

54.

What functional group is -OH

a)

Amino

b)

Hydroxyl

c)

Methyl

d)

Carboxyl

55.

What functional group is shown?

a)

Methyl

b)

Hydroxyl

c)

Carbonyl

d)

Carboxyl

56.

What functional group is shown?

a)

Methyl

b)

Hydroxyl

c)

Carbonyl

d)

Carboxyl

57.

 

Atoms in molecules share pairs of electrons when they form

a)

Covalent bonds

b)

Ionic Bonds

c)

Polymers

d)

Hydrogen bonds

58.
Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason for this phenomenon?
a)
Water is an acid.
b)
Water is a versatile solvent.
c)
Water has a high heat capacity.
d)
 Water acts as a buffer.
59.

A scientist grew Chlorella, a single-celled photosynthetic algae, for three weeks in a laboratory culture. The culture medium contained dissolved carbon and other nutrients.


Scientists measured the beginning and the end of the three week period. Based on the results of the graph which nutriets were absent from the culture medium?

a)

phosphorus

b)

nitrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

sulfur

60.

DNA and RNA have the same 5-carbon sugar and the same nucleotides.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Substitution of amino acids in primary struture does not affect subsequent levels of protein folding.

a)

True

b)

False

62.
The tertiary structure folding in proteins is primary due to the interactions of....
a)
the 'R' groups
b)
the 'P' groups
c)
the 'A' groups
d)
the 'S'
63.
The two types of folding in the secondary structure are.....
a)
alpha-helix & beta-pleated sheets
b)
polypeptide & nucleotide
c)
globular & fibrous
64.

Which protein structure involves the peptide bonds between amino acids?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

65.
What macromolecule makes up the cell membrane's lining?
a)
Saturated Fatty acid chains
b)
Phospholipids
c)
Polypeptide chains
d)
Cellulose polysaccharide Chains
66.
Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a membrane
a)
glucose
b)
NaCl
c)
proteins
d)
water
67.
Which of the following is responsible for getting large or charged (polar) molecules across the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
68.
A saltwater snail is placed in freshwater. What happens to its cells?
a)
They shrink
b)
They swell
c)
Nothing happens
69.
If a hospital patient is mistakenly given an IV of pure water instead of a saline solution that is isotonic to blood, the patient’s red blood cells will
a)
shrink and collapse
b)
release water to the plasma along its concentration gradient
c)
absorb water from the plasma and eventually burst
d)
transport equal amounts of water across the cell membrane in both directions
70.
Which statement about cholesterol molecules is true?
a)
They help hold a membrane together.
b)
They alter the fluidity of the membrane.
c)
They attach to carbohydrates.
d)
They disrupt membrane function.
71.
Which of the following is the driving force for simple diffusion?
a)
Concentration gradient
b)
ATP hydrolysis
c)
ADP hydrolysis
d)
Phosphorylation
72.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
73.
Food is moved into the cell by ________________________.
a)
endocytosis
b)
pinocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
74.
This picture represents which type of cellular transport?
a)
passive transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
exocytosis
d)
osmosis
75.
A cell in a hypotonic solution will
a)
swell
b)
shrink 
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
76.
In what direction do particles naturally diffuse?
a)
Up the concentration gradient
b)
Down the concentration gradient
c)
Across the concentration gradient
d)
Over the river and through the woods
77.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A 
78.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E 
79.

When particles move from low to high concentration

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Active Transport

80.
_______________  requires energy in the form of ATP
a)
Osmosis
b)
Active transport
c)
Facilitated diffusion
d)
Passive transport
81.
In facilitated diffusion, molecules will randomly move through the pores in ______________.
a)
Carrier proteins 
b)
Channel proteins
c)
Ion pumps
d)
All of the above
82.
This picture represents what type of cell transport?
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
osmosis
d)
passive transport
83.
Using this image, what organelle is C?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Large Cell Vacuole
d)
Chloroplast
84.
What is the function of the mitochondria?
a)
Structure that manufactures ribosomes
b)
Structures that converts nutrients to energy
c)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
d)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell
85.
What is the function of the vacuole?
a)
Sac that stores water, nutrients, and waste products
b)
Sac filled with digestive chemicals
c)
Jelly-like substance within the plasma membrane
d)
stack of membranes that packages chemicals
86.
I make proteins for the cell. What am I?
a)
ribosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
chloroplast
d)
lysosome
87.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
88.
What cell part is NOT found in all cells?
a)
Cell Wall
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Genetic Material
89.
Complex cell. Can be plant or animal. Contains membrane bound organelles. 
a)
Eukaryotic Cell
b)
Prokaryotic Cell
c)
Bacteria
d)
Blood cell
90.
What does this organism use for movement?
a)
Pseudopod
b)
Cilia
c)
Flagella
d)
legs
91.
Where are ribosomes produced?
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Golgi body
d)
Vessicle
92.
What is found in both plant and animal cells but is much larger in plant cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondrion
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Vacuole
93.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
94.
Using this image, what organelle is D?
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Flagella
c)
Rough ER
d)
Smooth ER
95.
What is the function of nucleus?
a)
Structure that organizes motion of chromosomes. 
b)
Structure that contains DNA and directs the cell 
c)
Membrane that surrounds and protects the cell 
d)
Stack of membranes that packages chemicals
96.
What is the difference between rough and smooth ER?
a)
There is no difference.
b)
Plants have rough ER, animals have smooth ER.
c)
What type of injuries the Doctors treat.
d)
Rough has ribosomes, smooth does not.
97.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
98.

Where are lipids formed?

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Nucleus

d)

Ribosomes

99.

Major component of the lipid bilayer cell membrane.

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Channel Proteins

c)

Phospholipids

d)

Glycolipid/glycoprotein complexes

100.

The hydrophilic head of the phospholipid ___ to interact with water and is said to be ____.

a)

Loves, polar

b)

Loves, nonpolar

c)

Hates, polar

d)

Hates, nonpolar

101.

Because the cell membrane is composed of many small parts that move together as a system, it is said to be _____ _____ (two words).

(a)  

102.

Which organelle uses digestive enzymes to break down old cellular components and/or invading bacteria/virsus and recycles those components to other organelles for use in building new macromolecules?

a)

Gap junction

b)

Nucleus

c)

Golgi Body

d)

Lysosome

103.

Facilitated diffusion occurs when what kind(s) of molecules require a channel or carrier protein to enter the cell membrane?

a)

small, non-polar

b)

large, non-polar

c)

small, polar

d)

large, polar

104.

Which substance would most easily pass through the cell membrane?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Glucose

c)

Sodium ions

d)

Water

105.

During osmosis, water always moves from an area of ____ solute concentration to ____ solute concentration.

a)

high, high

b)

high, low

c)

low, low

d)

low, high

106.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. Which organelle synthesized the protein?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

107.

Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that is associated with defects in the CFTR protein found in the membrane. After being synthesized, where does it go to be modified, packaged, and sorted?

a)

Golgi Bodies

b)

Rough ER

c)

Smooth ER

d)

Lysosome

108.

The following data was collected by observing subcellular structures of three different types of cells. How can you determine these are eukaryotic cells?

a)

They have ribosomes.

b)

They have membrane bound organelles.

c)

They have DNA.

d)

The have a plasma membrane.

109.

Where is the mRNA used for synthesis of proteins made?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

rough ER

d)

smooth ER

110.

What organelle is responsible for storing calcium?

a)

lysosome

b)

smooth ER

c)

rough ER

d)

Golgi Bodies

111.

Tay Sachs results from a build-up of fats due to an error in which organelle that is responsible for digesting macromolecules?

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosome

d)

Golgi Bodies

112.

If ATP breakdown (hydrolysis) is inhibited, which of the following types of movement across cell membranes is also inhibited?

a)

Movement of oxygen into a cell

b)

Movement of water through aquaporins

c)

Passage of a solute against its concentration gradient

d)

Facilitated diffusion of a permeable substance

113.

You are a doctor. A patient comes in dehydrated. What type of solution would be best to place into their IV?

a)

A hypotonic solution to allow the cells to rehydrate.

b)

A slightly hypertonic solution to allow the cells to rehydrate.

c)

An isotonic solution to increase fluid in the body without causing harm to the cells.

d)

An isotonic solution to decrease fluid in the body without causing harm to the cells.

114.

Which of the following describes an appropriate water movement pathway?

a)

hypotonic solution to hypertonic solution

b)

hypertonic solution to hypotonic solution

c)

hypertonic solution to isotonic solution

d)

isotonic solution to hypotonic solution

115.

What is the difference between the molecule transported in facilitated diffusion versus simple diffusion?

a)

facilitated diffusion involves nonpolar solute transport through a membrane protein

b)

simple diffusion involves nonpolar solute transport through a membrane protein

c)

facilitated diffusion involves polar solute transport through a membrane protein

d)

simple diffusion involved polar solute transport through a membrane protein

116.

Which of the following describes the difference between passive and active transport?

a)

passive transport involves moving solutes against the concentration gradient using ATP.

b)

active transport involves moving solutes against the concentration gradient using ATP.

c)

passive transport involves moving solutes with the concentration gradient using ATP.

d)

active transport involves moving solutes with the concentration gradient using ATP.

117.

Which of the following describes the difference between channel and carrier transport proteins?

a)

channel proteins bind to solute to shuttle the solute across the membrane

b)

channel proteins provide a nonpolar channel through the membrane

c)

carrier proteins bind to solute to shuttle the solute across the membrane

d)

carrier proteins provide a nonpolar channel through the membrane

118.
All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
a)
ribosomes.
b)
an endoplasmic reticulum.
c)
a cell wall.
d)
DNA.
119.

Where on an enzyme does the substrate bind?

a)

active site

b)

allosteric site

c)

C-terminus

d)

N-terminus

120.

Which environmental conditions can cause denaturation of the enzyme?

a)

slight increase in temperature

b)

extreme increase in temperature

c)

decrease in temperature

d)

extreme increase in temperature and pH changes

121.

Which of the following will increase the rate of the reaction?

a)

increase product

b)

increase substrate

c)

increase inhibitor

d)

increase enzyme

122.

Describe why an increase in temperature increases the rate of the reaction.

a)

increase in temperature increases the speed/kinetic energy of particles

b)

increase in temperature activates more enzyme to increase the rate

c)

increase in temperature results in increase in substrate available

d)

increase in temperature allows for a tighter fit in the active site

123.

Describe the difference between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors.

a)

noncompetitive binds to active site and competitive binds to other site

b)

competitive binds to active site and noncompetitive binds to other site

c)

competitive is irreversible and noncompetitive is reversible binding

d)

noncompetitive is irreversible and competitive is reversible binding

124.

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

a)

ATP & NADH

b)

CO2 & H2O

c)

NADPH & ATP

d)

Organic Compounds & O2

125.

What is the function of the electron transport chain between Photosystem II and Photosystem I?

a)

establish electrochemical gradient of protons

b)

to funnel electrons into photosystem I for the Calvin cycle

c)

transport electrons to oxygen to make water

d)

to synthesize ATP using ATP synthase

126.

Where does the Calvin cycle take place?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

cristae

c)

stroma

d)

matrix

127.

Which of the following are electron carriers for the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?

a)

NADPH

b)

FADH2

c)

NADH

d)

NADH & FADH2

128.

Which process releases energy in glucose to form ATP, NADH, and pyruvate?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Fermentation

129.

In the electron transport chain of cellular respiration, where is the electrochemical gradient of protons generated?

a)

cytosol

b)

cristae

c)

matrix

d)

intermembrane space

130.

Which process does NOT require oxygen?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Oxidative Phosphorylation

c)

Krebs Cycle

d)

Aerobic respiration

131.

Describe the pathway of electrons in the light reactions.

a)

H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADPH

b)

H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADPH

c)

H2O → PSII → ETC → PSI → NADH

d)

H2O → PSI → ETC → PSII → NADH

132.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
133.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
134.
Which of the following molecules is not needed for the Calvin Cycle?
a)
CO2
b)
ATP
c)
NADPH
d)
H2O
135.
Green plants reflect ________ light.
a)
Red
b)
Green
c)
All
d)
Red and Violet
136.
The light reactions occur in the ________ and the dark reactions take place in the ________.
a)
Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma / thylakoid
c)
mesophyl / stomata
d)
thylakoid membrane / stroma
137.
Where does the carbon come from that is used to form glucose?
a)
The soil
b)
CO2 in the air
c)
From other carbohydrates
d)
Calvin Cycle
138.
Where is glucose synthesized
a)
Photosystem II
b)
Photosystem I
c)
Calvin Cycle
d)
Glycolysis
139.
Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
a)
stroma of the chloroplast
b)
thylakoid membrane
c)
outer membrane of the chloroplast
d)
interior of the thylakoid membrane
140.
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of
a)
reducing NADP+
b)
splitting water molecules
c)
chemiosmosis
d)
electron transfer in photosystem II and I
141.
What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?
a)
regenerate ATP for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
b)
produce carbon dioxide for use in the light reactions of photosynthesis
c)
produce oxygen by oxidizing water
d)
produce simple sugars from carbon dioxide
142.
The H+ concentration gradient is used to 
a)
make NADPH
b)
split a water molecule
c)
generate ATP
d)
form water
143.

Plants use the following reactants for the light reaction

a)

Water and CO2

b)

Water and NADPH

c)

Water and NADP+

d)

NADPH and ATP

144.

Photosynthesis goal is to

a)

convert light energy into glucose energy

b)

use light energy to make oxygen gas

c)

convert sugar energy into ATP

d)

convert sugar energy into oxygen gas

145.

If the proton (H+) pump in the thylakoid was not working which molecule could not be made during the light reaction?

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

Water

d)

Oxygen gas

146.

ATP is made during the light reaction using all of the following EXCEPT

a)

proton pump

b)

hydrogen ion gradient

c)

electron energy from photosystem II

d)

NADPH donating electrons

147.

What is FALSE about the calvin cycle

a)

uses the light reactions products

b)

produces a three carbon sugar (G3P)

c)

produces carbon dioxide

d)

produces NADP+

148.
Which process is the largest contributor to the release of CO2 
a)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
149.
Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions? 
a)
Fermentation
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs cycle 
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
150.
What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 
a)
Transport electrons and hydrogen atoms to the electron transport chain 
b)
Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration
c)
Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration
d)
Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis
151.
Glucose is broken down into pyruvate in a process known as 
a)
glycolysis
b)
electron transport
c)
the Krebs cycle
d)
phosphorylation
152.

A weightlifter is using heavy weights in short bursts for a competition. Because his muscle cells are not able to take in enough oxygen to make very much ATP the weightlifter begins to get fatigue in his muscles. Which of the following processes is most likely going on in the muscles of the weightlifter as he competes in his event?

a)

As the cells run out of oxygen they switch to anaerobic respiration (fermentation), which allows the cell to make small amounts of ATP in the absence of oxygen.

b)

As the cells run out of oxygen, they die off gradually and the weightlifter's muscles have fewer contracting muscle cells.

c)

The cells will never run out of oxygen if the weightlifter is breathing.

d)

As the cells run out of oxygen, they will continue to make the same amount of ATP, since oxygen is not required to make ATP.

153.

What does it mean to phosphorylate ADP?

a)

To add P, to ADP forming ATP and increasing the free energy of the molecule

b)

Removing a P, from ADP to become AMP and release energy

c)

ADP is being used to power other reactions

d)

ADP is being created by the reaction

154.

Anaerobic respiration yields about ______ ATP per glucose whereas aerobic respiration yields about _______ ATP per glucose.

a)

38, 2

b)

2, 38

c)

2, 18

d)

18, 2

155.

The function of fermentation is to regenerate ______ so that glycolysis can continue to produce ATP.

a)

NAD+

b)

glucose

c)

lactic acid

d)

ethanol

156.

The electrons that transfer energy to pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane were supplied by

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

NADH and FADH2

c)

water and oxygen

157.
Glycolysis is a _______ process
a)
Anabolic
b)
Catabolic
c)
Single Step
d)
Strictly Eukaryotic
158.
How many ATP are gained through glycolysis?
a)
0
b)
2
c)
4
d)
30-38
159.
During chemiosmosis
a)
H+ ions serve as the final electron acceptor
b)
a concentration gradient is generated when H+ ions are passively transported from the matrix to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion
c)
energy is released as H+ ions move freely across the mitochondrial membrane
d)
ATP is synthesized when H+ ions move through a channel in ATP synthase
160.

What are the three parts of signal transduction pathway?

a)

reception, transduction, response

b)

confirmation, transduction, transcription

c)

reception, amplification, transcription

d)

confirmation, amplification, response

161.

Transduction step traditionally amplifies the signal, which of the following are NOT involved with transduction?

a)

secondary messengers

b)

protein modification

c)

phosphorylation cascade

d)

ligands

162.

Describe what occurs when the ligand binds to the receptor.

a)

confirmation change in shape of receptor

b)

phosphorylation of ligand

c)

ligand passes through the membrane

d)

receptor binds additional ligands

163.

Which of the following is NOT a response by the cell from a signal transduction pathway?

a)

cell growth

b)

gene expression

c)

secretion of molecules

d)

all of the above are responses

164.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the cell cycle?

a)

interphase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

mitosis

d)

apoptosis

165.

Which of the following is the stage where the cell no longer divides?

a)

G0

b)

G1

c)

G2

d)

S

166.

Which of the following describes the order of the steps in mitosis?

a)

metaphase, telophase, anaphase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase

d)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

167.

Describe the interaction between cyclin and CdK.

a)

cyclin interacts with CdK to initiate the mitotic phase

b)

cyclin is the precursor to CdK, when synthesized allow for mitosis proceed

c)

cyclin acts as an inhibitor to CdK to wait for all DNA to be synthesized

d)

cyclin binds to CdK to initiate DNA replication

168.

Mitosis results in...

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

4 unique diploid cells

c)

2 unique haploid cells

d)

4 identical haploid cells

169.

Plant cells can exchange small soluble compounds with neighboring cells directly through junctions in the cell wall called -

a)

gap junctions

b)

thylakoids

c)

stomata

d)

plasmodesmata

170.

Glucagon causes the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose for cells. What conditions would trigger the release of glucagon?

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Low blood pH

c)

High heart rate

d)

Low cellular ATP concentration

171.

If a medicine works by blocking a secondary messenger, what effect would it have on that cell signaling pathway?

a)

It would increase the response if the pathway

b)

It would trigger the release of more ligands

c)

It would activate the transcription of a desired gene

d)

It would inhibit transduction, thus deactivating the response

172.

Which of the following describes anaphase?

a)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane is broken down

b)

Sister chromatids are separated and kinetochores begin pulling chromosomes to opposite poles

c)

Spindle fibers attach to centromeres and begin moving sister chromatids towards the cell's equator

d)

Chromosomes decondense and two nuclei form within the cell

173.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

174.

What would happen is protein phosphatases were defective?

a)

Cancerous cells would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle will shut down.

b)

Gametes would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle cannot shut down.

c)

Gametes would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle will shut down.

d)

Cancerous cells would take advantage and grow uncontrollably because the cell cycle cannot shut down.

175.

Which type of feedback loop would mammals use to maintain a constant body temperature or say 124.6 C?

a)

Homeostatic

b)

Postive

c)

Negative

d)

Isotonic

176.

Which hormone is most directly related to osmoregulation?

a)

Insulin

b)

HGH

c)

ADH

d)

Adrenaline

177.

What evidence is there that cell communication is a process that has evolved over billions of years?

a)

Only cells with a nucleus are able to communicate effectively

b)

The processes are very similar in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

c)

Eukaryotic cells have much more advanced signaling pathways

d)

Prokaryotic cells are much more efficient at communicating.

178.

Plant cells can exchange small soluble compounds with neighboring cells directly through junctions in the cell wall called -

a)

gap junctions

b)

thylakoids

c)

stomata

d)

plasmodesmata

179.

Which of these is a common type of final response in a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Activation of a G-protein receptor

b)

Transcription of a desired mRNA sequence

c)

Formation of cAMP

d)

Phosphorylation cascade

180.

A mutation in a cell membrane receptor would most likely have what effect on a signal transduction pathway?

a)

Reduce the response of the pathway

b)

An alternative response will be expressed

c)

Increase ligand binding

d)

Increase ligand release from the effector cell

181.

A person with an insulin deficiency would have trouble regulating what condition in their body?

a)

Blood calcium

b)

Blood pH

c)

Blood sugar

d)

Blood temperature

182.

Glucagon causes the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose for cells. What conditions would trigger the release of glucagon?

a)

High blood sugar

b)

Low blood pH

c)

High heart rate

d)

Low cellular ATP concentration

183.

This diagram shows transduction of a signal. How is the signal being transduced to its target location in the cell?

a)

A hormone is binding to an intracellular protein receptor

b)

Transport vesicles are passing neurotransmitters to neighboring cells

c)

Enzymes are passing phosphate groups down a series of proteins

d)

cAMP is formed activating a desired response

184.

What is a catabolic reaction?

a)

A reaction that requires an input of energy

b)

A reaction that forms complex molecules from simple building blocks

c)

A reaction that releases energy

d)

A reaction that breaks down complex molecules into their components

185.

Why do hormones not affect every cell in the body when they are released?

a)

All cells are affected by a hormone when it is released

b)

A cell needs a specific receptor for the hormone to be affected

c)

A cell must have the proper ATP levels to activate a cellular response

d)

Cells need compatible DNA for the hormone to activate transcription of a gene

186.

Secondary messengers that can activate or deactivate enzymes in a cell are typically part of which step of cell signaling?

a)

Reception

b)

Transduction

c)

Response

187.

Why do mutations in receptor proteins affect cell signaling?

a)

The receptor needs the proper sequence of amino acids to interact with the cell membrane

b)

The receptor needs a specific shape to bind to it's ligand

c)

The receptor must have the right polarity to interact with it's ligand

d)

All of the above

188.

Which of these cellular components are most directly involved with density dependent inhibition in the cell cycle?

a)

Membrane proteins

b)

Spindle fibers

c)

Nucleus

d)

Centrioles

189.

If a medicine works by blocking a secondary messenger, what effect would it have on that cell signaling pathway?

a)

It would increase the response if the pathway

b)

It would trigger the release of more ligands

c)

It would activate the transcription of a desired gene

d)

It would inhibit transduction, thus deactivating the response

190.

When we are dehydrated, ADH is released which causes more water to be absorbed into our bloodstream. What type of feedback does this represent?

a)

Positive feedback

b)

Negative feedback

191.

Which of the following is an example of positive feedback?

a)

Insulin lowering blood sugar

b)

Immune cells releasing inflammatory cytokines

c)

Breathing faster to release excess CO2

d)

Shivering to increase blood temperature

192.

How is negative feedback different from positive feedback?

a)

Negative feedback harms the body

b)

Negative feedback works to reverse a change in a system

c)

Negative feedback is rarer than positive

d)

Negative feedback is slower than positive feedback

193.

What important event happens during the S-phase of the cell cycle?

a)

The mitotic spindle forms

b)

The nuclear membrane breaks down

c)

DNA replication

d)

Sister chromatids separate

194.

After metaphase what phase occurs next in mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

195.

Which of the following describes anaphase?

a)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the nuclear membrane is broken down

b)

Sister chromatids are separated and kinetochores begin pulling chromosomes to opposite poles

c)

Spindle fibers attach to centromeres and begin moving sister chromatids towards the cell's equator

d)

Chromosomes decondense and two nuclei form within the cell

196.

How much DNA should a daughter cell at the end of cytokinesis have when compared to the original parent cell?

a)

Half the amount

b)

The exact same amount

c)

Double the amount

197.

What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

a)

Evenly divide the cytoplasm of the cell

b)

Creating an exact copy of a cell's genetic material

c)

Protect an organism from mutations

d)

Ensure genetic material is properly transferred to daughter cells

198.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

An undifferentiated stem cell

b)

4 genetically unique haploid cells

c)

2 genetically identical diploid cells

d)

2 genetically unique daughter cells

199.

Which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the greatest amount of time in?

a)

S phase

b)

Interphase

c)

M-phase

d)

Cytokinesis

200.

Mutations in genes that regulate the cell cycle will most likely lead to what disease?

a)

Cancer

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Diabetes

201.

How are cancerous cell different from healthy cells?

a)

The have a much shorter cell cycle

b)

They do not need nutrients to survive

c)

They are reliant upon density dependent inhibition

d)

They have twice as much genetic material

202.

How are cyclins and CDKs involved with the cell cycle?

a)

Cyclins stop the cell cycle from proceeding

b)

Cyclins and CDKs make up a protein ring used to perform cytokinesis

c)

Cyclins activate CDKs, which perform the work of cell division

d)

CDKs are secreted from cells to trigger division in neighboring cells

203.
In which phase does the cell spend most of it's life?
a)
Interphase
b)
Nuclear Division
c)
Telophase
d)
Mitosis
204.
DNA will condense into...
a)
Centromeres
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Nuclei
d)
Spindle fibers
205.
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
206.

Structure A refers to the _____.

a)

chromatid

b)

chromosome

c)

centromere

207.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
208.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
209.

Phase?

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

e)

interphase

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