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APES Exam Prep Draft 2

Total questions: 206

Worksheet time: 3hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an abiotic component?

a)

an eagle

b)

a rock

c)

a tree

d)

a human

e)

a virus

2.

A population is...

a)

All members of one species in one area

b)

All members of all species that live in one area

c)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area

d)

None of these

3.
The most important abiotic factors when studying biomes are...
a)
Food and Water
b)
Rain and Sunlight
c)
Temperature and Oxygen
d)
Precipitation and Temperature 
4.
Which biome is characterized by low temperatures and low amounts of rainfall?
a)
Tundra
b)
Desert
c)
Temperate Deciduous Forest
d)
Tropical Rainforest
5.

The kangaroo rat is able to get all of the water it needs through its food and therefore, never needs to drink liquid. This animal has adapted to survive in which biome?

a)

Forest

b)

Tundra

c)

Desert

d)

Grassland

6.

One characteristic feature of the tundra is that only the surface thaws in the summer and refreezes in the winter, leaving a permanently frozen subsoil. This characteristic is known as

a)

Hoarfrost

b)

Glaciation

c)

Permafrost

d)

Crystallization

7.

Which biome covers most of the land mass near Earth's equator?

a)

Desert

b)

Grassland

c)

Tropical rainforest

d)

Temperate forest

8.
The biome known for trees with broad leaves that fall off the trees in the winter.
a)
Taiga/Boreal/Coniferous Forests
b)
Temperate Seasonal (Decidious) Forests
c)
Deserts
d)
Tropical Rain Forests
9.
Which biome, because of its climate, has the largest number of species of plants and animals?
a)
Tundra
b)
Rainforest
c)
Desert
d)
Coniferous forest
10.

The rain forest soil is

a)

poor and rocky

b)

frozen soil

c)

thick and nutrient rich

d)

thin and nutrient poor

11.
Which biome is pictured below?
a)
ocean
b)
freshwater
c)
coral reef 
d)
wetland
12.

What is the single most important difference between the marine, freshwater, and estuary biomes?

a)

Salinity (dissolved salt)

b)

Sunlight

c)

Oxygen

d)

Amount of Water

13.
Plankton that make food by photosynthesis are called what?
a)
krill
b)
zooplankton
c)
phytoplankton
d)
plankton
14.
Aquatic food webs begin with what?
a)
krill
b)
zooplankton
c)
phytoplankton
d)
plankton
15.

An ecosystem where water covers the soil or water is near the surface of the soil is called

a)

a desert

b)

an ocean

c)

an estuary

d)

a wetland

16.

The kind of wetland formed where saltwater and fresh water meet is called

a)

bog

b)

estuary

c)

swamp

d)

marsh

17.

Plants with spines and waxy leaves are well suited for life in which environment?

a)

Desert

b)

Temperate forest

c)

Grassland

d)

Tropical Rainfroest

18.
Which one of these does not add CO2 to the atmosphere?
a)
cooking with gas
b)
planting trees
c)
burning wood
d)
riding in a bus
19.

What does NOT produce carbon dioxide?

a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
20.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
21.
Why is the ocean important to the carbon cycle?
a)
It keeps sediment containing carbon underwater for millions of years
b)
The ocean gives out more carbon then it takes in (increases global warming)
c)
The ocean isn't important to the carbon cycle.
22.
When humans burn fossil fuels, most of the carbon quickly enters the                       as carbon dioxide.
a)
Water
b)
Atmosphere
c)
Sun
d)
Air
23.
.What is the effect of deforestation on the carbon cycle? 
a)
 Increase in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere  
b)
Decrease in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere 
c)
Increase in the amount of photosynthesis 
d)
Deforestation has no impact on the carbon cycle 
24.

Gas that makes up 78% of our atmosphere.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Carbon Dioxide

25.

Which nutrient is not cycled through the atmosphere?

a)
carbon
b)
nitrogen
c)
phosphorus
d)
water
26.

What is the formula for atmospheric nitrogen?

a)

N

b)

N2

c)

NH3

d)

NO3

27.

Organisms that need nitrogen to survive.

a)

only plants

b)

only animals

c)

only bacteria

d)

all living things

28.

Plants and animals cannot use nitrogen directly from the air.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What is the process of combining nitrogen gas with other elements to make nitrogen into usable compounds?

a)

nitrogen composition

b)

nitrogen fixation

c)

ammonia

d)

denitrification

30.

What process occurs when dead plant and animal matter decomposes and nitrogen is released back into the atmosphere?

a)

Assimilation

b)

Fixation

c)

Ammonification

d)

Denitrification

31.

What converts nitrogen gas into a usable form for plants and animals?

a)

bacteria

b)

rain

c)

fungi

d)

car exhaust

32.

How is nitrogen "fixed" into a usable form for plants?

a)

Through action of bacteria only

b)

Through lightning only

c)

Through action of bacteria and lightning

d)

Through photosynthesis

33.

How do animals get the nitrogen they need?

a)

From the air they breathe

b)

From the water they drink

c)

From the food they eat

d)

From the sun

34.

__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.

a)

Net

b)

Total

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

35.

__________ primary productivity = the organic materials that remain after photosynthetic organisms in the ecosystem have used some of these compounds for their cellular energy needs (cellular respiration).

a)

Gross

b)

Total

c)

Net

d)

Secondary

36.

The total quantity of all living matter in an area is called:

a)

Troposphere

b)

Net Primary Productivity

c)

Biomass

d)

Ecosystem

37.

Ecological efficiency from one trophic level to the next is generally:

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

75%

d)

90%

38.
Which threat to biodiversity is being displayed?
a)
overexploitation
b)
invasive species
c)
pollution
d)
habitat fragmentation
39.
Species that could become endangered in the near future are called
a)
unlucky
b)
extinct
c)
endangered
d)
threatened
40.
The sea otter is a(n) ___________ that influences the survival of many other species in its ecosystem.
a)
endangered species
b)
keystone species
c)

critical animal

d)

pioneer species

41.
Introduced or invasive species are often difficult because:
a)
They contribute to habitat fragmentation
b)
They do not adapt well to new environments
c)
They increase biodiversity
d)
They often lack natural predators
42.

Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.

a)

Intraspecific Competition

b)

Mutualsim

c)

Predation

d)

Commensalism

e)

Interspecific Competition

43.

If you are an organism whose realized niche is to break down organic matter from the ecosystem into nutrients, you are probably a ____________.

a)

Producer

b)

Herbivore

c)

Primary consumer

d)

Decomposer

44.

Ecosystems and living organisms create buffers against natural disasters, thereby preventing possible damage.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

45.

Walking and playing sports in green space is not only a good form of physical exercise but also lets people relax.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

46.

Ecosystems control pests and diseases through the activities of predators and parasites. Birds, bats, flies, wasps, frogs and fungi all act as natural controls.

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

47.

A(n) ______ in species diversity is associated with a(n) ________ in the functions an ecosystem provides.

a)

increase; decrease

b)

decrease; increase

c)

decrease; unobserved change

d)

decline; decline

48.

What is is the study of how and why plants and animals live where they do?

a)

Evolution

b)

Adaptive Radiation

c)

Biogeography

d)

Biogeology

49.

The theory of island biogeography suggests that species richness is affected by which of the following factors?

I. island distance from mainland

II. how the island is formed

III. island size

a)

II only

b)

III only

c)

I and III

d)

II and III

50.

Which of the following is true about island biodiversity?

a)

Small islands are more likely to have more immigrated species

b)

Small islands have higher biodiversity than large islands

c)

Small islands have more resources and as a result may have more species

d)

Small islands have fewer resources and as a result may have fewer species

51.

What prediction is correct about island biogeography?

a)

Smaller islands have more resources, and will have more biodiversity

b)

Larger islands have more space for resources, but will have less biodiversity due to competition

c)

Islands closer to mainland will be more diverse due to more successful dispersal.

d)

There is more diversity far away from the mainland because some species fly.

52.
Lichens and mosses that first live in uninhabited areas are examples of
a)
secondary species
b)
non-native species
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax species
53.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
54.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)

a lot of parenting

c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
55.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
56.
Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called
a)
clumped dispersion.
b)
uniform dispersion.
c)
random dispersion
d)
scatter dispersion
57.
To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the
a)
area of the space
b)
birth and death rates
c)
carrying capacity
d)
height of the space
58.
Represents the biotic potential of the species
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
59.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
60.

Population increases at a constant rate over time.

a)

Exponential Growth

b)

Logistic Growth

c)

Stable Growth

d)

Strategic Growth

61.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
62.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
64.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
65.

What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Limiting Factors

c)

Immigration

d)

Exponential Growth

66.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

67.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

68.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)

Horizon R

69.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
mud
d)
dirt
70.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

71.

You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of? (probably)

a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
72.

Observe this diagram of a plate boundary. One statement BEST describes what is happening. It is that

a)

the oceanic crust is melting.

b)

the denser ceanic crust is subducting under the less dense oceanic crust

c)

volcanic islands are forming.

d)

the tectonic plates are moving away from each other.

73.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
74.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
75.

What is the correct sequence of layers of the earth's atmosphere from earth's surface to space?

a)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

b)

mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere.

c)

troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

d)

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

76.

Which is a direct result of the Coriolis Effect?

a)

Upwellings

b)

tides

c)

ocean conveyor belt

d)

Tsunami

e)

Ocean gyres

77.

The surface of the earth, otherwise known as the ______, is broken into seven major pieces and sits atop a liquid layer called the _______

a)

lithosphere, asthenosphere

b)

astenosphere, mantle

c)

crust, litosphere

d)

asthenosphere, lithosphere

78.
The layer of soil which the topsoil is found.
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
79.

Sea surface temperature changes great than 0.5oC for greater than 5 months across the central tropical Pacific Ocean are known as

a)

the arctic effect

b)

the get stream

c)

a typhoon

d)

El Nino-Southern Oscillation

80.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)

clay, sand, silt

b)

sand, clay, silt

c)

silt, clay, sand

d)

clay, silt, sand

81.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
82.

The movement of the tectonic plates is caused by

a)

the rotation of the Earth.

b)

convection currents in the Asthenosphere

c)

the gravity of the iron-nickel core.

d)

the Moho discontinuity.

83.
The Gulf stream carries _____________ water from the east coast of The United States to the West coast of Europe.
a)
Cold
b)
Warm 
c)
Freezing
d)
Fresh
84.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)
The North Pole
b)
The South Pole
c)
The Equator
d)
Both A and B
85.
The sun's rays are least direct
a)
near the poles
b)
near the equator
c)
at high altitudes
d)
far from the ocean
86.

In which layer of the atmosphere does ozone help block UV radiation from striking the Earth?

a)

troposphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

thermosphere

87.

In which layer of the atmosphere do all the pressure, wind, and precipitation changes occur?

a)

Outer space

b)

stratosphere

c)

troposphere

d)

mesosphere

88.

Farming that depends on hand tools and natural fertilizers and lacks large-scale irrigation.

a)

interplanting

b)

conservation tillage

c)

subsidence

d)

low input

89.

Growing two different crops in an area at the same time is called

a)

crop rotation

b)

agroforestry

c)

intercropping

d)

terracing

90.

Planting a field with different crops from year to year

a)

industrial agriculture

b)

crop rotation

c)

conservation tillage

d)

alley cropping

91.
a)

Terracing

b)

Alley Cropping

c)

Crop Rotation

d)

Contour Farming

92.

40% of all rainforests have been cleared in the last 40 years, mostly in order to be used for . . .

a)

monoculture plantations

b)

mining

c)

Subsistence farming

d)

cattle pasture

93.

The LEAST efficient method of irrigation in terms of water loss is . . .

a)

Spray

b)

Drip

c)

Furrow

d)

Flood

94.

Which of the following methods could be used to reduce erosion in strip minning of coal?

a)

Only remove the low grade ore

b)

Increase use of open pit mining instead

c)

Replant vegetation after mining.

d)

Increase water use for mining purpose

95.

Reclamation is the process of

a)

Removing coal from a subsurface seam

b)

Extracting ore minerals from gangue minerals

c)

Returning land to its original or better condition

d)

Protecting the habitats of local wildlife

96.

Ore leftovers after valuable minerals have been removed

a)

tailings

b)

smelting piles

c)

extraction heap

d)

gravel

97.

Why are mine tailings dangerous?

a)

can cause miners to trip

b)

can be full of sharp objects

c)

can cause acid leaching into water bodies

d)

are full of conflict minerals

98.

A person’s ecological footprint is

a)

the land that a person lives on

b)

the amount of carbon dioxide a person contributes to climate change

c)

the land required to produce a person’s food

d)

the land needed to support all of a person’s activities

e)

the amount of fossil fuel a person uses

99.
a)

Intercropping

b)

Crop Rotation

c)

Agroforestry

d)

Contour Farming

100.

Agriculture carried out for survival

a)

Agroforestry

b)

Subsistence

c)

Monoculture

d)

Plantation

101.

Soil that has NOT been tilled tends to have _____ organic matter than tilled soil. This causes it to ___________.

a)

more; fall apart easily

b)

more; stay together tightly.

c)

less; fall apart easily

d)

less; stay together tightly.

102.

In what type of field would you expect to see the LEAST amount of runoff during a storm?

a)

no till

b)

tilled

103.

Compared with people in developing countries, people in industrialized countries are more likely to eat

a)

beans

b)

beef

c)

corn

d)

rice

e)

wheat

104.

75% of all freshwater on Earth is used for

a)

drinking water

b)

meat production

c)

industry

d)

agriculture

105.

The most efficient method of irrigation is

a)

Spray

b)

Drip

c)

Furrow

d)

Flood

106.

The most costly method of irrigation is . . .

a)

Spray

b)

Drip

c)

Furrow

d)

Flood

107.

The LEAST efficient method of irrigation in terms of water loss is . . .

a)

Spray

b)

Drip

c)

Furrow

d)

Flood

108.

Biological control methods for managing insect pests are effective for reasons that include which of the following?


I. They promote genetic resistance in the target species, resulting in a population explosion of the target species.


II. They generally focus on one target insect to ensure that the target insect population remains low.


III. They can lead to a self-perpetuating population of a control species.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II, and III

109.

Which of the following is a benefit of clearcutting? Select all that apply.

a)

it is cost effective (cheap)

b)

it helps maintain forest stream temperatures

c)

some trees require full sun conditions to thrive

d)

It prevents erosion.

110.

Identify and describe a timber harvesting method that could be used as an alternative to clear cutting.

4 lines
111.

Describe a real world example of the Tragedy of the Commons.

4 lines
112.

Deforestation has resulted in

a)

more farmland in some places but more desertification in others

b)

more farmland in some places and less desertification in others

c)

less farmland in some places but more desertification in others

d)

less farmland in some place and less desertification in others

e)

no noticeable change in the amount of farmland or desertification

113.

In less developed countries, pesticides are typically applied by hand, whereas pesticides are typically applied by tractors or aircraft in more developed countries. Which of the following best explains the risks associated with pesticide applications?

a)

Crop dusters are at risk when applying pesticides with aircraft in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in less developed countries.

b)

Farm animals used to plow fields are at risk from pesticides in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk is less developed countries.

c)

Farmers' health is at risk in less developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in more developed countries.

d)

Crops are at risk in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in less developed countries.

e)

Contract harvesters are at risk in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in less developed countries.

114.

Which of the following is a downside of GM crops? Select all that apply.

a)

less biodiversity

b)

can better withstand extreme weather events

c)

possible harm to beneficial insects

d)

require less water and fertilizer

e)

higher crop yields

115.

Describe TWO negative consequences of the Green Revolution.

4 lines
116.

Which of the following is an example of a mechanical pest management strategy?

a)

bringing in natural predators of the pest

b)

spraying insecticide

c)

filling up cracks in a building's exterior

117.

Which of the following is a benefit of CAFOs?

a)

decreased predation

b)

increased disease spread

c)

increased cost to consumer

d)

better animal welfare

118.

Describe TWO strategies for minimizing the negative impact of urban development on the environment.

4 lines
119.

What are the best approaches for handling stormwater? (select TWO)

a)

slow it down

b)

speed it up

c)

absorb/capture it

d)

add more water to it

120.

What are the benefits of managing stormwater appropriately? (choose TWO answers)

a)

minimizes pollutants

b)

slows down climate change

c)

recharges groundwater

d)

produces electricity

121.

What does "impervious" mean?

a)

penetrable

b)

open

c)

exposed

d)

impermeable

122.

Saltwater intrusion is occurring faster now than it has in past decades.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

Saltwater intrusion occurs when . . . (pick TWO)

a)

salt water comes up onto low elevation land

b)

salt water makes its way into precipitation

c)

salt water seeps into fresh water aquifers

d)

salt water gets into your tap water

124.

What is land subsidence?

a)

When the land erodes dramatically because of water's movement.

b)

When the ground sinks because of groundwater depletion.

c)

When an area is being irrigated by groundwater.

d)

When an area is being subjected to saltwater intrusion.

125.

VOCs . . .

a)

solidify at room temp

b)

evaporate at room temp

c)

melt at room temp

d)

condense into liquid at room temp

126.

POPs are . . .

a)

Primary Ozone Particulates

b)

Persistent Organic Pollutants

c)

Prematurely Oxygenated Particles

d)

Pernicious Oxide Products

127.

A strong VOC and greenhouse gas, made in excess from livestock.

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Lead

c)

Mercury

d)

Methane

128.

A protective gas in the stratosphere, but a pollutant in the troposphere.

a)

Ozone

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Radon

d)

Methane

129.

Check all that are considered primary air pollutants.

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Ozone

d)

Methane

130.

Which of the following is true of acid deposition?

a)

It kills fish by precipitating copper that causes lung mucus buildup

b)

It is a benefit to plants by leaching soil nutrients

c)

It increases the pH of aquatic ecosystems

d)

It damages statues, buildings, and car finishes

131.

Anything less than 7 on the pH scale is:

a)

Acidic

b)

Neutral

c)

Alkaline

132.

Cool air trapped below warm air, with the possibility of trapping pollutants near the surface.

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Temperature Inversion

d)

Heat Island

133.

What do scrubbers do to control air pollution?

a)

They increase the efficiency of electricity generation

b)

They remove gases and particulates from exhaust

c)

They use electric charge to remove pollutants

d)

They convert pollutants to something less harmful

134.

Catalytic converters reduce which of the following pairs of pollutants in car exhaust?

a)

Carbon dioxide and ozone

b)

Carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons

c)

Carbon dioxide and particulates

d)

Lead and mercury

e)

Methane and particulates

135.

Acid deposition forms as a result of

a)

nitrogen oxides and photochemical smog

b)

carbon monoxide and VOC's

c)

sulfur dioxide and VOC's

d)

nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxides

136.

A mineral composed of strong, fire-resistant fibers that are known to cause lung disease if inhaled.

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

137.

Emitted from most manufactured building materials and furniture

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide

e)

formaldehyde

138.

Which of the following is the human health impact most closely associated with atmospheric particulates?

a)

Cataracts

b)

Diabetes

c)

Melanoma

d)

Asthma

e)

Obesity

139.

Which is NOT a criteria air pollutant?

a)

Sulfur dioxide

b)

lead

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

particulate matter

140.

The Clean Air Act- regulates vehicle emissions.

a)

true

b)

false

141.
Used on factory stacks to remove gases and particulate.
a)
Filters
b)
Emission reducers
c)
Scrubbers
d)

catalytic converters

142.

A type of pollution found both indoors and outdoors, which includes pollen, dander, soot, carbon, and dust.

a)

PANs

b)

Sulfur oxides

c)

Particulate matter

d)

VOCs

143.

Which of the following are examples of VOC's ? (Select 3)

a)

paint and paint thinners

b)

gasoline

c)

water vapor

d)

formaldehyde

e)

smog

144.

Which of the following is NOT a primary pollutant?

a)

nitric oxides

b)

smog

c)

sulfur dioxide

d)

volatile organic compounds

145.

This toxic heavy metal was found in paints and gasoline in the U.S. until 1976

a)

Lead

b)

Mercury

c)

CFC

d)

VOC

146.

This colorless, odorless gas comes from the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels and biomass

a)

Sulfur dioxide (SO2)

b)

Carbon monoxide (CO)

c)

Radon-222

d)

Formaldhyde

147.

Catalytic converters cut down on carbon dioxide emissions from vehicle exhaust.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

Lead is particularly nasty in the human body because our bodies confuse it for what?

a)

potassium

b)

iron

c)

calcium

d)

Vitamin C

149.

Heat islands are most likely to occur

a)

over rural areas

b)

in the polar regions

c)

in the suburbs

d)

over cities

150.

Where on Earth is there a nearly-permanent thermal inversion?

a)

Antarctica

b)

Europe

c)

South America

d)

Australia

e)

Hawai'i

151.

Which of the following is an appropriate way to mitigate heat islands?

a)

Make buildings taller.

b)

Minimize green spaces.

c)

Increase space between buildings.

d)

Use darker building materials.

152.

Thermal inversions tend to occur

a)

during early morning

b)

around midday

c)

in the late afternoon

d)

at night

153.

Thermal inversions typically only occur over land.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Most of the time in the troposphere, temperature _______ as altitude increases.

a)

increases

b)

stays the same

c)

decreases

155.

Which group of organisms is particularly vulnerable to the negative effects of noise pollution?

a)

insects

b)

reptiles

c)

marine mammals

d)

pelagic (open ocean dwelling) birds

156.

Noise pollution can cause changes to migratory routes.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

Heat islands can exacerbate what meteorological event?

a)

tornadoes

b)

high wind gusts

c)

flooding due to heavy rain

d)

blizzards

158.

Which surface color would REFLECT the most light?

a)

black

b)

green

c)

white

159.

Warm water holds _____ oxygen as compared to cold water.

a)

more

b)

the same amount of

c)

less

160.

When a catalyst helps a chemical reaction take place, it is used up. New catalyst must be found for a second reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

Catalytic converters are primarily found

a)

in nuclear power plants

b)

adjacent to wet scrubbers on factory vents

c)

in motor vehicles

d)

on specialized industrial equipment

162.

Why are catalytic converters often subject to theft?

a)

They are untraceable.

b)

They contain precious metals.

c)

They can be used to make weapons.

d)

They aren't--this is a myth.

163.

Most of the scents you smell are . . .

a)

POPs

b)

PANs

c)

VOCs

d)

particulates

164.

The largest source of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides is . . .

a)

extracting metal from ore

b)

using fossil fuels

c)

landfills

d)

volcanoes

165.

What toxic metal does acid rain leach from clay in soil?

a)

lead

b)

aluminum

c)

mercury

d)

cadmium

166.

How do sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides affect human health?

a)

skin problems

b)

digestive system issues

c)

respiratory system issues

d)

reproductive system issues

167.

What nutrients does acid rain remove from soil?

a)

magnesium and calcium

b)

iron and calcium

c)

magnesium and iron

d)

potassium and sodium

168.

What gas mixes with the atmosphere to create sulfuric acid?

a)

magnesium oxide

b)

nitrogen oxides

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

sulfur dioxide

169.

What gas mixes with the atmosphere to create nitric acid?

a)

magnesium oxide

b)

nitrogen oxides

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

sulfur dioxide

170.

What ecosystems suffer the most damage from acid rain?

a)

deserts and grasslands

b)

aquatic ecosystens and tundra

c)

tundra and grasslands

d)

forests and aquatic ecosystems

171.

Sometimes soil can partially neutralize acid rain.

a)

True

b)

False

172.

Emissions of the gases that cause acid rain have decreased since the passing of the Clean Air Act.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

After sustained exposure to high levels of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, what health conditions can develop? Select all that apply.

a)

asthma

b)

skin cancer

c)

chronic bronchitis

d)

stomach ulcers

174.

What is the highest number on the pH scale?

a)

7

b)

10

c)

14

d)

20

175.

Which type of pollutant is generally more difficult to regulate?

a)

Point Source

b)

Non-point Source

176.
A liquid that has passed through compacted solid waste
a)
oil
b)
leachate
c)
fertilizer
d)
battery acid
177.
Garbage produced by households and businesses
a)
hazardous waste
b)
school lunch
c)
municipal solid waste
d)
city water
178.

Potentially explosive or chemically reactive

a)

hazardous waste

b)

municipal solid waste

c)

agricultural waste

179.

The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) was passed in response to the Love Canal disaster. What issue (s) with the Love Canal was the law intended to prevent in the future?

a)

The placing of industrial waste in an unsecured landfill.

b)

The construction of residential homes and a school on top of a hazardous waste landfill

c)

The lack of documentation about what specific chemicals were placed in the landfill

d)

These were all issues with the Love Canal addressed by the law

180.
Which item should you NOT put in your compost pile?
a)
food scraps
b)
autumn leaves
c)
wood chips
d)
plastic
181.
E-waste is generated from...
a)
electronics
b)
elevated nuclear plants
c)
elephants at the zoo
d)
EPA regulated facilities
182.
In what category of waste do paint, household cleaners, medical waste, and solvents belong?
a)
hazardous
b)
compost
c)
municipal solid
d)
industrial
183.

As garbage rots in landfills this harmful gas is produced

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Methane

d)

Water vapor

184.

Which of the following is part of wastewater pretreatment?

a)

sterilization

b)

aeration chambers

c)

bar screens

d)

activated sludge

185.

Which of the following is a viscous fluid?

(assume nothing else is mixed in with the fluid)

a)

syrup

b)

water

c)

gasoline

d)

skim milk

186.

Which of the following is NOT a kind of disinfection approach used in wastewater treatment?

a)

UV light

b)

iodine

c)

ozone (O3)

d)

chlorine

187.

Activated sludge requires _________ to function.

a)

aeration

b)

disinfection

c)

a grit chamber

d)

bar screens

188.

Water moving from wastewater pretreatment to primary treatment would be most appropriately referred to as . . .

a)

sewage

b)

aerated

c)

infrastructure

d)

effluent

189.

In settling tanks, it is important that flow rate is __________ settling velocity.

a)

faster than

b)

the same as

c)

slower than

190.

Wastewater treatment plants fall under the scope of _____ engineering.

a)

aerospace

b)

civil

c)

agricultural

191.

Which of the following could be described as homogeneous?

a)

trail mix

b)

hand sanitizer

c)

chocolate chip cookie

d)

pizza

192.

What is one way to increase D.O.?

a)

increase sediment in water

b)

add aquatic plants

c)

increase direct sunlight

d)

increase nutrients in water

193.

What does EPA stand for?

a)

Ecosystem Pollution Administration

b)

Eutrophication Prevention Administration

c)

Environmental Protection Agency

d)

Enhanced Pollution Alerts

194.

Which of the following organisms would be considered an aquatic macroinvertebrate?

a)

algae

b)

crayfish

c)

adult fish

d)

beaver

195.

Which of the following is typically measured for water quality testing?

a)

temperature

b)

UV light

c)

pressure

196.

A tanker that runs aground causing oil to leak into the ocean is a ___________water pollutant.

a)

Point-Source

b)

Nonpoint-Source

197.

Can be traced back to the point of origin.

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Non-point source pollution

198.

Oil, Grease and toxic chemicals from the roadways runoff into a nearby lake

a)

Point Source Pollution

b)

Nonpoint Source Pollution

199.

Which of the following will result in accelerated eutrophication when introduced into streams, lakes, and bays?

a)

Bacteria and viruses

b)

pesticides

c)

herbicides

d)

phosphates

e)

acid wastes

200.

The diagram shows a power plant designed to generate electricity for a nearby city.

The water used in this type of power plant is often released back into a reservoir.

Which of the following effects could this released water have on the reservoir?

a)

The released water is radioactive and is lethal to a variety of organisms in the reservoir.

b)

Chemical pollutants in the released water cause algal blooms in the reservoir.

c)

Ash from the power plant is dissolved in the released water and will precipitate out into the reservoir.

d)

The temperature of the released water causes a decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen in the reservoir.

201.

Which of the following describes a component of a modern sanitary landfill?

a)

A series of screens and grates to prevent large objects from entering the landfill

b)

A bottom liner of plastic or clay to prevent groundwater contamination

c)

Aerated tanks in which bacteria break down organic matter

d)

Chemical or ultraviolet light systems that kill pathogens

202.

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of high turbidity in aquatic ecosystems?

a)

increased levels of sunlight

b)

fish gills clogged

c)

decrease in primary productivity

d)

low water quality

203.

Which of the following is NOT a source of nitrates and phosphates into a river?

a)

Fertilizers

b)

Animal waste

c)

Wastewater

d)

Burning fossil fuels

204.

In a dead zone, _________ levels are really low such that living organisms are not able survive.

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

fertilizer

d)

carbon dioxide

205.

Which of the following federal laws specifically deals with the cleanup of abandoned hazardous waste sites

a)

CERCLA/Superfund

b)

Clean Air Act

c)

RCRA

d)

Clean Water Act

206.

Which of the following laws gave the EPA the authority to control hazardous waste from “cradle-to-grave”, including the generation, transportation, treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste?

a)

CERCLA/Superfund

b)

Clean Air Act

c)

RCRA

d)

Clean Water Act

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